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  • Modify values on-the-fly during SqlAdapter.Fill( )

    - by Timothy
    What would the proper way be to modify values on the fly as they are loaded into a DataTable by SqlAdapter.Fill()? I have globalized my application's log messages. An integer indicating the event type and serialized data relevant to the event is stored in the database as show below. When I display the logged events through a DataGridView control to the user, I interpolate the data to a formatting string. event_type event_timestamp event_details ============================================ 3 2010-05-04 20:49:58 jsmith 1 2010-05-04 20:50:42 jsmith ... I am currently iterating through the DataTable's rows to format the messages. public class LogDataTable : DataTable { public LogDataTable() { Locale = CultureInfo.CurrentCulture; Columns.AddRange(new DataColumn[] { new DataColumn("event_type", typeof(Int32)), new DataColumn("event_timestamp", typeof(DateTime)), new DataColumn("event_details", typeof(String))}); } } ... using (SqlDataAdapter adapter = new SqlDataAdapter(...)) { adapter.SelectCommand.Parameters.AddRange(new Object[] { ... }); adapter.Fill(table); } foreach (DataRow row in table.Rows) { switch ((LogEventType)row["event_type"]) { case LogEventType.Create: row["event_details"] = String.Format(Resources.Strings.LogEventCreateMsg, row["event_details"]; break; case LogEventType.Create: row["event_details"] = String.Format(Resources.Strings.LogEventCreateMsg, row["event_details"]; break; ... The end result as displayed would resemble: Type Date and Time Details ==================================================================== [icon] 2010-05-04 20:49:58 Failed login attempt with username jsmith [icon] 2010-05-04 20:50:42 Successful login with username jsmith ... It seems wasteful to iterate the result set twice-- once as the table is filled by the adapter, and again to perform the replacements. I would really like to do the replacement on-the-fly in my LogDataTable class as it is being populated. I have tried overriding an OnRowChanging method in LogDataTable, which throws an InRowChangingEventException. protected override void OnRowChanging(DataRowChangeEventArgs e) { base.OnRowChanging(e); switch ((LogEventType)row["event_type"]) ... I have tried overriding an OnRowChanged method, which throws a StackOverflowException (I assume changing it re-triggers the method ad infinitum?). I have tried overriding an OnTableNewRow method, which does not throw an exception but appears not to be invoked (I assume only when a user adds a row in the view, which I've prevented). I'd greatly appreciate any assistance anyone can give me.

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  • Using drawAtPoint with my CIImage not doing anything on screen

    - by Adam
    Stuck again. :( I have the following code crammed into a procedure invoked when I click on a button on my application main window. I'm just trying to tweak a CIIMage and then display the results. At this point I'm not even worried about exactly where / how to display it. I'm just trying to slam it up on the window to make sure my Transform worked. This code seems to work down through the drawAtPoint message. But I never see anything on the screen. What's wrong? Thanks. Also, as far as displaying it in a particular location on the window ... is the best technique to put a frame of some sort on the window, then get the coordinates of that frame and "draw into" that rectangle? Or use a specific control from IB? Or what? Thanks again. // earlier I initialize a NSImage from JPG file on disk. // then create NSBitmapImageRep from the NSImage. This all works fine. // then ... CIImage * inputCIimage = [[CIImage alloc] initWithBitmapImageRep:inputBitmap]; if (inputCIimage == Nil) NSLog(@"could not create CI Image"); else { NSLog (@"CI Image created. working on transform"); CIFilter *transform = [CIFilter filterWithName:@"CIAffineTransform"]; [transform setDefaults]; [transform setValue:inputCIimage forKey:@"inputImage"]; NSAffineTransform *affineTransform = [NSAffineTransform transform]; [affineTransform rotateByDegrees:3]; [transform setValue:affineTransform forKey:@"inputTransform"]; CIImage * myResult = [transform valueForKey:@"outputImage"]; if (myResult == Nil) NSLog(@"Transformation failed"); else { NSLog(@"Created transformation successfully ... now render it"); [myResult drawAtPoint: NSMakePoint ( 0,0 ) fromRect: NSMakeRect ( 0,0,128,128 ) operation: NSCompositeSourceOver fraction: 1.0]; //100% opaque [inputCIimage release]; } }

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  • Delphi Unit local variables - how to make each instance unique?

    - by Justin
    Ok, this, I'm sure is something simple that is easy to do. The problem : I've inherited scary spaghetti code and am slowly trying to better it when new features need adding - generally when a refactor makes adding the new feature neater. I've got a bunch of code I'm packing into a single unit which, in different places in the application, controls the same physical thing in the outside world. The control appears in several places in the application and operates slightly differently in each instance. What I've done is to create a unit with all of the features I need which I can simply drop, as a frame, into each form that requires it. Each form then uses the unit's interface methods to customise the behaviour for each instance. The problem within the problem : In the unit in question (the frame) I have a variable declared in the IMPLEMENTATION section - local to the unit. I also have a procedure, declared in the TYPE section which takes an argument and assigns that argument to the local variable in question - each form passes a unique variable to each instance of the frame/unit. What I want it to do is for each instance of the frame to keep its own version of that variable, different from the others, and use that to define how it operates. What seems to be happening, however, is that all instances are using the same value, even if I explicitly pass each instance a different variable. ie: Unit FlexibleUnit; interface uses //the uses stuff type TFlexibleUnit=class(TFrame) //declarations including procedure makeThisInstanceX(passMeTheVar:integer); private // public // end; implementation uses //the uses var myLocalVar; procedure makeThisInstanceX(passMeTheVar:integer); begin myLocalVar:=passMeTheVar; end; //other procedures using myLocalVar //etc to the end; Now somewhere in another Form I've dropped this Frame onto the Design pane, sometimes two of these frames on one Form, and have it declared in the proper places, etc. Each is unique in that : ThisFlexibleUnit : TFlexibleUnit; ThatFlexibleUnit : TFlexibleUnit; and when I do a: ThisFlexibleUnit.makeThisInstanceX(var1); //want to behave in way "var1" ThatFlexibleUnit.makeThisInstanceX(var2); //want to behave in way "var2" it seems that they both share the same variable "myLocalVar". Am I doing this wrong, in principle? If this is the correct method then it's a matter of debugging what I have (which is too huge to post) but if this is not correct in principle then is there a way to do what I am suggesting? Thanks in advance, Stack Overflow - you guys (and gals!) are legendary.

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  • Programmatically Binding to a Property

    - by M312V
    I know it's a generic title, but my question is specific. I think it will boil down to a question of practice. So, I have the following code: public class Component : UIElement { public Component() { this.InputBindings.Add(new MouseBinding(SomeCommandProperty, new MouseGesture(MouseAction.LeftClick))); } } I could easily aggregate the ViewModel that owns SomeCommandProperty into the Component class, but I'm currently waiving that option assuming there is another way. Component is a child of ComponentCollection which is child of a Grid which DataContext is the ViewModel. ComponentCollection as the name suggests contains a collection of Components. <Grid Name="myGrid"> <someNamespace:ComponentCollection x:Name="componentCollection"/> </Grid> It's the same scenario as the XAML below, but with TextBlock. I guess I'm trying to replicate what's being done in the XAML below programatically. Again, Component's top most ancestor's DataContext is set to ViewModel. <Grid Name="myGrid"> <TextBlock Text="SomeText"> <TextBlock.InputBindings> <MouseBinding Command="{Binding SomeCommandProperty}" MouseAction="LeftClick" /> </TextBlock.InputBindings> </TextBlock> </Grid> Update 1 Sorry, I'm unable to comment because I lack the reputation points. Basically, I have a custom control which inherit from a Panel which children are a collection of Component. It's not a hack, like I've mentioned, I could directly have access to SomeCommandProperty If I aggregate the ViewModel into Component. Doing so, however, feels icky. That is, having direct access to ViewModel from a Model. I guess the question I'm asking is. Given the situation that Component's parent UIElement's DataContext is set to ViewModel, is it possible to access SomeCommandProperty without Component owning a reference to the ViewModel that owns SomeCommandProperty? Programatically, that is. Using ItemsControl doesn't change the fact that I still need to bind SomeCommandProperty to each Items.

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  • Paging & Sorting grids with ASP.Net MVC

    - by Scott Ivey
    I'm new to MVC, and am not following how you'd do paging and sorting on a grid. I'm used to using the asp.Net GridView control with an ObjectDataSource pointed at objects in our business layer - and in that case the ODS handles all of the paging & sorting using the methods that our ORM generates on the objects. I've looked at using the same ORM with MVC - and things work out fine there - i just loop thru the collections to build the table on the page - but without the ODS to handle the paging & sorting, i'm confused as to how I'd handle that. Would I have a separate controller for the paging and sorting? I'm not sure what the best practices are for this scenario, so if someone can point me in the right direction it would be much appreciated. Edit: Ok, so I understand that I need to roll my own - but where do I start? I've created a CustomerController, and a view that displays a table of customers that looks like below - and I want to sort on FirstName or LastName columns. My Model has a Sort() method on it that'll take a string sort expression in the format that would be used by a GridView/ODS pair. Would I create a new Action on my CustomerController called Sort, and put an ActionLink in my header? <table> <tr> <th> First Name </th> <th> Last Name </th> </tr> <% foreach (var item in Model) { %> <tr> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.FirstName) %> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.LastName) %> </td> </tr> <% } %> </table>

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  • How to implement a caching model without violating MVC pattern?

    - by RPM1984
    Hi Guys, I have an ASP.NET MVC 3 (Razor) Web Application, with a particular page which is highly database intensive, and user experience is of the upmost priority. Thus, i am introducing caching on this particular page. I'm trying to figure out a way to implement this caching pattern whilst keeping my controller thin, like it currently is without caching: public PartialViewResult GetLocationStuff(SearchPreferences searchPreferences) { var results = _locationService.FindStuffByCriteria(searchPreferences); return PartialView("SearchResults", results); } As you can see, the controller is very thin, as it should be. It doesn't care about how/where it is getting it's info from - that is the job of the service. A couple of notes on the flow of control: Controllers get DI'ed a particular Service, depending on it's area. In this example, this controller get's a LocationService Services call through to an IQueryable<T> Repository and materialize results into T or ICollection<T>. How i want to implement caching: I can't use Output Caching - for a few reasons. First of all, this action method is invoked from the client-side (jQuery/AJAX), via [HttpPost], which according to HTTP standards should not be cached as a request. Secondly, i don't want to cache purely based on the HTTP request arguments - the cache logic is a lot more complicated than that - there is actually two-level caching going on. As i hint to above, i need to use regular data-caching, e.g Cache["somekey"] = someObj;. I don't want to implement a generic caching mechanism where all calls via the service go through the cache first - i only want caching on this particular action method. First thought's would tell me to create another service (which inherits LocationService), and provide the caching workflow there (check cache first, if not there call db, add to cache, return result). That has two problems: The services are basic Class Libraries - no references to anything extra. I would need to add a reference to System.Web here. I would have to access the HTTP Context outside of the web application, which is considered bad practice, not only for testability, but in general - right? I also thought about using the Models folder in the Web Application (which i currently use only for ViewModels), but having a cache service in a models folder just doesn't sound right. So - any ideas? Is there a MVC-specific thing (like Action Filter's, for example) i can use here? General advice/tips would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Trying to run multiple HTTP requests in parallel, but being limited by Windows (registry)

    - by Nailuj
    I'm developing an application (winforms C# .NET 4.0) where I access a lookup functionality from a 3rd party through a simple HTTP request. I call an url with a parameter, and in return I get a small string with the result of the lookup. Simple enough. The challenge is however, that I have to do lots of these lookups (a couple of thousands), and I would like to limit the time needed. Therefore I would like to run requests in parallel (say 10-20). I use a ThreadPool to do this, and the short version of my code looks like this: public void startAsyncLookup(Action<LookupResult> returnLookupResult) { this.returnLookupResult = returnLookupResult; foreach (string number in numbersToLookup) { ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(lookupNumber, number); } } public void lookupNumber(Object threadContext) { string numberToLookup = (string)threadContext; string url = @"http://some.url.com/?number=" + numberToLookup; WebClient webClient = new WebClient(); Stream responseData = webClient.OpenRead(url); LookupResult lookupResult = parseLookupResult(responseData); returnLookupResult(lookupResult); } I fill up numbersToLookup (a List<String>) from another place, call startAsyncLookup and provide it with a call-back function returnLookupResult to return each result. This works, but I found that I'm not getting the throughput I want. Initially I thought it might be the 3rd party having a poor system on their end, but I excluded this by trying to run the same code from two different machines at the same time. Each of the two took as long as one did alone, so I could rule out that one. A colleague then tipped me that this might be a limitation in Windows. I googled a bit, and found amongst others this post saying that by default Windows limits the number of simultaneous request to the same web server to 4 for HTTP 1.0 and to 2 for HTTP 1.1 (for HTTP 1.1 this is actually according to the specification (RFC2068)). The same post referred to above also provided a way to increase these limits. By adding two registry values to [HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Internet Settings] (MaxConnectionsPerServer and MaxConnectionsPer1_0Server), I could control this myself. So, I tried this (sat both to 20), restarted my computer, and tried to run my program again. Sadly though, it didn't seem to help any. I also kept an eye on the Resource Monitor (see screen shot) while running my batch lookup, and I noticed that my application (the one with the title blacked out) still only was using two TCP connections. So, the question is, why isn't this working? Is the post I linked to using the wrong registry values? Is this perhaps not possible to "hack" in Windows any longer (I'm on Windows 7)? Any ideas would be highly appreciated :) And just in case anyone should wonder, I have also tried with different settings for MaxThreads on ThreadPool (everyting from 10 to 100), and this didn't seem to affect my throughput at all, so the problem shouldn't be there either.

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  • Accessing parent-level controls from inside a ComboBox's child controls

    - by eponymous23
    I have XAML similar to this: <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding SearchCriteria, Source={StaticResource model}}" SelectionChanged="cboSearchCriterionType_SelectionChanged"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel Name="spCriterion" Orientation="Horizontal" Height="20"> <ComboBox Name="cboSearchCriterionType" Width="120" SelectionChanged="cboSearchCriterionType_SelectionChanged"> <ComboBox.Items> <ComboBoxItem IsSelected="True" Content="Anagram Match" /> <ComboBoxItem Content="Pattern Match" /> <ComboBoxItem Content="Subanagram Match" /> <ComboBoxItem Content="Length" /> <ComboBoxItem Content="Number of Vowels" /> <ComboBoxItem Content="Number of Anagrams" /> <ComboBoxItem Content="Number of Unique Letters" /> </ComboBox.Items> </ComboBox> <TextBox x:Name="SearchSpec" Text="{Binding SearchSpec}" /> <TextBox x:Name="MinValue" Text="{Binding MinValue}" Visibility="Collapsed" /> <TextBox x:Name="MaxValue" Text="{Binding MaxValue}" Visibility="Collapsed" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> As you can tell from the markup, I have a listbox that is bound to a collection of SearchCriterion objects (collectively contained in a SearchCriteria object). The idea is that the user can add/remove criterion items from the criteria, each criterion is represented by a listbox item. Inside the listbox item I have a combobox and three textboxes. What I'm trying to do is change the visibility of the TextBox controls depending on the item that is selected in the ComboBox. For example, if the user selects "Pattern Match" then I want to show only the first textbox and hide the latter two; conversely, if the user selects "Length" or any of the "Number of..." items, then I want to hide the first TextBox and show the latter two. What is the best way to achieve this? I was hoping to do something simple in the SelectionChanged event handler for the listbox but the textbox controls are presumably out of the SelectionChanged event's scope. Do I have to programmatically traverse the control hierarchy and find the controls?

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  • Supersized image captions - render outside of JavaScript

    - by Sol
    I am using the jQuery supersized script for a full screen slideshow (not the WordPress plugin as this didn't give me enough control). However, one issue that I am trying to tackle is how to render the image caption text outside of the javascript slides[ ] call - and instead, render them within the page div - to improve SEO on the page. My code works fine right now, images and the caption text are correctly displaying, but looking at the source code, there is very little text outside of the javascript (which is bad for SEO), so I would just like to improve it, if possible. I haven't been able to find any other topic on this subject and so far, I've been unsuccessful at improving on the current code, which is as follows; <!-- Supersized 3.2.7 - By Sam Dunn / One Mighty Roar (www.onemightyroar.com) Released under MIT License / GPL License --> <script type="text/javascript"> var slides=[]; <?php $my_query = new WP_Query ( array( 'post_status' => 'publish', 'post_type' => 'featured', //'numberposts' => 5, 'orderby' => 'menu_order', 'order' => 'ASC', 'showposts' => 50 )); while( $my_query->have_posts() ) : $my_query->the_post(); $slink = get_post_meta($post->ID,'FS_link',true); ?> slides.push({image : '<?php echo get_image_path(get_post_meta($post->ID, 'FS_slideimage_src', true)); ?>', title : '<div class="slidecaptioninside"><h1><?php echo the_title(); ?></h1><p><?php echo strip_tags(get_post_meta($post->ID, 'FS_fitemcaption', true)); ?>...<a href="<?php echo $slink;?>">find out more</a></p></div>', url : '<?php echo $slink;?>'}); <?php endwhile; ?> // start supersized JS $j = jQuery.noConflict(); $j(window).load(function() { $j.supersized({ //Functionality slideshow: 1, // ..... additional functions go here... slide_captions : 1, //Slide caption (Pull from "title" in slides array) slides : slides, slide_links : 'blank', progress_bar : 1, mouse_scrub: 1 }); }); </script> <div id="slidecontainer"> <div id="slidecaption"></div> <!--Thumbnail Navigation--> <div id="prevthumb"></div> <div id="nextthumb"></div> <!--additional tray divs here--> </div><!--slidecontainer--> I have tried to get Supersized to output the content into a parent div [div id="supersized"] using $j('#supersized').supersized({ but this doesn't appear to work. Has anyone managed to do this differently to improve page SEO?

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  • Wordpress installed in root folder, subdomain now not working, GoDaddy host

    - by Kristin
    Hi, please forgive me for being a complete beginner at this, I'd rather not have to try to deal with this myself but as GoDaddy support have not replied after 2 days I'm going to have to. I think my problem is the same as the one above, but I'm not 100% sure, so I'm reposting it, I'm not really confident enough to attempt to try the fixes I've seen here so I need someone to give me baby instructions? Our original website (www.mwpics.com.au) was built in Dreamweaver etc, recently we created a new website in Wordpress, in a subdomain, then migrated it over to the root folder where it is now operating fine. I also moved the files for the old website into another directory which I called 'old', so they're all still there. The problem is that I have a subdomain set up - which is still showing as set up in the control panel on godaddy the url is www.mwpics.com.au/clients and it is at www.clients.mwpics.com.au. This directory contains loads of other directories, each of which is password protected by .htaccess files and which our clients access directly (not through the site) to download their finished work. The test one and the one for random clients is www.mwpics.com.au/clients/temp - username and password both temp (the usernames are all the same as the directory names). Since the WP install to the root directory the /clients extension no longer works (it should bring up an information page which is an .html index page in the directory) and the /clients/name extensions no longer works - it goes back to the wp site with a 'not found' error message. Strangely it does bring up the box for the username and password, but when you enter it it just goes back to the 'not found' message. Someone told me it was the .htaccess file - so as an experiment, I renamed the .htaccess file in the root directory and then copied the .htaccess file from the old root files into the root directory, eureka! It worked - and also the WP site opened to the home page... but bummer - the /pages in the WP site now no longer worked! But at least I know the source of the problem. So I switched it back and this is the status quo - I have no idea how to fix this, and with everyone back at work tomorrow, clients are going to want to start downloading their stuff... Can anyone help me? I'm starting to panic a bit

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  • What database table structure should I use for versions, codebases, deployables?

    - by Zac Thompson
    I'm having doubts about my table structure, and I wonder if there is a better approach. I've got a little database for version control repositories (e.g. SVN), the packages (e.g. Linux RPMs) built therefrom, and the versions (e.g. 1.2.3-4) thereof. A given repository might produce no packages, or several, but if there are more than one for a given repository then a particular version for that repository will indicate a single "tag" of the codebase. A particular version "string" might be used to tag a version of the source code in more than one repository, but there may be no relationship between "1.0" for two different repos. So if packages P and Q both come from repo R, then P 1.0 and Q 1.0 are both built from the 1.0 tag of repo R. But if package X comes from repo Y, then X 1.0 has no relationship to P 1.0. In my (simplified) model, I have the following tables (the x_id columns are auto-incrementing surrogate keys; you can pretend I'm using a different primary key if you wish, it's not really important): repository - repository_id - repository_name (unique) ... version - version_id - version_string (unique for a particular repository) - repository_id ... package - package_id - package_name (unique) - repository_id ... This makes it easy for me to see, for example, what are valid versions of a given package: I can join with the version table using the repository_id. However, suppose I would like to add some information to this database, e.g., to indicate which package versions have been approved for release. I certainly need a new table: package_version - version_id - package_id - package_version_released ... Again, the nature of the keys that I use are not really important to my problem, and you can imagine that the data column is "promotion_level" or something if that helps. My doubts arise when I realize that there's really a very close relationship between the version_id and the package_id in my new table ... they must share the same repository_id. Only a small subset of package/version combinations are valid. So I should have some kind of constraint on those columns, enforcing that ... ... I don't know, it just feels off, somehow. Like I'm including somehow more information than I really need? I don't know how to explain my hesitance here. I can't figure out which (if any) normal form I'm violating, but I also can't find an example of a schema with this sort of structure ... not being a DBA by profession I'm not sure where to look. So I'm asking: am I just being overly sensitive?

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  • Thoughts on streamlining multiple .Net apps

    - by John Virgolino
    We have a series of ASP.Net applications that have been written over the course of 8 years. Mostly in the first 3-4 years. They have been running quite well with little maintenance, but new functionality is being requested and we are running into IDE and platform issues. The apps were written in .Net 1.x and 2.x and run in separate spaces but are presented as a single suite of applications which use a common navigation toolbar (implemented as a user control). Every time we want to add something to a menu in the nav we have to modify it in all the apps which is a pain. Also, the various versions of Crystal reports and that we used tables to organize the visual elements and we end up with a mess, especially with all the multi-platform .Net versions running. We need to streamline the suite of apps and make it easier to add on new apps without a hassle. We also need to bring all these apps under one .Net platform and IDE. In addition, there is a WordPress blog styled to match the style of the application suite "integrated" into the UI and a link to a MediaWiki Wiki application as well. My current thinking is to use an open source content management system (CMS) like Joomla (PHP based unfortunately, but it works well) as the user interface framework for style templating and menu management. Joomla's article management would allow us to migrate the Wiki content into articles which could be published without interfering with the .Net apps. Then essentially use an IFrame within an "article" to "host" the .Net application, then... Upgrade the .Net apps to VS2010, strip out all the common header/footer controls and migrate the styles to use the style sheets used in the CMS. As I write this, I certainly realize this is a lot of work and there are optimization issues which this may cause as well as using IFrames seems a bit like cheating and I've read about issues with IFrames. I know that we could use .Net application styling, but it seems like a lot more work (not sure really). Also, the use of a CMS to handle the blog and wiki also seems appealing, unless there is a .Net CMS out there that can handle all of these requirements. Given this information, I am looking to know if I am totally going in the wrong direction? We tried to use open source and integrate it over time, but not this has become hard to maintain. Am I not aware of some technology out there that will meet our requirements? Did we do this right and should we just focus on getting the .Net streamlined? I understand that no matter what we do, it's going to be a lot of work. The communities considerable experience would be helpful. Thanks!! PS - A complete rewrite is not an option.

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  • How to query data from a password protected https website

    - by Addie
    I'd like my application to query a csv file from a secure website. I have no experience with web programming so I'd appreciate detailed instructions. Currently I have the user login to the site, manually query the csv, and have my application load the file locally. I'd like to automate this by having the user enter his login information, authenticating him on the website, and querying the data. The application is written in C# .NET. The url of the site is: https://www2.emidas.com/default.asp. I've tested the following code already and am able to access the file once the user has already authenticated himself and created a manual query. System.Net.WebClient Client = new WebClient(); Stream strm = Client.OpenRead("https://www3.emidas.com/users/<username>/file.csv"); Here is the request sent to the site for authentication. I've angle bracketed the real userid and password. POST /pwdVal.asp HTTP/1.1 Accept: image/jpeg, application/x-ms-application, image/gif, application/xaml+xml, image/pjpeg, application/x-ms-xbap, application/vnd.ms-excel, application/vnd.ms-powerpoint, application/msword, application/x-shockwave-flash, */* User-Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 6.1; Trident/4.0; SLCC2; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; .NET CLR 3.0.30729; Media Center PC 6.0; InfoPath.2; Tablet PC 2.0; OfficeLiveConnector.1.4; OfficeLivePatch.1.3; .NET4.0C; .NET4.0E) Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded Accept-Encoding: gzip, deflate Cookie: ASPSESSIONID<unsure if this data contained password info so removed>; ClientId=<username> Host: www3.emidas.com Content-Length: 36 Connection: Keep-Alive Cache-Control: no-cache Accept-Language: en-US client_id=<username>&password=<password>

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  • how to fix protocol violation in c#

    - by Jeremy Styers
    I have a c# "client" and a Java "server". The java server has a wsdl it serves to the client. So far it works for c# to make a request for the server to perform a soap action. My server gets the soap request executes the method and tries to return the result back to the client. When I send the response to c# however, I get "The server committed a protocol violation. Section=ResponseStatusLine". I have spent all day trying to fix this and have come up with nothing that works. If I explain what i did, this post would be very long, so I'll keep it brief. i Googled for hours and everything tells me my "response line" is correct. I tried shutting down Skype, rearranging the response line, adding things, taking things away, etc, etc. All to no avail. This is for a class assignment so no, I can not use apis to help. I must do everything manually on the server side. That means parsing by hand, creating the soap response and the http response by hand. Just thought you'd like to know that before you say to use something that does it for me. I even tried making sure my server was sending the correct header by creating a java client that "mimicked" the c# one so I could see what the server returned. However, it's returning exactly what i told it to send. I tried telling my java client to do the same thing but to an actuall running c# service, to see what a real service returns, and it returned basically the same thing. To be safe, I copied it's response and tried sending it to the c# client and it still threw the error. Can anyone help? I've tried all i can think of, including adding the useUnsafeHeaderParsing to my app config. Nothing is working though. I send it exactly what a real service sends it and it yells at me. I send it what i want and it yells. I'm sending this: "200 OK HTTP/1.0\r\n" + "Content-Length: 201\r\n" + "Cache-Control: private\r\n" + "Content-Type: text/xml; charset=utf-8\r\n\r\n";

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  • How to override loading a TImage from the object inspector (at run-time)?

    - by Mawg
    Further to my previous question, which did not get a useful answer despite a bounty, I will try rephrasing the question. Basically, when the user clicks the ellipsis in the object inspector, Delphi opens a file/open dialog. I want to replace this handling with my own, so that I can save the image's path. I would have expected that all I need to do is to derive a class from TImage and override the Assign() function, as in the following code. However, when I do the assign function is never called. So, it looks like I need to override something else, but what? unit my_Image; interface uses Classes, ExtCtrls, Jpeg, Graphics; type Tmy_Image = class(Timage) private FPicture : TPicture; protected procedure OnChange(Sender: TObject); public { Public declarations } Constructor Create(AOwner: TComponent); override; procedure SetPicture(picture : TPicture); procedure Assign(Source: TPersistent); override; published { Published declarations - available in the Object Inspector at design-time } property Picture : TPicture read FPicture write SetPicture; end; // of class Tmy_Image() procedure Register; implementation uses Controls, Dialogs; procedure Register; begin RegisterComponents('Standard', [Tmy_Image]); end; Constructor Tmy_Image.Create(AOwner: TComponent); begin inherited; // Call the parent Create method Hint := 'Add an image from a file|Add an image from a file'; // Tooltip | status bar text AutoSize := True; // Control resizes when contents change (new image is loaded) Height := 104; Width := 104; FPicture := TPicture.Create(); self.Picture.Bitmap.LoadFromResourceName(hInstance, 'picture_poperty_bmp'); end; procedure Tmy_Image.OnChange(Sender: TObject); begin Constraints.MaxHeight := Picture.Height; Constraints.MaxWidth := Picture.Width; Self.Height := Picture.Height; Self.Width := Picture.Width; end; procedure Tmy_Image.SetPicture(picture : TPicture); begin MessageDlg('Tmy_Image.SetPicture', mtWarning, [mbOK], 0); // never called end; procedure Tmy_Image.Assign(Source: TPersistent); begin MessageDlg('Tmy_Image.Assign', mtWarning, [mbOK], 0); // never called end; end.

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  • Instance Failure in asp.net

    - by user85511
    I have a web application that is working perfectly in my system. However, when I copied it to another system, I couldn't login to the application. There is an error: Server Error in '/' Application. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Instance failure. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.InvalidOperationException: Instance failure. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [InvalidOperationException: Instance failure.] System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.Connect(ServerInfo serverInfo, SqlInternalConnectionTds connHandler, Boolean ignoreSniOpenTimeout, Int64 timerExpire, Boolean encrypt, Boolean trustServerCert, Boolean integratedSecurity, SqlConnection owningObject) +4858423 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.AttemptOneLogin(ServerInfo serverInfo, String newPassword, Boolean ignoreSniOpenTimeout, Int64 timerExpire, SqlConnection owningObject) +90 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.LoginNoFailover(String host, String newPassword, Boolean redirectedUserInstance, SqlConnection owningObject, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, Int64 timerStart) +257 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.OpenLoginEnlist(SqlConnection owningObject, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, String newPassword, Boolean redirectedUserInstance) +221 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds..ctor(DbConnectionPoolIdentity identity, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, Object providerInfo, String newPassword, SqlConnection owningObject, Boolean redirectedUserInstance) +189 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnectionFactory.CreateConnection(DbConnectionOptions options, Object poolGroupProviderInfo, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnection owningConnection) +4859187 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.CreatePooledConnection(DbConnection owningConnection, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnectionOptions options) +31 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.CreateObject(DbConnection owningObject) +433 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.UserCreateRequest(DbConnection owningObject) +66 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.GetConnection(DbConnection owningObject) +499 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) +65 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) +117 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.Open() +122 System.Web.DataAccess.SqlConnectionHolder.Open(HttpContext context, Boolean revertImpersonate) +87 System.Web.DataAccess.SqlConnectionHelper.GetConnection(String connectionString, Boolean revertImpersonation) +221 System.Web.Security.SqlMembershipProvider.GetPasswordWithFormat(String username, Boolean updateLastLoginActivityDate, Int32& status, String& password, Int32& passwordFormat, String& passwordSalt, Int32& failedPasswordAttemptCount, Int32& failedPasswordAnswerAttemptCount, Boolean& isApproved, DateTime& lastLoginDate, DateTime& lastActivityDate) +815 System.Web.Security.SqlMembershipProvider.CheckPassword(String username, String password, Boolean updateLastLoginActivityDate, Boolean failIfNotApproved, String& salt, Int32& passwordFormat) +105 System.Web.Security.SqlMembershipProvider.CheckPassword(String username, String password, Boolean updateLastLoginActivityDate, Boolean failIfNotApproved) +42 System.Web.Security.SqlMembershipProvider.ValidateUser(String username, String password) +78 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Login.AuthenticateUsingMembershipProvider(AuthenticateEventArgs e) +60 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Login.OnAuthenticate(AuthenticateEventArgs e) +119 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Login.AttemptLogin() +115 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Login.OnBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs e) +101 System.Web.UI.Control.RaiseBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs args) +37 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button.OnCommand(CommandEventArgs e) +118 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button.RaisePostBackEvent(String eventArgument) +166 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button.System.Web.UI.IPostBackEventHandler.RaisePostBackEvent(String eventArgument) +10 System.Web.UI.Page.RaisePostBackEvent(IPostBackEventHandler sourceControl, String eventArgument) +13 System.Web.UI.Page.RaisePostBackEvent(NameValueCollection postData) +36 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +1565 -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:2.0.50727.3053; ASP.NET Version:2.0.50727.3053 What could be the reason for such an error? How could I solve this?

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  • Across process marhalling problem with an array of points

    - by ElMagn
    Hi All, We have what we think is a marshalling problem with a renderer object when called across process boundaries. The renderer is an ATL COM server with a COM object that implements the IPoints interface defined below: typedef [uuid(B0E01719-005A-427c-B9DD-B42A18E969AE)] struct Point { double X; double Y; } Point; [ object, uuid(3BFECFE3-B4FB-4f14-8257-6E065D02E3B3), helpstring("IPoints Interface"), dual, ] interface IPoints : IDispatch { HRESULT DrawPolyLine([in] long hDC, [in] short count, [in, size_is(count)] Point * points ); // many more like DrawLine } The count parameter represents the number of points and the points parameter represents an array of the actual points. We have two process running, a graphical display process (GDP) and a tabular (grid) display process (TDP). A factory in the GDP, written in C#, creates the renderer and the clients of the renderer in the GDP. When the clients call into the renderer, everything displays correctly. The renderer is created at start up BTW. There is another factory in the TDP, written in VB6, that calls into the factory in the GDP to create the clients. When the clients call into the renderer, only the first point in the array is marshaled correctly, all the other points are garbage. Seems that the rendering works only when the client creation is started from the same process as the renderer. Now, i am not sure what the solution to this problem is. It seems that if we can guarantee that the clients are always created from a thread in the same GDP process as the renderer then the points are marshaled correctly. We tried using a background thread from the Thread Pool in C# and it indeed worked. The problem is that Windows Forms created from the clients stopped working because accessing the form's controls from a thread other than the thread that created the control is not allowed. We might change the calls to access the forms but we have quite a few of them and are trying to look into a different solution that might involve making changes to the renderer. The other problem is that the renderer is legacy code and we can't just change the interface. I am wondering what can we do to the renderer's interface that would help with marshalling from across process calls. Any ideas would be greatly appreciated. Regards, ElMagn

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  • Rails learn's confusion

    - by Steve
    This is a beginner's rails learning confusion. When I learn rails, from time to time, I feel frustrated on rails' principle "Convention over Configuration". Rails uses heavily on conventions. A lot of them are just naming conventions. If I forget a convention, I will either use the wrong naming and get unexpected result or get things magically done but don't understand how. Sometimes, I think of configuration. At least configuration lists everything clearly and nothing is in fog. In rails, there seems a hidden, dark contract between you and the machine. If you follow the contract, you communicate well. But a beginner usually forgets items listed on the contract and this usually leads to confusion. That's why when I first pick up rails, I feel like it is somehow difficult to learn. Besides, there are many other things that could be new to a learner, such as using git, using plugins from community, using RESTful routing style, using RSpec. All these are new and come together in learning ruby and rails. This definitely adds up difficulties for a beginner. In contrast, if you learn php, it wouldn't be that bad. You can forget many things and focus on learning php itself. You don't need to learn database handling if you know SQL already(in rails, you need to learn a whole new concept migration), you don't have to learn a new decent unit test(in rails, usually they teach RSpec along the way because rails is agile and you should learn test-driven development in the early learning stage), you don't have to learn a new version control(in rails, you will be taught about git anyway), you don't have to use complicated plugins(in rails, they usually use third-party plugins in textbook examples! what the hell? why not teach how to do a simplified similar thing in rails?), you don't have to worry RESTful style. All in all, when I learn php, I learn it quick and soon I start to write things myself. Learning php is similar to learning C/java. It tastes like those traditional languages. When I learn rails, it is more difficult. And I need to learn ruby as well (I believe many of you learn ruby just because of rails). Does anyone have the similar feeling as I have? How do you overcome it and start to master rails? Hints will be welcomed. Thank you.

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  • Trouble with ASP.NET MVC auto-scaffolder template

    - by DanM
    I'm trying to write an auto-scaffolder template for Index views. I'd like to be able to pass in a collection of models or view-models (e.g., IQueryable<MyViewModel>) and get back an HTML table that uses the DisplayName attribute for the headings (th elements) and Html.Display(propertyName) for the cells (td elements). Each row should correspond to one item in the collection. Here's what I have so far: <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl" %> <% var items = (IQueryable<TestProj.ViewModels.TestViewModel>)Model; // How do I make this generic? var properties = items.First().GetMetadata().Properties .Where(pm => pm.ShowForDisplay && !ViewData.TemplateInfo.Visited(pm)); %> <table> <tr> <% foreach(var property in properties) { %> <th> <%= property.DisplayName %> </th> <% } %> </tr> <% foreach(var item in items) { HtmlHelper itemHtml = ????; // What should I put in place of "????"? %> <tr> <% foreach(var property in properties) { %> <td> <%= itemHtml.Display(property.DisplayName) %> </td> <% } %> </tr> <% } %> </table> Two problems with this: I'd like it to be generic. So, I'd like to replace var items = (IQueryable<TestProj.ViewModels.TestViewModel>)Model; with var items = (IQueryable<T>)Model; or something to that effect. A property Html is automatically created for me when the view is created, but this HtmlHelper applies to the whole collection. I need to somehow create an itemHtml object that applies just to the current item in the foreach loop. I'm not sure how to do this, however, because the constructors for HtmlHelper don't take a Model object. How do I solve these two problems?

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  • What is the best practice to segment c#.net projects based on a single base project

    - by Anthony
    Honestly, I can't word my question any better without describing it. I have a base project (with all its glory, dlls, resources etc) which is a CMS. I need to use this project as a base for othe custom bake projects. This base project is to be maintained and updated among all custom bake projects. I use subversion (Collabnet and Tortise SVN) I have two questions: 1 - Can I use subversion to share the base project among other projects What I mean here is can I "Checkout" the base project into another "Checked Out" project and have both update and commit seperatley. So, to paint a picture, let's say I am working on a custom project and I modify the core/base prject in some way (which I know will suit the others) can I then commit those changes and upon doing so when I update the base project in the other "Checked out" resources will it pull the changes? In short, I would like not to have to manually deploy updated core files whenever I make changes into each seperate project. 2 - If I create a custom file (let's say an webcontrol or aspx page etc) can I have it compile seperatley from the base project Another tricky one to explain. When I publish my web application it creates DLLs based on the namespaces of projects attached to it. So I may have a number of DLLs including the "Website's" namespace DLL, which could simply be website. I want to be able to make a seperate, custom, control which does not compile into those DLLs as the custom files should not rely on those DLLS to run. Is it as simple to set a seperate namespace for those files like CustomFiles.ProjectName for example? Think of the whole idea as adding modules to the .NET project, I don't want the module's code in any of the core DLLs but I do need for module to be able to access the core dlls. (There is no need for the core project to access the module code as it should be one way only in theory, though I reckon it woould not be possible anyway without using JSON/SOAP or something like that, maybe I am wrong.) I want to create a pluggable environment much like that of Joomla/Wordpress as since PHP generally doesn't have to be compiled first I see this is the reason why all this is possible/easy. The idea is to allow pluggable themes, modules etc etc. (I haven't tried simply adding .NET themes after compile/publish but I am assuming this is possible anyway? OR does the compiler need to reference items in the files?)

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  • Google maps sometimes does not return a geocoded value for string

    - by XGreen
    Hi Guys, I have the following code: It basically looks into a HTML list and geocodes and markets each item. it does it correctly 8 out of ten but sometimes I get an error I set for show in the console. I can't think of anything. Any thoughts is much appreciated. $(function () { var map = null; var geocoder = null; function initialize() { if (GBrowserIsCompatible()) { // Specifies that the element with the ID map is the container for the map map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map")); // Sets an initial map positon (which mainly gets ignored after reading the adderesses list) map.setCenter(new GLatLng(37.4419, -122.1419), 13); // Instatiates the google Geocoder class geocoder = new GClientGeocoder(); map.addControl(new GSmallMapControl()); // Sets map zooming controls on the map map.enableScrollWheelZoom(); // Allows the mouse wheel to control the map while on it } } function showAddress(address, linkHTML) { if (geocoder) { geocoder.getLatLng(address, function (point) { if (!point) { console.log('Geocoder did not return a location for ' + address); } else { map.setCenter(point, 8); var marker = new GMarker(point); map.addOverlay(marker); // Assigns the click event to each marker to open its balloon GEvent.addListener(marker, "click", function () { marker.openInfoWindowHtml(linkHTML); }); } } ); } } // end of show address function initialize(); // This iterates through the text of each address and tells the map // to show its location on the map. An internal error is thrown if // the location is not found. $.each($('.addresses li a'), function () { var addressAnchor = $(this); showAddress(addressAnchor.text(), $(this).parent().html()); }); }); which looks into this HTML: <ul class="addresses"> <li><a href="#">Central London</a></li> <li><a href="#">London WC1</a></li> <li><a href="#">London Shoreditch</a></li> <li><a href="#">London EC1</a></li> <li><a href="#">London EC2</a></li> <li><a href="#">London EC3</a></li> <li><a href="#">London EC4</a></li> </ul>

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  • Can't Show image in gridview using templates

    - by n10i
    i am trying to load images from the northwind database (categories table, images that are stored in the database) into grid view control. But it dosenot seems to work. Plz! have a look... Default.aspx <asp:GridView ID="GridView1" runat="server" AllowSorting="True" AutoGenerateColumns="False" DataKeyNames="CategoryID" DataSourceID="NorthWindSQLExpressConnectionString" EnableModelValidation="True"> <Columns> <asp:BoundField DataField="CategoryID" HeaderText="CategoryID" InsertVisible="False" ReadOnly="True" SortExpression="CategoryID" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="CategoryName" HeaderText="CategoryName" SortExpression="CategoryName" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="Description" HeaderText="Description" SortExpression="Description" /> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Picture" SortExpression="Picture"> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("Picture") %>'></asp:TextBox> </EditItemTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Image ID="Image1" runat="server" ImageUrl='<%# RetriveImage(Eval("CategoryID")) %>' /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView> <asp:SqlDataSource ID="NorthWindSQLExpressConnectionString" runat="server" ConnectionString="<%$ ConnectionStrings:NorthwindSQLExpressConnectionString %>" SelectCommand="SELECT [CategoryID], [CategoryName], [Description], [Picture] FROM [Categories]"> </asp:SqlDataSource> </div> </form> [Partial] Default.aspx.cs protected string RetriveImage(object eval) { return ("ImageHandler.ashx?CategoryID=" + eval.ToString()); } [Partial] ImageHandler.ashx public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { if (context.Request.QueryString == null) { } else { try { using (var sqlCon = new SqlConnection(conString)) { const string cmdString = "Select picture from Categories where CategoryID=@CategoryID"; using (var sqlCmd = new SqlCommand(cmdString, sqlCon)) { sqlCmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@CategoryID", context.Request.QueryString["CategoryID"]); string trmp = sqlCmd.ToString(); sqlCon.Open(); using (var sqlDr = sqlCmd.ExecuteReader()) { sqlDr.Read(); context.Response.BinaryWrite((byte[])sqlDr["Picture"]); } } } } catch (Exception ex) { context.Response.Write(ex.Message); } } }

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  • Java loading user-specified classes at runtime

    - by user349043
    I'm working on robot simulation in Java (a Swing application). I have an abstract class "Robot" from which different types of Robots are derived, e.g. public class StupidRobot extends Robot { int m_stupidness; int m_insanityLevel; ... } public class AngryRobot extends Robot { float m_aggression; ... } As you can see, each Robot subclass has a different set of parameters. What I would like to do is control the simulation setup in the initial UI. Choose the number and type of Robots, give it a name, fill in the parameters etc. This is one of those times where being such a dinosaur programmer, and new to Java, I wonder if there is some higher level stuff/thinking that could help me here. So here is what I've got: (1) User Interface Scrolling list of Robot types on the left. "Add " and "<< Remove" buttons in the middle. Default-named scrolling list of Robots on the right. "Set Parameters" button underneath. (So if you wanted an AngryRobot, you'd select AngryRobot on the left list, click "Add" and "AngryRobot1" would show up on the right.) When selecting a Robot on the right, click "Set Parameters..." button which would call yet another model dialog where you'd fill in the parameters. Different dialog called for each Robot type. (2) Data structures an implementation As an end-product I think a HashMap would be most convenient. The keys would be Robot types and the accompanying object would be all of the parameters. The initializer could just retrieve each item one and a time and instantiate. Here's what the data structures would look like: enum ROBOT_TYPE {STUPID, ANGRY, etc} public class RobotInitializer { public ROBOT_TYPE m_type; public string m_name; public int[] m_int_params; public float[] m_float_params; etc. The initializer's constructor would create the appropriate length parameter arrays based on the type: public RobotInitializer(ROBOT_TYPE type, int[] int_array, float[] float_array, etc){ switch (type){ case STUPID: m_int_params = new int[STUPID_INT_PARAM_LENGTH]; System.arraycopy(int_array,0,m_int_params,0,STUPID_INT_PARAM_LENGTH); etc. Once all the RobotInitializers are instantiated, they are added to the HashMap. Iterating through the HashMap, the simulation initializer takes items from the Hashmap and instantiates the appropriate Robots. Is this reasonable? If not, how can it be improved? Thanks

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  • XML serialization options in .NET

    - by Borek
    I'm building a service that returns an XML (no SOAP, no ATOM, just plain old XML). Say that I have my domain objects already filled with data and just need to transform them to the XML format. What options do I have on .NET? Requirements: The transformation is not 1:1. Say that I have an Address property of type Address with nested properties like Line1, City, Postcode etc. This may need to result in an XML like <xaddr city="...">Line1, Postcode</xaddr>, i.e. quite different. Some XML elements/attributes are conditional, for example, if a Customer is under 18, the XML needs to contain some additional information. I only need to serialize the objects to XML, the other direction (XML to objects) is not important Some technologies, i.e. Data Contracts use .NET attributes. Other means of configuration (external XML config, buddy classes etc.) would be a plus. Here are the options as I see them as the moment. Corrections / additions will be very welcome. String concatenation - forget it, it was a joke :) Linq 2 XML - complete control but quite a lot of hand written code, would need good suite of unit tests View engines in ASP.NET MVC (or even Web Forms theoretically), the logic being in controllers. It's a question how to structure it, I can have simple rules engine in my controller(s) and one view template per each possible output, or have the decision logic directly in the template. Both have upsides and downsides. XML Serialization - I'm not sure about the flexibility here Data Contracts from WCF - not sure about the flexibility either, plus would they work in a simple ASP.NET MVC app (non-WCF service)? Are they a super-set of the standard XML serialization now? If it exists, some XML-to-object mapper. The more I think about it the more I think I'm looking for something like this but I couldn't find anything appropriate. Any comments / other options?

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  • Get data from aspx.cs page to aspx page.

    - by Brad8118
    So I am using a jquery plug in that allows me to change the order of things in a list by dragging and dropping them. So my goal is to be able to grab a list of my objects (AlertInfo) and using it in a javascript function. I was able to use a json webservice call in a test project to pass the data to the page. But we don't have a webservice page now so I tried to grab it from a aspx.cs page and it hasn't worked. ///Aspx page: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "~/Alerts/GetAlerts", data: "{}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { var data = eval("(" + msg.d + ")"); jQuery.each(data, function (rec) { AlertList[AlertList.length] = new objAlert(this.id, this.title, this.details, JSONDateSerializationFix(this.startdate), JSONDateSerializationFix(this.enddate)); UpdateDisplayList(); }) }, error: function (msg) { alert("BRAD" + msg); } The issue is that the Alerts page in "URL /Alerts/GetAlerts" is Alerts.aspx.cs. I can't figure out if I can use this ajax command to call a method in a aspx.cs page. //Code behind page aspx.cs [WebMethod] //[ScriptMethod(ResponseFormat = ResponseFormat.Json)] public string GetAlerts() { List list = AlertInfo.GetTestAlerts(); return new JavaScriptSerializer().Serialize(list); } public List GetAlertsList() { List list = AlertInfo.GetTestAlerts(); return list; ; } So I was hoping that I could load data into an asp control (dataList) and then grab the data //code behind page protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { dataListAlertList.DataSource = GetAlertsList(); dataListAlertList.DataBind(); } public static List<AlertInfo> GetTestAlerts() { List<AlertInfo> list = new List<AlertInfo>(); list.Add(new AlertInfo("0", "Alert 1 Title", "Alert 1 Detail", "10/10/2010", "10/10/2011")); list.Add(new AlertInfo("1", "Alert 2 Title", "Alert 2 Detail", "10/10/2010", "10/10/2011")); return list; } //.aspx page $(document).ready(function () { var a1 = $("#dataListAlertList").val(); // do fun stuff now. } But I keep getting undefined....

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