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  • Python raw strings and trailing back slashes.

    - by dash-tom-bang
    I ran across something once upon a time and wondered if it was a Python "bug" or at least a misfeature. I'm curious if anyone knows of any justifications for this behavior. I thought of it just now reading "Code Like a Pythonista," which has been enjoyable so far. I'm only familiar with the 2.x line of Python. Raw strings are strings that are prefixed with an r. This is great because I can use backslashes in regular expressions and I don't need to double everything everywhere. It's also handy for writing throwaway scripts on Windows, so I can use backslashes there also. (I know I can also use forward slashes, but throwaway scripts often contain content cut&pasted from elsewhere in Windows.) So great! Unless, of course, you really want your string to end with a backslash. There's no way to do that in a 'raw' string. In [9]: r'\n' Out[9]: '\\n' In [10]: r'abc\n' Out[10]: 'abc\\n' In [11]: r'abc\' ------------------------------------------------ File "<ipython console>", line 1 r'abc\' ^ SyntaxError: EOL while scanning string literal In [12]: r'abc\\' Out[12]: 'abc\\\\' So one slash before the closing quote is an error, but two slashes gives you two slashes! Certainly I'm not the only one that is bothered by this? Thoughts on why 'raw' strings are 'raw, except for slash-quote'? I mean, if I wanted to embed a single quote in there I'd just use double quotes around the string, and vice versa. If I wanted both, I'd just triple quote. If I really wanted three quotes in a row in a raw string, well, I guess I'd have to deal, but is this considered "proper behavior"?

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  • Is it possible to wrap an asynchronous event and its callback in a function that returns a boolean?

    - by Rob Flaherty
    I'm trying to write a simple test that creates an image element, checks the image attributes, and then returns true/false. The problem is that using the onload event makes the test asynchronous. On it own this isn't a problem (using a callback as I've done in the code below is easy), but what I can't figure out is how to encapsulate this into a single function that returns a boolean. I've tried various combinations of closures, recursion, and self-executing functions but have had no luck. So my question: am I being dense and overlooking something simple, or is this in fact not possible, because, no matter what, I'm still trying to wrap an asynchronous function in synchronous expectations? Here's the code: var supportsImage = function(callback) { var img = new Image(); img.onload = function() { //Check attributes and pass true or false to callback callback(true); }; img.src = 'data:image/gif;base64,R0lGODlhAQABAAD/ACwAAAAAAQABAAACADs='; }; supportsImage(function(status){ console.log(status); }); To be clear, what I want is to be able to wrap this in something such that it can be used like: if (supportsImage) { //Do some crazy stuff } Thanks! (Btw, I know there are a ton of SO questions regarding confusion about synchronous vs. asynchronous. Apologies if this can be reduced to something previously answered.)

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  • Read IFrame content using JavaScript

    - by Rajat
    Ok, This is my first time dealing seriously with IFrames and I cant seem to understand a few things: First the sample code I am testing with: <head> <script type="text/javascript"> function init(){ console.log("IFrame content: " + window.frames['i1'].document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0].innerHTML); } </script> </head> <body onload="init();"> <iframe name="i1" src="foo.txt"/> </body> the file "foo.txt" looks like this: sample text file Questions: 1) The iframe seems to be behaving as a HTML document and the file text is actually part of the body instead. Why ? Is it a rule for an IFrame to be a HTML document. Is it not possible for the content of an iframe to be just plain text ?? 2) The file content gets wrapped inside a pre tag for some reason. Why is this so ? Is it always the case? 3) My access method in the javascript is working but is there any other alternative? [native js solutions please] If the content is wrapped in a pre tag always then I will actually have to lookup inside the pre tag rather than lookup the innerHTML

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  • reload parent from within iframe

    - by Lauren
    I can't seem to reload the parent page from within an iframe... I've looked around at similar questions' answers but nothing has worked so far. The iframe I'm working with is here http://www.avaline.com/ R3000_3 once you log in, then hit the "order sample" button, and then hit "here" where it says "Your Third Party Shipper Numbers (To enter one, click here.)". I tried using javascript statements window.top.location.reload(),window.parent.location.reload(),window.parent.location.href=window.parent.location.href but none of those worked in FF 3.6 so I didn't move on to the other browsers although I am shooting for a cross-browser solution. I put the one-line javascript statements inside setTimeout("statement",2000) so people could read the content of the iframe (You have updated your shipper number(s). The page should refresh automatically. If not, please refresh and return to "order sample.") before the redirect happens, but that shouldn't affect the execution of the statements... I wish I could test and debug the statements with the Firebug console from within the Iframe but there doesn't seem to be any great way to test this out.

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  • IE8 claims my page has an error, firefox doesn't, and I can't find any error. Help!

    - by Bears will eat you
    This is something of a follow-up question to my question here. You can find the HTML source in a text file here. When I load that page in IE8, I get the "Done, but with errors on page." message in my status bar. The detail view shows Expected identifier sms Line: 147 Code: 0 Char: 67 and I see absolutely no problems anywhere near there. In IE8, the page is still behaving erratically w/r/t the randomly losing focus as mentioned in my other question. When I load the same exact page in Firefox (using Firebug) the console shows no errors and the page works perfectly. Any thoughts on what's going on here? This is driving me nuts and making me want to give up on even trying to write an IE friendly page. Edit: Thanks for all the comments! This page is written as a JSP, so I edit in Eclipse. I found an Eclipse warning about the onblur event for the username field. I switched it from onblur="alert(document.activeElement + ' class:' + document.activeElement.class)" to onblur="alert(document.activeElement)" and that made the bizarre IE page error vanish. I had been trying to give more info (namely, its CSS class) about specifically which element is stealing focus - to my own detriment, apparently, since Javascript was interpreting the '.class' part in the Java(script) sense. And, no, the page doesn't validate. But the errors were mostly/all ones that just didn't make sense, such as Line 14, Column 41: Attribute "LANGUAGE" is not a valid attribute. Did you mean "language"? to which I say, WTF?! But I'm still stuck trying to figure out why, as I enter text in the username & password fields, focus randomly switches to a div (working on figuring out which div currently). Edit 2: It's the div between the two "global nav" comments, at the very top of the body. Still no idea why it's happening, though.

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  • Java client server sending bytes receiver listens indefinitely

    - by Rob
    Hello, I'm trying to write a Java program for Windows that involves communication with a server program located on a foreign machine.My program successfully connects to the server, successfully writes a byte array to it, and waits for a response. I know that the server is printing bytes (the response) back to me one byte at a time. I've tried using a DataInputStream object with various methods (read, readByte etc.), I've tried using a BufferedReader object with its methods (read, readLine etc.) but all the reader objects and various methods that I've used all come up against the same problem. The bytes are being successfully read (each time a byte or bytes are read, I can print them to the console, and they are what I'd expect them to be). The problem is that my reader doesn't know when to stop reading. Even if the server has sent all its bytes, the reader function on my end waits for more data, indefinitely, and so the program hangs at the read function. This problem seems to affect all the techniques that I have tried. I've been running tests with a simple client program and server program, each about 40 or 50 lines long, where the client connects to the server, and sends some bytes to it. All the techniques I've tried for the server reader result in the same problem mentioned above (the server hangs waiting for more input from the client, even though it has sent all its data). I'm really desperate for some help on this. It's important that I get this program finished soon, and it's basically complete except for this communication issue. Any help is much appreciated! -Rob

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  • How can I differentiate a manual scroll (via mousewheel/scrollbar) from a Javascript/jQuery scroll?

    - by David Murdoch
    UPDATE: Here is a jsbin example demonstrating the problem. Basically, I have the following javascript which scrolls the window to an anchor on the page: // get anchors with href's that start with "#" $("a[href^=#]").live("click", function(){ var target = $($(this).attr("href")); // if the target exists: scroll to it... if(target[0]){ // If the page isn't long enough to scroll to the target's position // we want to scroll as much as we can. This part prevents a sudden // stop when window.scrollTop reaches its maximum. var y = Math.min(target.offset().top, $(document).height() - $(window).height()); // also, don't try to scroll to a negative value... y=Math.max(y,0); // OK, you can scroll now... $("html,body").stop().animate({ "scrollTop": y }, 1000); } return false; }); It works perfectly......until I manually try to scroll the window. When the scrollbar or mousewheel is scrolled I need to stop the current scroll animation...but I'm not sure how to do this. This is probably my starting point... $(window).scroll(e){ if(IsManuallyScrolled(e)){ $("html,body").stop(); } } ...but I'm not sure how to code the IsManuallyScrolled function. I've checked out e (the event object) in Google Chrome's console and AFAIK there is not way to differentiate between a manual scroll and jQuery's animate() scroll. How can I differentiate between a manual scroll and one called via jQuery's $.fn.animate function?

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  • Greasemonkey script not executed when unusual content loading is being used

    - by Sam Brightman
    I'm trying to write a Greasemonkey script for Facebook and having some trouble with the funky page/content loading that they do (I don't quite understand this - a lot of the links are actually just changing the GET, but I think they do some kind of server redirect to make the URL look the same to the browser too?). Essentially the only test required is putting a GM_log() on its own in the script. If you click around Facebook, even with facebook.com/* as the pattern, it is often not executed. Is there anything I can do, or is the idea of a "page load" fixed in Greasemonkey, and FB is "tricking" it into not running by using a single URL? If I try to do some basic content manipulation like this: GM.log("starting"); var GM_FB=new Object; GM_FB.birthdays = document.evaluate("//div[@class='UIUpcoming_Item']", document, null, XPathResult.UNORDERED_NODE_SNAPSHOT_TYPE, null); for (i = GM_FB.birthdays.snapshotLength - 1; i >= 0; i--) { if (GM_FB.birthdayRegex.test(GM_FB.birthdays.snapshotItem(i).innerHTML)) { GM_FB.birthdays.snapshotItem(i).setAttribute('style','font-weight: bold; background: #fffe88'); } } The result is that sometimes only a manual page refresh will make it work. Pulling up the Firebug console and forcing the code to run works fine. Note that this isn't due to late loading of certain parts of the DOM: I have adding some code later to wait for the relevant elements and, crucially, the message never gets logged for certain transitions. For example, when I switch from Messages to News Feed and back.

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  • Controller changes format on variables when publishing

    - by Christoffer
    I am a newbie to ROR but catching on quickly. I have been working on this problem for a couple of hours now and it seems like a bug. I does not make any sense. I have a database with the following migration: class CreateWebsites < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :websites do |t| t.string :name t.integer :estimated_value t.string :webhost t.string :purpose t.string :description t.string :tagline t.string :url t.integer :adsense t.integer :tradedoubler t.integer :affiliator t.integer :adsense_cpm t.boolean :released t.string :empire_type t.string :oldid t.string :old_outlink_policy t.string :old_inlink_policy t.string :old_priority t.string :old_profitability t.integer :priority_id t.integer :project_id t.integer :outlink_policy_id t.integer :inlink_policy_id t.timestamps end end def self.down drop_table :websites end end I have verified that what is created in the database also is integers, strings etc according to this migration. I have not touched the controller after generating it through scaffold, i.e. it is the standard controller with show, index etc. Now. When I enter data into the database, either through the web form, in rails console or directly in the database - such as www.domain.com for url or 500 for adsense - it will be created in the db without problem. However, when it is being published on the website the variables go completely nuts. Adsense (integer) turns into date, url (string) turns into a float, and so on. This only happens to a few of the variables. This will also create a problem with "argument out of range" since I input 500 and Rails will try to output it as date = crash and "argument out of range". So, how do I fix/trouble shoot this? Why do the formats change? Could it be because of the respond_to in the controller? Cheers, Christoffer

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  • jquery: How to completely remove a dialog on close

    - by Svish
    When an ajax operation fails, I create a new div with the errors and then show it as a dialog. When the dialog is closed I would like to completely destroy and remove the div again. How can I do this? My code looks something like this at the moment: $('<div>We failed</div>') .dialog( { title: 'Error', close: function(event, ui) { $(this).destroy().remove(); } }); When I run this the dialog box shows up correctly, but when I close it the dialog is still visible in the html (using FireBug). What am I missing here? Something I have forgotten? Update: Just noticed my code gives me an error in the firebug console. $(this).destroy is not a function Anyone able to help me out? Update: If I do just $(this).remove() instead, the item is removed from the html. But is it completely removed from the DOM? Or do I somehow need to call that destroy function first as well?

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  • How can you pre-define a variable that will contain an anonymous type?

    - by HitLikeAHammer
    In the simplified example below I want to define result before it is assinged. The linq queries below return lists of anonymous types. result will come out of the linq queries as an IEnumerable<'a but I can't define it that way at the top of the method. Is what I am trying to do possible (in .NET 4)? bool large = true; var result = new IEnumerable(); //This is wrong List<int> numbers = new int[]{1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10}.ToList<int>(); if (large) { result = from n in numbers where n > 5 select new { value = n }; } else { result = from n in numbers where n < 5 select new { value = n }; } foreach (var num in result) { Console.WriteLine(num.value); } EDIT: To be clear I know that I do not need anonymous types in the example above. It is just to illustrate my question with a small, simple example.

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  • jquery: Writing a method

    - by Mark
    This is the same question as this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2890620/jquery-running-a-function-in-a-context-and-adding-to-a-variable But that question was poorly posed. Trying again, I'm trying to do something like this: I have a bunch of elements I want to grab data from, the data is in the form of classes of the element children. <div id='container'> <span class='a'></span> <span class='b'></span> <span class='c'></span> </div> <div id='container2'> <span class='1'></span> <span class='2'></span> <span class='3'></span> </div> I have a method like this: jQuery.fn.grabData = function(expr) { return this.each(function() { var self = $(this); self.find("span").each(function (){ var info = $(this).attr('class'); collection += info; }); }); }; I to run the method like this: var collection = ''; $('#container').grabData(); $('#container2').grabData(); The collection should be adding to each other so that in the end I get this console.log(collection); : abc123 But collection is undefined in the method. How can I let the method know which collection it should be adding to? Thanks.

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  • Issue while saving image using savefiledialog

    - by user1097772
    I'm using savefiledialog to save an image. Canvas is picturebox and the loaded image is bitmap. When I try to save it the file is created but somehow corrupted. Cause when I try againt load the image or show in different viewer it doesn't work - I mean the saved file is corrupted. There is an method for saving image. private void saveFileDialog1_FileOk(object sender, CancelEventArgs e) { System.IO.FileStream fs = (System.IO.FileStream)saveFileDialog1.OpenFile(); try { switch (saveFileDialog1.FilterIndex) { case 1: canvas.Image.Save(saveFileDialog1.FileName, System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Bmp); break; case 2: canvas.Image.Save(saveFileDialog1.FileName, System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Jpeg); break; case 3: canvas.Image.Save(saveFileDialog1.FileName, System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Png); break; case 4: canvas.Image.Save(saveFileDialog1.FileName, System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Tiff); break; } } catch (Exception ex) { System.Console.WriteLine("Exception " + ex); } I should also mention the property Filter. saveFileDialog1.Filter has value: bmp (*.bmp)|*.bmp|jpeg (*.jpeg)|*.jpeg|png (*.png)|*.png|tiff (*.tiff)|*.tiff

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  • ~1 second TcpListener Pending()/AcceptTcpClient() lag

    - by cpf
    Probably just watch this video: http://screencast.com/t/OWE1OWVkO As you see, the delay between a connection being initiated (via telnet or firefox) and my program first getting word of it. Here's the code that waits for the connection public IDLServer(System.Net.IPAddress addr,int port) { Listener = new TcpListener(addr, port); Listener.Server.NoDelay = true;//I added this just for testing, it has no impact Listener.Start(); ConnectionThread = new Thread(ConnectionListener); ConnectionThread.Start(); } private void ConnectionListener() { while (Running) { while (Listener.Pending() == false) { System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1); }//this is the part with the lag Console.WriteLine("Client available");//from this point on everything runs perfectly fast TcpClient cl = Listener.AcceptTcpClient(); Thread proct = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(InstanceHandler)); proct.Start(cl); } } (I was having some trouble getting the code into a code block) I've tried a couple different things, could it be I'm using TcpClient/Listener instead of a raw Socket object? It's not a mandatory TCP overhead I know, and I've tried running everything in the same thread, etc.

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  • Can not access response.body inside after filter block in Sinatra 1.0

    - by Petr Vostrel
    I'm struggling with a strange issue. According to http://github.com/sinatra/sinatra (secion Filters) a response object is available in after filter blocks in Sinatra 1.0. However the response.status is correctly accessible, I can not see non-empty response.body from my routes inside after filter. I have this rackup file: config.ru require 'app' run TestApp Then Sinatra 1.0.b gem installed using: gem install --pre sinatra And this is my tiny app with a single route: app.rb require 'rubygems' require 'sinatra/base' class TestApp < Sinatra::Base set :root, File.dirname(__FILE__) get '/test' do 'Some response' end after do halt 500 if response.empty? # used 500 just for illustation end end And now, I would like to access the response inside the after filter. When I run this app and access /test URL, I got a 500 response as if the response is empty, but the response clearly is 'Some response'. Along with my request to /test, a separate request to /favicon.ico is issued by the browser and that returns 404 as there is no route nor a static file. But I would expect the 500 status to be returned as the response should be empty. In console, I can see that within the after filter, the response to /favicon.ico is something like 'Not found' and response to /test really is empty even though there is response returned by the route. What do I miss?

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  • Multiple websites, Single sign-on design

    - by Yannis
    Hi all, I have a question. A client I have been doing some work recently has a range of websites with different login mechanisms. He is looking to slowly migrate to a single sign-on mechanism for his websites (all written in asp.net mvc). I am looking at my options here, so here is a list of requirements: 1) It has to be secure (duh) 2) It needs to support extra user properties over and above the usual name, address stuff (such as money or credits for a user) 3) It has to provide a centralized user management web console for his convenience (I understand that this will be a small project on top of whatever design solution I choose to go for) 4) It has to integrate with the existing websites without re-engineering the whole product (I understand that this depends on the current product implementation). 5) It has to deal with emailing the user when he registers (in order for him to activate his account) 6) It has to deal with activating the user when he clicks the activate me link in the email (I understand that 5 and 6 require some form of email templating system to support different emails per application) I was thinking of creating a library working together with forms authentication that exposes whatever methods are required (e.g. login, logout, activate, etc. and a small restful service to implement activation from email, registration processing etc. Taking into account that loads of things have been left out to make this question brief and to the point, does this sound like a good design? But this looks like a very common problem so arent there any existing projects that I could use? Thanks for reading.

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  • What is a good automated data import method for SQL Server?

    - by Joel Potter
    I'm in the process of porting some SQL Server 2005 databases to SQL Server 2008. One of these databases has an associated import application (Windows task) which uses SSIS with a DTS package to import a large dataset from an MS Access database nightly. In upgrading to SQL Server 2008, I discovered that I can't run the same console application which has been performing the imports due to the missing manageddts DLL in SQL Server 2008. It's several years old and in need of a rewrite for various reason, plus, I've been fairly unhappy with DTS in general. The original reason DTS was chosen was for speed (5 min import time compared to 30+ for ADO.NET). The format of the data to import is out of my control (the client likes Access). I would also like to be able to run the import from a machine completely separate from the server hosting SQL Server and preferably with minimal SQL features installed. Options I've considered: Creating an Access application to connect to both databases (SQL Server and Access) and perform the import (Ugh!) Revisiting ADO.NET to see if the original implementation was poorly written. Updated SSIS packages. What other technologies should I be considering for this job?

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  • Why two subprocesses created by Java behave differently?

    - by Lily
    I use Java Runtime.getRuntime().exec(command) to create a subprocess and print its pid as follows: public static void main(String[] args) { Process p2; try { p2 = Runtime.getRuntime().exec(cmd); Field f2 = p2.getClass().getDeclaredField("pid"); f2.setAccessible(true); System.out.println( f2.get( p2 ) ); } catch (Exception ie) { System.out.println("Yikes, you are not supposed to be here"); } } I tried both C++ executable and Java executable (.jar file). Both executables will continuously print out "Hello World" to stdout. When cmd is the C++ executable, the pid is printed out to console but the subprocess gets killed as soon as main() returns. However, when I call the .jar executable in cmd, the subprocess does not get killed, which is the desired behavior. I don't understand why same Java code, with different executables can behave so differently. How should I modify my code so that I could have persistent subprocesses in Java. Newbie in this field. Any suggestion is welcomed. Lily

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  • What's the most DRY-appropriate way to execute an SQL command?

    - by Sean U
    I'm looking to figure out the best way to execute a database query using the least amount of boilerplate code. The method suggested in the SqlCommand documentation: private static void ReadOrderData(string connectionString) { string queryString = "SELECT OrderID, CustomerID FROM dbo.Orders;"; using (SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(connectionString)) { SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand(queryString, connection); connection.Open(); SqlDataReader reader = command.ExecuteReader(); try { while (reader.Read()) { Console.WriteLine(String.Format("{0}, {1}", reader[0], reader[1])); } } finally { reader.Close(); } } } mostly consists of code that would have to be repeated in every method that interacts with the database. I'm already in the habit of factoring out the establishment of a connection, which would yield code more like the following. (I'm also modifying it so that it returns data, in order to make the example a bit less trivial.) private SQLConnection CreateConnection() { var connection = new SqlConnection(_connectionString); connection.Open(); return connection; } private List<int> ReadOrderData() { using(var connection = CreateConnection()) using(var command = connection.CreateCommand()) { command.CommandText = "SELECT OrderID FROM dbo.Orders;"; using(var reader = command.ExecuteReader()) { var results = new List<int>(); while(reader.Read()) results.Add(reader.GetInt32(0)); return results; } } } That's an improvement, but there's still enough boilerplate to nag at me. Can this be reduced further? In particular, I'd like to do something about the first two lines of the procedure. I don't feel like the method should be in charge of creating the SqlCommand. It's a tiny piece of repetition as it is in the example, but it seems to grow if transactions are being managed manually or timeouts are being altered or anything like that.

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  • Unity in C# for Platform Specific Implementations

    - by DxCK
    My program has heavy interaction with the operating system through Win32API functions. now i want to migrate my program to run under Mono under Linux (No wine), and this requires different implementations to the interaction with the operating system. I started designing a code that can have different implementation for difference platform and is extensible for new future platforms. public interface ISomeInterface { void SomePlatformSpecificOperation(); } [PlatformSpecific(PlatformID.Unix)] public class SomeImplementation : ISomeInterface { #region ISomeInterface Members public void SomePlatformSpecificOperation() { Console.WriteLine("From SomeImplementation"); } #endregion } public class PlatformSpecificAttribute : Attribute { private PlatformID _platform; public PlatformSpecificAttribute(PlatformID platform) { _platform = platform; } public PlatformID Platform { get { return _platform; } } } public static class PlatformSpecificUtils { public static IEnumerable<Type> GetImplementationTypes<T>() { foreach (Assembly assembly in AppDomain.CurrentDomain.GetAssemblies()) { foreach (Type type in assembly.GetTypes()) { if (typeof(T).IsAssignableFrom(type) && type != typeof(T) && IsPlatformMatch(type)) { yield return type; } } } } private static bool IsPlatformMatch(Type type) { return GetPlatforms(type).Any(platform => platform == Environment.OSVersion.Platform); } private static IEnumerable<PlatformID> GetPlatforms(Type type) { return type.GetCustomAttributes(typeof(PlatformSpecificAttribute), false) .Select(obj => ((PlatformSpecificAttribute)obj).Platform); } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Type first = PlatformSpecificUtils.GetImplementationTypes<ISomeInterface>().FirstOrDefault(); } } I see two problems with this design: I can't force the implementations of ISomeInterface to have a PlatformSpecificAttribute. Multiple implementations can be marked with the same PlatformID, and i dont know witch to use in the Main. Using the first one is ummm ugly. How to solve those problems? Can you suggest another design?

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  • Django: DatabaseError column does not exist

    - by Rosarch
    I'm having a problem with Django 1.2.4. Here is a model: class Foo(models.Model): # ... ftw = models.CharField(blank=True) bar = models.ForeignKey(Bar) Right after flushing the database, I use the shell: Python 2.6.6 (r266:84292, Sep 15 2010, 15:52:39) [GCC 4.4.5] on linux2 Type "help", "copyright", "credits" or "license" for more information. (InteractiveConsole) >>> from apps.foo.models import Foo >>> Foo.objects.all() Traceback (most recent call last): File "<console>", line 1, in <module> File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/models/query.py", line 67, in __repr__ data = list(self[:REPR_OUTPUT_SIZE + 1]) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/models/query.py", line 82, in __len__ self._result_cache.extend(list(self._iter)) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/models/query.py", line 271, in iterator for row in compiler.results_iter(): File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/models/sql/compiler.py", line 677, in results_iter for rows in self.execute_sql(MULTI): File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/models/sql/compiler.py", line 732, in execute_sql cursor.execute(sql, params) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/backends/util.py", line 15, in execute return self.cursor.execute(sql, params) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/backends/postgresql_psycopg2/base.py", line 44, in execute return self.cursor.execute(query, args) DatabaseError: column foo_foo.bar_id does not exist LINE 1: ...t_omg", "foo_foo"."ftw", "foo_foo... What am I doing wrong here?

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  • Membership.Updateuser not really updating the database.

    - by Shimrod
    Hi everybody, I'm currently working on a membership system for my web application, which is based on forms authentication from the framework. I created some users with the integrated tool, and the login is perfectly working. But now what I want to do is to give administrator the capability to create, modify, delete users. So here is what I've got right now: Protected Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load Dim muc As MembershipUserCollection = Membership.GetAllUsers() ComboBox1.DataSource = muc ComboBox1.DataValueField = "UserName" ComboBox1.DataTextField = "UserName" ComboBox1.DataBind() End Sub Protected Sub ComboBox1_SelectedIndexChanged(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) Handles ComboBox1.SelectedIndexChanged Dim userName As String = ComboBox1.SelectedValue Dim mu As MembershipUser = Membership.GetUser(userName) Dim userRoles As String() = Roles.GetRolesForUser(userName) tbComments.Text = mu.Comment tbEmail.Text = mu.Email lblUserName.Text = mu.UserName End Sub Protected Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim userName As String = ComboBox1.SelectedValue Dim mu As MembershipUser = Membership.GetUser(userName) If Not mu Is Nothing Then Try mu.Comment = tbComments.Text Membership.UpdateUser(mu) mu.Email = tbEmail.Text Membership.UpdateUser(mu) mu.IsApproved = True Membership.UpdateUser(mu) mu = Nothing Catch ex As Exception Console.WriteLine(ex.ToString()) End Try End If DetailPanel.Visible = False End Sub The problem is that the record doesn't seem to be updated in the database. I made the multiple calls to Membership.UpdateUser after reading this blog entry, but it didn't change anything. A strange think I noticed while debugging, is that when I enter the Button1_Click method, Membership.GetUser(userName) returns me values from my precedent attempt ! I don't really understand what I'm missing. Does someone have a clue ? Thanks in advance !

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  • Delayed_job not executing the perform method but emptying the job queue

    - by James
    I have a fresh rails 3 app, here's my Gemfile: source 'http://rubygems.org' gem 'rails', '3.0.0' gem 'delayed_job' gem 'sqlite3-ruby', :require = 'sqlite3' Here's the class that represents the job that I want to queue: class Me < Struct.new(:something) def perform puts "Hello from me" logger.info "Hello from me" logger.debug "Hello from me" raise Exception.new end end From the console with no workers running: irb(main):002:0> Delayed::Job.enqueue Me.new(1) => #<Delayed::Backend::ActiveRecord::Job id: 7, priority: 0, attempts: 0, handler: "--- !ruby/struct:Me \nsomething: 1\n", last_error: nil, run_at: "2010-12-29 07:24:11", locked_at: nil, failed_at: nil, locked_by: nil, created_at: "2010-12-29 07:24:11", updated_at: "2010-12-29 07:24:11"> Like I mentioned: there are no workers running: irb(main):003:0> Delayed::Job.all => [#<Delayed::Backend::ActiveRecord::Job id: 7, priority: 0, attempts: 0, handler: "--- !ruby/struct:Me \nsomething: 1\n", last_error: nil, run_at: "2010-12-29 07:24:11", locked_at: nil, failed_at: nil, locked_by: nil, created_at: "2010-12-29 07:24:11", updated_at: "2010-12-29 07:24:11">] I start a worker with script/delayed_job run The queue gets emptied: irb(main):006:0> Delayed::Job.all => [] However, nothing happens as a result of the puts, nothing is logged from the logger calls, and no exception is raised. I'd appreciate any help / insight or anything to try.

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  • Continuing JavaScript "classes" - enums within

    - by espais
    From a previous question, I have the following: So I have implemented a resource class, now I'd like to continue extending it and add all my constants and enums (or as far as JS will allow...). This is what I currently have: var resources = { // images player : new c_resource("res/player.png"), enemies : new c_resource("res/enemies.png"), tilemap : new c_resource("res/tilemap.png") }; And this is what I would like to continue to extend it to: var resources = { // images player : new c_resource("res/player.png"), enemies : new c_resource("res/enemies.png"), tilemap : new c_resource("res/tilemap.png"), // enums directions : {up:0, right:1, down:2, left:3}, speeds : {slow: 1, medium: 3, fast: 5} }; ... function enemies() { this.dir = resources.directions.down; // initialize to down } When I attempt to access resources.directions.up, my JS script goes down in a flaming pile of burning code. Are enums allowed in this context, and if not, how can I properly insert them to be used outside of a normal function? I have also tried defining them as global to a similar effect. edits: fixed the comma...that was just an error in transcribing it. When I run it in Firefox and watch the console, I get an error that says resources is undefined. The resources 'class' is defined at the top of my script, and function enemies() directly follows...so from what I understand it should still be in scope...

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  • Cannot connect Nexus One Phone to Android adb

    - by appbee
    I am running Android SDK 2.2 and am trying to get the adb to connect to the Google Nexus One phone. Its a new phone, shipped straight from Google - haven't installed any apps on it yet. (I have Windows XP) Here is what I have done so far: Followed the instructions on setting up the device for development as given on the Android Developer's site: http://developer.android.com/guide/developing/device.html added android:debuggable="true" to my application manifest USB debuggable is checked on the phone downloaded the Device Drivers For Windows Revision 3 (this supports Nexus One phones) Went through the Hardware Installation wizard to install the device - the device shows up as "Android Composite ADB Interface". When I run adb devices on the shell, the device appears for a moment, then disappears. On the Eclipse console, I get the following message: [2010-11-13 11:54:42 - DeviceMonitor]Failed to start monitoring I have rebooted the pc several times, uninstalled and reinstalled the drivers several times, but I get the same error each time. As I was researching this problem, someone had recommended rebooting the phone. I am a bit confused by that - is that a soft or hard reboot? Do I just power the phone off/on and is there something more complex involved? Do I have to hard reboot it to reset to factory version - even though its brand new? Has anyone run into a similar problem? Any help on this would be great. I can't test my application on the device if the adb cannot view the device. Thanks so much in advance.

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