Search Results

Search found 56181 results on 2248 pages for 'application context'.

Page 758/2248 | < Previous Page | 754 755 756 757 758 759 760 761 762 763 764 765  | Next Page >

• Google App Engine/GWT/Eclipse Plugin Newbie Question- how to autobuild client side resources?

  - by Dieter Hanover

  Hi there, I'm tinkering with the default GWT application generated by the Google Eclipse plugin when I click the Google "New Web Application Project" button in Eclipse 3.5. This will no doubt be familiar to many of you.. basically there is an h1 title stating "Web Application Starter Project," a text field, and a Send button. What I've found is that whenever I make changes to the client side resources, e.g. change the text on the Send button to "Submit" in the .java file, Eclipse does not appear to autobuild these resources. In fact I have to rebuild the entire project in order for these changes to be reflected in my browser. I do have "build automatically" selected in eclipse. I should state that this is my second GWT project, the first was almost entirely server side (restlet on GAE) and everything built automatically nicely. When I first tried this new project with updated client resources, on refreshing my browser, the browser stated "you may need to (re)compile your project." I'm not sure if this is relevant but I thought I'd mention it all the same. So what's going on? How do I get Eclipse/GWT to autobuild these client side resources? Cheers for any help you can offer! :-)

  Read the article

• User to be validated against nested security groups in Windows.

  - by user412272

  Hi, This is my first post here and after much looking around I have come here with my question. Will really appreciate a fast response. I am faced with a problem to validate user credentials of the currently logged on user against a group in Windows. The user membership to a group can be through other groups also ie nested membership. Eg. User U is a part of group G1. Group G1 is a part of another group G2. The requirement is that when the user is validated against group G2, the validations should succeed. The user can be a local or AD user but the group will always be a local group ( or domain local group if created directly on a DC). I have tried using WindowsPrincipal.IsInRole() method, but it seems to be checking only for direct membership to a group. I also tried UserPrincipal.GetAuthorizationGroups() for the current user, but it also doesnt seem to be doing recursive search. I am posting a code snippet of the working code below, but this code is taking much more than acceptable time. bool CheckUserPermissions(string groupName) { WindowsIdentity currentUserIdentity = System.Security.Principal.WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent(); bool found = false; PrincipalContext context= new PrincipalContext(ContextType.Machine); GroupPrincipal group = GroupPrincipal.FindByIdentity(context, IdentityType.Name, groupName); if (group!= null) { foreach (Principal p in group.GetMembers(true)) { if (p.Sid == currentUserIdentity.User) { found = true; break; } } group.Dispose(); } return found; }

  Read the article

• Where to create/keep secret files for license information/trials on Windows/Mac OS X/Linux?

  - by BastiBense

  I'm writing a commercial product which uses a simple registration mechanism and allows the user to use the application for a demo period before purchasing. My application must somewhere store the registration information (if entered) and/or the date of the first launch to calculate if the user is still within the demo/trail period. While I'm pretty much finished with the registration mechanism itself, I now have to find a good way to store the registration information on the user's disk. The most obvious idea would be to store the trial period in the preferences file, but since user tend to delete/tinker with those from time to time, it might be a good idea to keep the registration information in a separate, more hidden file. So here's my question: What is the best place/strategy to keep and create such hidden files on Windows, Mac OS X and Linux? Here is what came to my mind so far: Linux/Mac OS X Most Unix-like systems are rather locked down when it comes to places a user can write files to. In most cases this is only the /tmp directory and the user's home directory. I guess the easiest here is probably to create a file with a dot-prefix to make it less visible, then give it a name that won't make it obvious that it's associated with my application. Windows Probably much like Linux/Mac OS X - more recent Windows versions become more restrictive when it comes to file system permissions. Anyway, I'd like to hear your ideas and thoughs. Even better if you have already implemented something similar in the past. Thanks! Update For me the places for such files is more relevant than the discussion of the question if this way for copy protection is good or bad.

  Read the article

• Accessing to Request object will lead to ReadEntityBody to return 0 (in a HttpHandler class)

  - by EBAG

  I created a httpHandler that successfully implements IHttpHandler for handling file uploads. It works perfectly fine. You send the file with the form, the class receives it and will save it to hard disk. It reads chunks of file with ReadEntityBody function of HttpWorkerRequest class. Here is the situation i'm faced with.If at any stage before trying to read the file with ReadEntityBody, I try to access Request object (even Request.InputStream.Length!) ReadEntityBody would return 0 means it won't read from file stream. After further testing I found out the reason behind it. Accessing to Context.Current.Request object will trigger some sort of functionality that will cause asp.net to handle file uploads at that moment by it's own! I believe this is a bug. for example exactly after this line of code, asp.net will upload the file completely, and so there will be no stream for ReadEntityBody to read from later. int FileSize = context.Request.InputStream.Length; Can anybody tell how to stop this?

  Read the article

• How with lambda function in MVC3

  - by doogdeb

  I have a model which contains view models for each view. This model is held in session and is initialised when application starts. I need to be able to populate a field from one view model with the value from another so have used a lambda function. Below is my model. I am using a lambda so that when I get Test2.MyProperty it will use the FunctionTestProperty to retrieve the value from Test1.TestProperty. public class Model { public Model() { Test1 = new Test1() Test2 = new Test2(FunctionTestProperty () => Test1.TestProperty) } } public class Test1 { public string TestProperty { get; set; } } public class Test2 { public Test2() : this (() => string.Empty) {} public Test2(Func<string> functionTestProperty) { FunctionTestProperty = functionTestProperty; } public Func<string> FunctionTestProperty { get; set; } public string MyProperty { get{ return FunctionTestProperty() ?? string.Empty; } } } This works perfectly when I first run the application and navigate from Test1 to Test2; I can see that when I get the value for MyProperty it calls back to Model constructor and retrieves the Test1.TestProperty value. However when I then submit the form (Test2) it calls the default constructor which sets it to string.Empty. So if I go back to Test1 and back to Test2 again it always then calls the Test2 default constructor. Does anyone know why this works when first running the application but not after the view is submitted, or if I have made an obvious mistake?

  Read the article

• LINQ - 'Could not translate expression' with previously used and proven query condition

  - by tomfumb

  I am fairly new to LINQ and can't get my head around some inconsistency in behaviour. Any knowledgeable input would be much appreciated. I see similar issues on SO and elsewhere but they don't seem to help. I have a very simple setup - a company table and an addresses table. Each company can have 0 or more addresses, and if 0 one must be specified as the main address. I'm trying to handle the cases where there are 0 addresses, using an outer join and altering the select statement accordingly. Please note I'm currently binding the output straight to a GridView so I would like to keep all processing within the query. The following DOES work IQueryable query = from comp in context.Companies join addr in context.Addresses on comp.CompanyID equals addr.CompanyID into outer // outer join companies to addresses table to include companies with no address from addr in outer.DefaultIfEmpty() where (addr.IsMain == null ? true : addr.IsMain) == true // if a company has no address ensure it is not ruled out by the IsMain condition - default to true if null select new { comp.CompanyID, comp.Name, AddressID = (addr.AddressID == null ? -1 : addr.AddressID), // use -1 to represent a company that has no addresses MainAddress = String.Format("{0}, {1}, {2} {3} ({4})", addr.Address1, addr.City, addr.Region, addr.PostalCode, addr.Country) }; but this displays an empty address in the GridView as ", , ()" So I updated the MainAddress field to be MainAddress = (addr.AddressID == null ? "" : String.Format("{0}, {1}, {2} {3} ({4})", addr.Address1, addr.City, addr.Region, addr.PostalCode, addr.Country)) and now I'm getting the Could not translate expression error and a bunch of spewey auto-generated code in the error which means very little to me. The condition I added to MainAddress is no different to the working condition on AddressID, so can anybody tell me what's going on here? Any help greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• How to reduce the Number of threads running at instance in jetty server ?

  - by Thirst for Excellence

  i would like to reduce the live threads on server to reduce the bandwidth consumption for data(data pull while application launching time) transfer from my application to clients in my application. i did setting like is this setting enough to reduce the bandwidth consumption on jetty server ? Please help me any one 1) in Jetty.xml: <Set name="ThreadPool"> <New class="org.eclipse.jetty.util.thread.QueuedThreadPool"> <name="minThreads"> 1 > <Set name="maxThreads" value=50> 2: services-config.xml channel-definition id="my-longpolling-amf" class="mx.messaging.channels.AMFChannel" endpoint url="http://MyIp:8400/blazeds/messagebroker/amflongpolling" class="flex.messaging.endpoints.AMFEndpoint" properties <polling-enabled>true</polling-enabled> <polling-interval-seconds>1</polling-interval-seconds> <wait-interval-millis>60000</wait-interval-millis> <client-wait-interval-millis>1</client-wait-interval-millis> <max-waiting-poll-requests>50</max-waiting-poll-requests> </properties> </channel-definition>

  Read the article

• EventKitUI view and edit problem!

  - by Alish

  I try to to find a solution to do View and Edit of a the item from a tablview. My application base on UITabBarController. Each of the Bar items contain a class with a a couple of UIViews. This is the first items of UITabBarController. I done Add event from Apple sample code: SimpleEKDemo. Add Event working without any problem. I tried to add View and Edit part to the code. I would able to select an items from tableView to edit the selected item. But after I tried to add code from SimpleEKDemo to my code, I realized I have to add UINavigationController to the implement. So I did. After I add that it's came to the items of UITabBarController. Also I even the Add Event didn't worked very well (I couldn't insert event name and location. but edit was working. So I need to know: 1- Is it possible to implement Edit/View without using UINavigationController. If yes please let me know a sample code. 2- If I must use UINavigationController. Because I don't need UINavigationController to become it the first page and I don't need any bar added to my application. Is it possible it's appear in the application when I choose a item of tableView but appear alike that! Snapshots: https://public.me.com/alish (pict.zip)

  Read the article

• Why newly created entity object with navigation property is automaticly added to ObjectContext?

  - by Levelbit

  I have to entities: Company and Location (one to many). When I create new Location entity object and assign navigation property(Company) with the navigation property of already existing Location object (Location _new = new Location(); _new.Company = _old.Company). It seems that at that point newly created object is added to Object Context automatically, because when I call SaveChanges method that object is insert to database although I didn't call ObjectContext.AddObject(_new). I'm new in EF so there is probably reason why I have result like this? Is there need to assign also CompanyReference filed too and how to do it? IDaoFactory daoFactory = new DaoFactory(); ILocationDao locaitonDao = daoFactory.GetLocationDao(); IEnumerable<Location> locations = locaitonDao.GetLocations(); Location _old = locations.First(); Location _new = new Location(); _new.LocationName = _old.LocationName; _new.Company = _old.Company;// 1 _new.Address = _old.Address; //... ContactEntities.SaveChanges();//2 If I execute line (1) instantly _new object is added to object context and I can see additional datarow in my datagrid after line (2) is executed.

  Read the article

• Error Expected Loop VBScript

  - by Yoko21

  I have a script that opens up an excel file if the password provided is correct. If its wrong, it prompts a message. It works perfectly when I add a loop at the end. However, the problem is whenever the password is wrong the script won't stop asking for the password because of the loop. What I want is the script to quit/close if the password is wrong. I tried to remove the loop and replaced it with "wscript.quit" but it always prompts the message "expected loop". Here is the code I made. password = "pass" do ask=inputbox ("Please enter password:","DProject") select case ask case password answer=true Set xl = CreateObject("Excel.application") xl.Application.Workbooks.Open "C:\Users\test1\Desktop\test.xlsx" xl.Application.Visible = True Set xl = Nothing wscript.quit end select answer=false x=msgbox("Password incorrect... Aborting") loop until answer=true Is it possible to put a message like that counts when aborting. like "Aborting in 3.... 2... 1".

  Read the article

• search for the maximum

  - by peril brain

  I need to know a code that will automatically:- search a specific word in excel notes it row or column number (depends on data arrangement) searches numerical type values in the respective row or column with that numeric value(suppose a[7][0]or a[0][7]) it compares all other values of respective row or column(ie. a[i][0] or a[0][i]) sets that value to the highest value only if IT HAS GOT NO FORMULA FOR DERIVATION i know most of coding but at a few places i got myself stuck... i'm writing a part of my program upto which i know: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.IO; using System.Threading; using Microsoft.Office.Interop; using Excel = Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel; Excel.Application oExcelApp; namespace a{ class b{ static void main(){ try { oExcelApp = (Excel.Application)System.Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.GetActiveObject("Excel.Application"); ; if(oExcelApp.ActiveWorkbook != null) {Excel.Workbook xlwkbook = (Excel.Workbook)oExcelApp.ActiveWorkbook; Excel.Worksheet ws = (Excel.Worksheet)xlwkbook.ActiveSheet; Excel.Range rn; rn = ws.Cells.Find("maximum", Type.Missing, Excel.XlFindLookIn.xlValues, Excel.XlLookAt.xlPart,Excel.XlSearchOrder.xlByRows, Excel.XlSearchDirection.xlNext, false, Type.Missing, Type.Missing); }}} now ahead of this i only know tat i have to use cell.value2 ,cell.hasformula methods..... & no more idea can any one help me with this..

  Read the article

• What is a good solution to log the deletion of a row in MySQL?

  - by hobodave

  Background I am currently logging deletion of rows from my tickets table at the application level. When a user deletes a ticket the following SQL is executed: INSERT INTO alert_log (user_id, priority, priorityName, timestamp, message) VALUES (9, 4, 'WARN', NOW(), "TICKET: David A. deleted ticket #6 from Foo"); Please do not offer schema suggestions for the alert_log table. Fields: user_id - User id of the logged in user performing the deletion priority - Always 4 priorityName - Always 'WARN' timestamp - Always NOW() message - Format: "[NAMESPACE]: [FullName] deleted ticket #[TicketId] from [CompanyName]" NAMESPACE - Always TICKET FullName - Full name of user identified by user_id above TicketId - Primary key ID of the ticket being deleted CompanyName - Ticket has a Company via tickets.company_id Situation/Questions Obviously this solution does not work if a ticket is deleted manually from the mysql command line client. However, now I need to. The issues I'm having are as follows: Should I use a PROCEDURE, FUNCTION, or TRIGGER? -- Analysis: TRIGGER - I don't think this will work because I can't pass parameters to it, and it would trigger when my application deleted the row too. PROCEDURE or FUNCTION - Not sure. Should I return the number of deleted rows? If so, that would require a FUNCTION right? How should I account for the absence of a logged in user? -- Possibilities: Using either a PROC or FUNC, require the invoker to pass in a valid user_id Require the user to pass in a string with the name Use the CURRENT_USER - meh Hard code the FullName to just be "Database Administrator" Could the name be an optional parameter? I'm rather green when it comes to sprocs. Assuming I went with the PROC/FUNC approach, is it possible to outright restrict regular DELETE calls to this table, yet still allow users to call this PROC/FUNC to do the deletion for them? Ideally the solution is usable by my application as well, so that my code is DRY.

  Read the article

• undefined method `code' for nil:NilClass message with rails and a legacy database

  - by Jude Osborn

  I'm setting up a very simple rails 3 application to view data in a legacy MySQL database. The legacy database is mostly rails ORM compatible, except that foreign key fields are pluralized. For example, my "orders" table has a foreign key field to the "companies" table called "companies_id" (rather than "company_id"). So naturally I'm having to use the ":foreign_key" attribute of "belongs_to" to set the field name manually. I haven't used rails in a few years, but I'm pretty sure I'm doing everything right, yet I get the following error when trying to access "order.currency.code": undefined method `code' for nil:NilClass This is a very simple application so far. The only thing I've done is generate the application and a bunch of scaffolds for each of the legacy database tables. Then I've gone into some of the models to make adjustments to accommodate the above mentioned difference in database naming conventions, and added some fields to the views. That's it. No funny business. So my database tables look like this (relevant fields only): orders ------ id description invoice_number currencies_id currencies ---------- id code description My Order model looks like this: class Order < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :currency, :foreign_key=>'currencies_id' end My Currency model looks like this: class Currency < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :orders end The relevant view snippet looks like this: <% @orders.each do |order| %> <tr> <td><%= order.description %></td> <td><%= order.invoice_number %></td> <td><%= order.currency.code %></td> </tr> <% end %> I'm completely out of ideas. Any suggestions?

  Read the article

• How costly performance-wise are these actions in iPhone objective-C?

  - by Alex Gosselin

  This is really a few questions in one, I'm wondering what the performance cost is for these things, as I haven't really been following a best practice of any sort for these. The answers may also be useful to other readers, if somebody knows these. (1) If I need the core data managed object context, is it bad to use #import "myAppDelegate.h" //farther down in the code: NSManagedObjectContext *context = [(myAppDelegate.h*)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate] managedObjectContext]; as opposed to leaving the warning you get if you don't cast the delegate? (2) What is the cheapest way to hard-code a string? I have been using return @"myString"; on occasion in some functions where I need to pass it to a variety of places, is it better to do it this way: static NSString *str = @"myString"; return str; (3) How costly is it to subclass an object i wrote vs. making a new one, in general? (4) When I am using core data and navigating through a hierarchy of some sort, is it necessary to turn things back into faults somehow after I read some info from them? or is this done automatically? Thanks for any help.

  Read the article

• [SOLVED]Django - Passing variables to template based on db

  - by George 'Griffin

  I am trying to add a feature to my app that would allow me to enable/disable the "Call Me" button based on whether or not I am at [home|the office]. I created a model in the database called setting, it looks like this: class setting(models.Model): key = models.CharField(max_length=200) value = models.CharField(max_length=200) Pretty simple. There is currently one row, available, the value of it is the string True. I want to be able to transparently pass variables to the templates like this: {% if available %} <!-- Display button --> {% else %} <!-- Display grayed out button --> {% endif %} Now, I could add logic to every view that would check the database, and pass the variable to the template, but I am trying to stay DRY. What is the best way to do this? UPDATE I created a context processor, and added it's path to the TEMPLATE_CONTEXT_PROCESSORS, but it is not being passed to the template def available(request): available = Setting.objects.get(key="available") if open.value == "True": return {"available":True} else: return {} UPDATE TWO If you are using the shortcut render_to_response, you need to pass an instance of RequestContext to the function. from the django documentation: If you're using Django's render_to_response() shortcut to populate a template with the contents of a dictionary, your template will be passed a Context instance by default (not a RequestContext). To use a RequestContext in your template rendering, pass an optional third argument to render_to_response(): a RequestContext instance. Your code might look like this: def some_view(request): # ... return render_to_response('my_template.html', my_data_dictionary, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) Many thanks for all the help!

  Read the article

• File being used by another process. Reason, and solution?

  - by pstar

  The process cannot access the file 'abc.log' because it is being used by another process. Hi, I've seen this exception from my application occationaly but I am still trying to fix that, hope I will get some insight from stackoverflow. In my application I've have defined a WriteToLog function which will write to a log file. Also the mainForm of my application will launch a backgroundWorker do some job which also calls the WriteToLog. Maybe two threads access a file will cause a problem? But in my code I 've already do my best to write flush and close the text file (I think), and here is my code from WriteToLog: StreamWriter sw = null; string newText = ""; try { //populate the content for newText sw = File.AppendText(LOG_FILE); sw.Write(newText); sw.Flush(); sw.Close(); } catch (IOException ex) { MessageBox.Show("Failed to write to log!\n\t" + ex.Message, "Error", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error); } finally { if (sw != null) { sw.Close(); } } I think as long as I flush and close the streamWriter, I should be able call the WriteToLog multi-times and in multi-threads isn't it? Or if I am wrong, could I simple make the file open shared, or there are other reason/solutions?

  Read the article

• How to check whether data is stored in core data ?

  - by Warrior

  i am new to iphone development. I am trying to save a static values in to core data database.I want to check whether the data is stored to the database, i am not able to retrieve the data from the database, so i want to check myself whether i made mistake in retrieving the data or in storing the data itself. NSManagedObjectContext *context = [self managedObjectContext]; NSManagedObject *event = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"Event" inManagedObjectContext:context]; [event setValue:fname forKey:@"firstname"]; [event setValue:lname forKey:@"lastname"]; i put the above code in the submit button of my formclass. when i restart the app i fetch the data in main view class using this code NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Event" inManagedObjectContext:self.managedObjectContext]; [fetchRequest setEntity:entity]; NSError *error; NSArray *items = [self.managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:fetchRequest error:&error]; for (Event *info in items) { NSLog(@"the selected value is : %@", [info valueForKey:@"firstname"]); } [fetchRequest release]; i dont know where i am going wrong.Please help me out.Thanks.

  Read the article

• Initializing ExportFactory using MEF

  - by Riz

  Scenario Application has multiple parts. Each part is in separate dll and implements interface IFoo All such dlls are present in same directory (plugins) The application can instantiate multiple instances of each part Below is the code snippet for the interfaces, part(export) and the import. The problem I am running into is, the "factories" object is initialized with empty list. However, if I try container.Resolve(typeof(IEnumerable< IFoo )) I do get object with the part. But that doesn't serve my purpose (point 4). Can anyone point what I am doing wrong here? public interface IFoo { string Name { get; } } public interface IFooMeta { string CompType { get; } } Implementation of IFoo in separate Dll [ExportMetadata("CompType", "Foo1")] [Export(typeof(IFoo), RequiredCreationPolicy = CreationPolicy.NonShared))] public class Foo1 : IFoo { public string Name { get { return this.GetType().ToString(); } } } Main application that loads all the parts and instantiate them as needed class PartsManager { [ImportMany] private IEnumerable<ExportFactory<IFoo, IFooMeta>> factories; public PartsManager() { IContainer container = ConstructContainer(); factories = (IEnumerable<ExportFactory<IFoo, IFooMeta>>) container.Resolve(typeof(IEnumerable<ExportFactory<IFoo, IFooMeta>>)); } private static IContainer ConstructContainer() { var catalog = new DirectoryCatalog(@"C:\plugins\"); var builder = new ContainerBuilder(); builder.RegisterComposablePartCatalog(catalog); return builder.Build(); } public IFoo GetPart(string compType) { var matchingFactory = factories.FirstOrDefault( x => x.Metadata.CompType == compType); if (factories == null) { return null; } else { IFoo foo = matchingFactory.CreateExport().Value; return foo; } } }

  Read the article

• A scheme to show picture

  - by luoliyong

  I have a requirement that need me to show picture using one canvas. All the operation will be done on this canvas, include change the picture (This picture is made of lines, rectangular and so on. Draw these lines or rectangular will use the base method). In China, we called use double buffer(CGBitmapContextCreate), one of the scheme like this // create the bitmap context CGColorSpaceRef colorSpace = CGColorSpaceCreateDeviceRGB(); CGContextRef context = CGBitmapContextCreate(nil,27,27,8,0, colorSpace,kCGImageAlphaPremultipliedLast); CFRelease(colorSpace); Maybe now it is not very clear. I talk about the project. The project has an engine, That will call methed draw line, draw round ,draw rectangular according user's input, this lines, rounds, rectangular will make up a picture? and then usr changes his input, the picture also will change, the engine accept usr's input, and draw picture. and the engine inits only once. I hope you can understand what I say, and give me some advice. Thanks.

  Read the article

• My HTML5 web app crashes and I have no clue how to debug

  - by Shouvik

  Hi All, I have written a word game using HTML5 canvas tag and a little bit of audio. I developed the application on the chrome web browser on a linux system. Recently during the testing phase it was tried on safari 5.0.3 on Mac and the webpage froze. Not just the canvas element, but interactive element on the page froze. I have at some times experienced this problem on google chrome when I was developing but since the console did not throw any error before this happened, I did not give it much credence. Now as per requirements I am supposed to support both chrome and safari but this dismal performance on safari has left me shocked and I cannot see what error can be thrown which might lead to such a situation. Worse yet the CPU usage on using this application peaks to 70-80percent on my 2yr old macbook running ubuntu... I can only but pity the person who uses mac to operate this app, which undoubtedly is a heavier OS. Could someone help me out with a place I can start with to find out what exactly is causing this issue. I have run profiles on this webapp on google chromes console and noticed that in the heap spanshot value increases steadily with the playing of the game, specifically (root) value which jumps up by 900 counts. Any help would be very appreciated! Thanks EDIT: I don't know if this helps, but I have noticed that even on refreshing the page after the app becomes unresponsive the page reloads and I am still not able to interact with the page elements but the tab scroll bar continues to work and I can see my application window completely. So to summaries the tab stops accepting any sort of user interaction inside the page. Edit2: Nop. It doesn't work still... The app crashes on double click on the canvas element. The console is not throwing any errors either! =/ I have noticed this problem is isolated only to safari!

  Read the article

• How do you protect yourself from runaway memory consumption bringing down the PC?

  - by romkyns

  Every now and again I find myself doing something moderately dumb that results in my program allocating all the memory it can get and then some. This kind of thing used to cause the program to die fairly quickly with an "out of memory" error, but these days Windows will go out of its way to give this non-existent memory to the application, and in fact is apparently prepared to commit suicide doing so. Not literally of course, but it will starve itself of usable physical RAM so badly that even running the task manager will require half an hour of swapping (after all the runaway application is still allocating more and more memory all the time). This doesn't happen too often, but when it does it's disastrous. I usually have to reset my machine, causing data loss from time to time and generally a lot of inconvenience. Do you have any practical advice on making the consequences of such a mistake less dire? Perhaps some registry tweak to limit the max amount of virtual memory an app is allowed to allocate? Or some CLR flag that will limit this only for the current application? (It's usually in .NET that I do this to myself.) ("Don't run out of RAM" and "Buy more RAM" are no use - the former I have no control over, and the latter I've already done.)

  Read the article

• Manipulating existing XDocument (fails)

  - by Daemonfire3002nd

  Hi there, I got the following Code snippet from my Silverlight Application: var messages = from message in XcurrentMsg.Descendants("message") where DateTime.Parse(message.Attribute("timestamp").Value).CompareTo(DateTime.Parse(MessageCache.Last_Cached())) > 0 select new { ip = message.Attribute("ip").Value, timestamp = message.Attribute("timestamp").Value, text = message.Value, }; if (messages == null) throw new SystemException("No new messages recorded. Application tried to access non existing resources!"); foreach (var message in messages) { XElement temporaryElement = new XElement("message", message.text.ToString(), new XAttribute("ip", message.ip.ToString()), new XAttribute("timestamp", message.timestamp.ToString())); XcurrentMsg.Element("root").Element("messages").Add(temporaryElement); AddMessage(BuildMessage(message.ip, message.timestamp, message.text)); msgCount++; } MessageCache.CacheXML(XcurrentMsg); MessageCache.Refresh(); XcurrentMsg is a XDocument fetched from my server containing messages: Structure <root> <messages> <message ip="" timestamp=""> Text </message> </messages> </root> I want to get all "message" newer than the last time I cached the XcurrentMsg. This works fine as long as I cut out the "XElement temporaryElement" and the "XcurrentMsg.Element...." and simply use the currentMsg string as output. But I want to have "new messages" being saved in my XcurrentMsg / Cache. Now if I do not cut this part out, my Application gets awesome crazy. I think it writes infinite elements to the XcurrentMsg without stopping. I can not figure out what's the problem. regards,

  Read the article

• Activity won't start a service

  - by Marko Cakic

  I m trying to start an IntentService from the main activity of y application and it won't start. I have the service in the manifest file. Here's the code: MainActivity public class Home extends Activity { private LinearLayout kontejner; IntentFilter intentFilter; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.activity_home); kontejner = (LinearLayout) findViewById(R.id.kontejner); intentFilter = new IntentFilter(); startService(new Intent(getBaseContext(), HomeService.class)); } } Service: public class HomeService extends IntentService { public HomeService() { super("HomeService"); // TODO Auto-generated constructor stub } @Override protected void onHandleIntent(Intent intent) { Toast.makeText(getBaseContext(), "TEST", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } } Manifest: <manifest xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" package="com.example.salefinder" android:versionCode="1" android:versionName="1.0" > <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="8" android:targetSdkVersion="15" /> <application android:icon="@drawable/ic_launcher" android:label="@string/app_name" android:theme="@style/AppTheme" > <activity android:name=".Home" android:label="@string/title_activity_home" > <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> </activity> <service android:name=".HomeService" /> </application> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET"/> </manifest> How can I make it work?

  Read the article

• OpenGL multiple threads, variable handling [closed]

  - by toeplitz

  I have written an OpenGL program which runs in the following way: Main: - Initialize SDL - Create thread which has the OpenGL context: - Renderloop - Set camera (view) matrix with glUniform. - glDrawElements() .... etc. - Swapbuffers(); - Main SDL loop handling input events and such. - Update camera matrix of type glm::mat4. This is how I pass my camera object to the class that handles opengl. Camera *cam = new Camera(); gl.setCam(cam); where void setCam(Camera *camera) { this->camera = camera; } For rendering in the opengl context thread, this happens: glm::mat4 modelView = camera->view * model; glUniformMatrix4fv(shader->bindUniform("modelView"), 1, GL_FALSE, glm::value_ptr(modelView)); In the main program where my SDL and other things are handles I then recompute the view matrix. This his working fine without me using any mutex locks. Is this correct? On the other hand, I add objects to my scene by an "upload queue" and in this case I have to mutex lock my upload queue vector (vector class type) when adding items to it or else the program crashes. In summary: I recompute my matrix in a different thread and then use it in the opengl thread without any mutex lock. Why is this working? Edit: I think my question is similar to what was asked here: Should I lock a variable in one thread if I only need it's value in other threads, and why does it work if I don't?, only in my case it is even more simple with only one matrix being changed.

  Read the article

• What goes into the "Controller" in "MVC"?

  - by P72endragon

  I think I understand the basic concepts of MVC - the Model contains the data and behaviour of the application, the View is responsible for displaying it to the user and the Controller deals with user input. What I'm uncertain about is exactly what goes in the Controller. Lets say for example I have a fairly simple application (I'm specifically thinking Java, but I suppose the same principles apply elsewhere). I organise my code into 3 packages called app.model, app.view and app.controller. Within the app.model package, I have a few classes that reflect the actual behaviour of the application. These extends Observable and use setChanged() and notifyObservers() to trigger the views to update when appropriate. The app.view package has a class (or several classes for different types of display) that uses javax.swing components to handle the display. Some of these components need to feed back into the Model. If I understand correctly, the View shouldn't have anything to do with the feedback - that should be dealt with by the Controller. So what do I actually put in the Controller? Do I put the public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent e) in the View with just a call to a method in the Controller? If so, should any validation etc be done in the Controller? If so, how do I feedback error messages back to the View - should that go through the Model again, or should the Controller just send it straight back to View? If the validation is done in the View, what do I put in the Controller? Sorry for the long question, I just wanted to document my understanding of the process and hopefully someone can clarify this issue for me!

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 754 755 756 757 758 759 760 761 762 763 764 765  | Next Page >