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  • NSView only redraws on breakpoint

    - by Jacopo
    I have a custom view inside a NSPopover. It should change according to user input and it does the first time the user interact with it but it fails to redraw the following times. I have tried to put an NSLog inside the -drawRect: method and it doesn't get called during normal execution. When I try to debug and put a breakpoint inside the method it gets called normally and the app works as it should. I explicitly call the view -setNeedsDisplay: method every time I need it to redraw. I don't understand why it should make a difference. Here is the code that update the status of the view. These methods are part of the NSTextField delegate method -textDidChange: and I checked that these get called every time the user type something in the textfield associated with popover. [tokenCloud tokensToHighlight:[NSArray arrayWithObject:completeSuggestionString]]; tokenCloud.tokens = filteredTokens; [tokenCloud setNeedsDisplay:YES]; The views is a series of recessed button. The first line update the status of all the buttons in the popover and the second add or delete buttons. They both work properly because the first time they are called the view is update properly. I have also checked that both the status of the buttons in tokenCloud and its property tokens are updated correctly. The problem is that the NSView subclass, tokenCloud, doesn't redraw so the changes are not reflected in the UI the second time. Here is the draw method of the view: - (void)drawRect:(NSRect)rect { [self recalculateButtonLocations]; NSLog(@"Redrawn"); } Again this method gets called normally every time I update the view if I place a breakpoint in [self recalculateButtonLocations];. If instead I let the app run normally nothing gets logged in the console the second time I update the view. Same thing if I include the NSLog in the recalculateButtonLocations method, nothing gets logged the second time meaning that the method is not called.

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  • Java Equivalent of C++ .dll?

    - by Matt D
    So, I've been programming for a while now, but since I haven't worked on many larger, modular projects, I haven't come across this issue before. I know what a .dll is in C++, and how they are used. But every time I've seen similar things in Java, they've always been packaged with source code. For instance, what would I do if I wanted to give a Java library to someone else, but not expose the source code? Instead of the source, I would just give a library as well as a Javadoc, or something along those lines, with the public methods/functions, to another programmer who could then implement them in their own Java code. For instance, if I wanted to create a SAX parser that could be "borrowed" by another programmer, but (for some reason--can't think of one in this specific example lol) I don't want to expose my source. Maybe there's a login involved that I don't want exploited--I don't know. But what would be the Java way of doing this? With C++, .dll files make it much easier, but I have never run into a Java equivalent so far. (I'm pretty new to Java, and a pretty new "real-world" programmer, in general as well)

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  • Why in the world is this Moq + NUnit test failing?

    - by Dave Falkner
    I have this dataAccess mock object and I'm trying to verify that one of its methods is being invoked, and that the argument passed into this method fulfills certain constraints. As best I can tell, this method is indeed being invoked, and with the constraints fulfilled. This line of the test throws a MockException: data.Verify(d => d.InsertInvoice(It.Is<Invoice>(i => i.TermPaymentAmount == 0m)), Times.Once()); However, removing the constraint and accepting any invoice passes the test: data.Verify(d => d.InsertInvoice(It.IsAny<Invoice>()), Times.Once()); I've created a test windows form that instantiates this test class, runs its .Setup() method, and then calls the method which I am wishing to test. I insert a breakpoint on the line of code where the mock object is failing the test data.InsertInvoice(invoice); to actually hover over the invoice, and I can confirm that its .TermPaymentAmount decimal property is indeed zero at the time the method is invoked. Out of desperation, I even added a call back to my dataAccess mock: data.Setup(d => d.InsertInvoice(It.IsAny<Invoice>())).Callback((Invoice inv) => System.Windows.Forms.MessageBox.Show(inv.TermPaymentAmount.ToString("G17"))); And this gives me a message box showing "0". This is really baffling me, and no one else in my shop has been able to figure this out. Any help would be appreciated. A barely related question, which I should probably ask independently, is whether it is preferable to use Mock.Verify(...) as I have here, or to use Mock.Expect(...).Verifiable followed by Mock.VerifyAll() as I have seen other people doing? If the answer is situational, which situations would warrent the use of one over the other?

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  • why my form is doing postback when i am calling asynchronously?

    - by Abu Hamzah
    i am using simple asp.net webpage with few fields on it and when the user click on submit button i am calling asynchronously and posting the data. BUT, my whole page is posting back and i dont even see the message that i am trying to display if my data got posted succfully. here is my page. Requester Page Name: <asp:Label runat="server" ID='Label4' >Host Name:</asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="txtHost" runat='server'></asp:TextBox> <asp:Label runat="server" ID='Label2' >Start Date:</asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="txtStartDate" runat='server' ></asp:TextBox> <asp:Label runat="server" ID='Label6' >End Date:</asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="txtEndDate" runat='server' ></asp:TextBox> <ul> <li> <button id="btnCancel" name="btnCancel" type="button"> Cancel</button></li> <li> <button id="btnReset" name="btnReset" type="reset"> Reset</button></li> <li> <button id="btnSubmit" name="btnSubmit" type="submit"> Submit</button></li> </ul> </p> </form> </div> //Store new Contract Request Methods function processCompletedContactStore(response) { if (!response) { showErrorMsg('No Contacts Returned'); return; } else { if (response.Message == 'update') { $("#status").fadeTo(500, 1, function() { $(this).html("Updated successfully!").fadeTo(500, 150); }) } } }

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  • Java: How ArrayList memory management

    - by cka3o4nik
    In my Data Structures class we have studies the Java ArrayList class, and how it grows the underlying array when a user adds more elements. That is understood. However, I cannot figure out how exactly this class frees up memory when lots of elements are removed from the list. Looking at the source, there are three methods that remove elements: [code] public E remove(int index) { RangeCheck(index); modCount++; E oldValue = (E) elementData[index]; int numMoved = size - index - 1; if (numMoved 0) System.arraycopy(elementData, index+1, elementData, index, numMoved); elementData[--size] = null; // Let gc do its work return oldValue; } public boolean remove(Object o) { if (o == null) { for (int index = 0; index < size; index++) if (elementData[index] == null) { fastRemove(index); return true; } } else { for (int index = 0; index < size; index++) if (o.equals(elementData[index])) { fastRemove(index); return true; } } return false; } private void fastRemove(int index) { modCount++; int numMoved = size - index - 1; if (numMoved 0) System.arraycopy(elementData, index+1, elementData, index, numMoved); elementData[--size] = null; // Let gc do its work } {/code] None of them reduce the datastore array. I even started questioning if memory free up ever happens, but empirical tests show that it does. So there must be some other way it is done, but where and how? I checked the parent classes as well with no success.

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  • UITableView populating EVERY OTHER launch

    - by Joshmattvander
    I am having a problem that I cant seem to get to the bottom of. In my view did load code, I am creating an array and attempting to populate the table. For some reason it only populates the data on EVERY OTHER time the app is run. I put logs in viewDidLoad which runs as does viewWillAppear and outputs the correct count for the array. Also, the UITableView specicic methods get called when it works and they just don't get called when it doesnt work. I cant figure out the root of this problem. Again this occurrence happens exactly 50% of the time. Theres no dynamic data that could be tripping up or anything. #import "InfoViewController.h" @implementation InfoViewController - (void)viewDidLoad { NSLog(@"Info View Loaded"); // This runs infoList = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; //Set The Data //Theres 8 similar lines [infoList addObject :[[NSMutableDictionary alloc] initWithObjectsAndKeys: @"Scrubbed", @"name", @"scrubbed", @"url", nil]]; NSLog(@"%d", [infoList count]); // This shows the count correctly every time [super viewDidLoad]; } -(void) viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { NSLog(@"Info Will Appear"); // This Runs } - (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { return 1; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { // This WILL NOT RUN when it doesnt work, and DOES show the count when it does run NSLog(@"Counted in numberOfRowsInSection %d", [infoList count]); return [infoList count]; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSLog(@"ROW"); static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"infoCell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator; cell.textLabel.text = [[infoList objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] objectForKey:@"name"]; return cell; } @end

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  • Type contraint problem of C#

    - by user351565
    I meet a problem about type contraint of c# now. I wrote a pair of methods that can convert object to string and convert string to object. ex. static string ConvertToString(Type type, object val) { if (type == typeof(string)) return (string)val; if (type == typeof(int)) return val.ToString(); if (type.InSubclassOf(typeof(CodeObject))) return ((CodeObject)val).Code; } static T ConvertToObject<T>(string str) { Type type = typeof(T); if (type == typeof(string)) return (T)(object)val; if (type == typeof(int)) return (T)(object)int.Parse(val); if (type.InSubclassOf(typeof(CodeObject))) return Codes.Get<T>(val); } where CodeObject is a base class of Employees, Offices ..., which can fetch by static method Godes.Get where T: CodeObject but the code above cannot be compiled because error #CS0314 the generic type T of method ConvertToObject have no any constraint but Codes.Get request T must be subclass of CodeObject i tried use overloading to solve the problem but not ok. is there any way to clear up the problem? like reflection?

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  • TDD approach for complex function

    - by jamie
    I have a method in a class for which they are a few different outcomes (based upon event responses etc). But this is a single atomic function which is to used by other applications. I have broken down the main blocks of the functionality that comprise this function into different functions and successfully taken a Test Driven Development approach to the functionality of each of these elements. These elements however aren't exposed for other applications would use. And so my question is how can/should i easily approach a TDD style solution to verifying that the single method that should be called does function correctly without a lot of duplication in testing or lots of setup required for each test? I have considered / looked at moving the blocks of functionality into a different class and use Mocking to simulate the responses of the functions used but it doesn't feel right and the individual methods need to write to variables within the main class (it felt really heath robinson). The code roughly looks like this (i have removed a lot of parameters to make things clearer along with a fair bit of irrelevant code). public void MethodToTest(string parameter) { IResponse x = null; if (function1(parameter)) { if (!function2(parameter,out x)) { function3(parameter, out x); } } // ... // more bits of code here // ... if (x != null) { x.Success(); } }

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  • Is there a Python module for handling Python object addresses?

    - by cool-RR
    (When I say "object address", I mean the string that you type in Python to access an object. For example 'life.State.step'. Most of the time, all the objects before the last dot will be packages/modules, but in some cases they can be classes or other objects.) In my Python project I often have the need to play around with object addresses. Some tasks that I have to do: Given an object, get its address. Given an address, get the object, importing any needed modules on the way. Shorten an object's address by getting rid of redundant intermediate modules. (For example, 'life.life.State.step' may be the official address of an object, but if 'life.State.step' points at the same object, I'd want to use it instead because it's shorter.) Shorten an object's address by "rooting" a specified module. (For example, 'garlicsim_lib.simpacks.prisoner.prisoner.State.step' may be the official address of an object, but I assume that the user knows where the prisoner package is, so I'd want to use 'prisoner.prisoner.State.step' as the address.) Is there a module/framework that handles things like that? I wrote a few utility modules to do these things, but if someone has already written a more mature module that does this, I'd prefer to use that. One note: Please, don't try to show me a quick implementation of these things. It's more complicated than it seems, there are plenty of gotchas, and any quick-n-dirty code will probably fail for many important cases. These kind of tasks call for battle-tested code. UPDATE: When I say "object", I mostly mean classes, modules, functions, methods, stuff like these. Sorry for not making this clear before.

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  • Processing data from an AJAX request

    - by Josh K
    I have a PHP API I'm working with that outputs everything as JSON. I need to call one of the API methods and parse it out using an AJAX request. I am using jQuery (though it shouldn't matter). When I make the request it errors out with a "parsererror" as the textStatus and a "Syntax Error: invalid label" when I make the request. Simplified code: $.ajax ({ type: "POST", url: "http://mydomain.com/api/get/userlist/"+mid, dataType: "json", dataFilter: function(data, type) { /* Here we assume and pray */ users = eval(data); alert(users[1].id); }, success: function(data, textStatus, XMLHttpRequest) { alert(data.length); // Should be an array, yet is undefined. }, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { alert(textStatus); alert(errorThrown); }, complete: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus) { alert("Done"); } }); If I leave off the eval(data) then everything works fine. Well, except for data still being undefined in success. Note that I'm taking an array of objects in PHP and then passing them out through json_encode. Would that make any difference? There has been no progress made on this. I'm willing to throw more code up if someone believes they can help. Here is the PHP side of things private function _get_user_colors($id) { $u = new User(); $u->get_where(array('id' => $id)); $bar = array(); $bar['user'] = $u->stored; foreach($user->colors as $color) { $bar['colors'][] = $color; } echo(json_encode($bar)); } I have had zero issues using this with other PHP based scripts. I don't know why Javascript would take issue with it.

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  • Deleting items from datagrid (xml)

    - by Tonz
    Hello, I have a datagrid buttoncolumn which acts as delete buttons for my xml nodes. The elements are simply displayed in a boundcolumn, so there names get displayed. Each item generated gets a unique id (each time one is made id+++). My question his how can i remove a item (the entire element node with that certain id) when i click on one of the buttons in the bound column? <root> <element id="0"> <name>One</name> </element> <element id="1"> <name>Two</name> </element> </root> protected void dg_DeleteCommand(object sender, DataGridCommandEventArgs e) { XmlFunctions.Remove(index); }/*dg_DeleteCommand*/ (function on other class, where all my xml methods are written) public static void Remove(string index) { XmlDocument XMLDoc = new XmlDocument(); XMLDoc.Load(XMLFile); XPathNavigator nav = XMLDoc.CreateNavigator(); var node = nav.SelectSingleNode("/test/one[@id='" +???+ "']"); node.DeleteSelf(); XMLDoc.Save(XMLFile); } Edit: added datagrid <asp:View ID="viewDelete" runat="server"> <asp:DataGrid ID="dgDelete runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="False" OnDeleteCommand="dg_DeleteCommand"> <Columns> <asp:BoundColumn DataField="name" HeaderText="names" /> <asp:ButtonColumn ButtonType="PushButton" Text="Delete" CommandName="Delete" ></asp:ButtonColumn> </Columns> </asp:DataGrid> </asp:View>

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  • Store a signed long int (32bit) as 4 octets?

    - by Doori Bar
    I managed to get a unsigned long int octets-representation (BE) by reading IPv4 methods, and I managed to read about how signed integers are using the MSB as the sign indicator, which makes 00 00 00 00 to be 0, while 7F FF FF FF is 2147483647. But I can't manage how to do the same for signed long integers? #include <stdio.h> #include <string.h> int main (void) { unsigned long int intu32; unsigned char octets[4]; intu32 = 255; octets[3] = (intu32) & 255; octets[2] = (intu32 >> 8) & 255; octets[1] = (intu32 >> 16) & 255; octets[0] = (intu32 >> 24) & 255; printf("(%d)(%d)(%d)(%d)\n", octets[0], octets[1], octets[2], octets[3]); intu32 = (octets[0] << 24) | (octets[1] << 16) | (octets[2] << 8) | octets[3]; printf("intu32:%lu\n", intu32); return 0; } Thanks in advance, Doori bar

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  • IEnumerator seems to be effecting all objects, and not one at a time

    - by PFranchise
    Hey, I am trying to alter an attribute of an object. I am setting it to the value of that same attribute stored on another table. There is a one to many relationship between the two. The product end is the one and the versions is the many. Right now, both these methods that I have tried have set all the products returned equal to the final version object. So, in this case they are all the same. I am not sure where the issue lies. Here are my two code snipets, both yield the same result. int x = 1 IEnumerator<Product> ie = productQuery.GetEnumerator(); while (ie.MoveNext()) { ie.Current.RSTATE = ie.Current.Versions.First(o => o.VersionNumber == x).RSTATE; x++; } and foreach (var product in productQuery) { product.RSTATE = product.Versions.Single(o => o.VersionNumber == x).RSTATE; x++; } The versions table holds information for previous products, each is distinguished by the version number. I know that it will start at 1 and go until it reaches the current version, based on my query returning the proper number of products. Thanks for any advice.

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  • How to access property in sub method after it runs?

    - by Warren
    I'm having a hard time working this one out but I think it should be pretty simple. Basically, I have this method which talks to a webservice and I need to return some data from the sub method, the "authCode". What am I doing wrong? How can I get the authCode out of the manager, or can I create a block or something to to ensure that the manager block runs first? Am I even using the right words - blocks, sub methods??? Please help :) - (NSString *)getAuthCodeEXAMPLE { __block NSString *returnString = @"nothing yet!"; NSURL *baseURL = [NSURL URLWithString:BaseURLString]; NSDictionary *parametersGetAuthCode = @{@"req": @"getauth"}; AFHTTPSessionManager *manager = [[AFHTTPSessionManager alloc] initWithBaseURL:baseURL]; manager.responseSerializer = [AFJSONResponseSerializer serializer]; [manager POST:APIscript parameters:parametersGetAuthCode success:^(NSURLSessionDataTask *task, id responseObject) { if ([task.response isKindOfClass:[NSHTTPURLResponse class]]) { NSHTTPURLResponse *r = (NSHTTPURLResponse *)task.response; if ([r statusCode] == 200) { self.returnedData = responseObject; NSString *authCode = [self.returnedData authcode]; NSLog(@"Authcode: %@", authCode); returnString = authCode; } } } failure:^(NSURLSessionDataTask *task, NSError *error) { UIAlertView *alertView = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Error" message:[error localizedDescription] delegate:nil cancelButtonTitle:@"Ok" otherButtonTitles:nil]; [alertView show]; }]; //this currently returns "nothing yet!" return returnString; }

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  • Call instance method with objc_msgSend

    - by user772349
    I'm trying to use the objc_msgSend method to call some method dynamically. Say I want call some method in Class B from Class A and there are two methods in class B like: - (void) instanceTestWithStr1:(NSString *)str1 str2:(NSString *)str1; + (void) methodTestWithStr1:(NSString *)str1 str2:(NSString *)str1; And I can call the class method like this in Class A successfully: objc_msgSend(objc_getClass("ClassB"), sel_registerName("methodTestWithStr1:str2:"), @"111", @"222"); And I can call the instance method like this in Class A successfully as well: objc_msgSend([[objc_getClass("ClassB") alloc] init], sel_registerName("instanceTestWithStr1:str2:"), @"111", @"222"); But the thing is to get a instance of Class B I have to call "initWithXXXXX:XXXXXX:XXXXXX" instead of "init" so that to pass some necessary parameters to class B to do the init stuff. So I stored a instance of ClassB in class A as variable: self.classBInstance = [[ClassB alloc] initWithXXXXX:XXXXXX:XXXXXX]; And then I call the method like this (successfully): The problem is, I want to call a method by simply applying the classname and the method sel like "ClassName" and "SEL" and then call it dynamically: If it's a class method. then call it like: objc_msgSend(objc_getClass("ClassName"), sel_registerName("SEL")); If it's a instance method, find the existing class instance variable in the calling class then: objc_msgSend([self.classInstance, sel_registerName("SEL")); So I want to know if there is any way to: Check if a class has a given method (I found "responseToSelector" will be the one) Check if a given method in class method or instance method (maybe can use responseToSelector as well) Check if a class has a instance variable of a given class So I can call a instance method like: objc_msgSend(objc_getClassInstance(self, "ClassB"), sel_registerName("SEL"));

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  • C# / this. and List<T>

    - by user3533030
    I am having trouble understanding how to initialize a List of objects and use it with methods inside of a class. I understand the mechanics of the List, but not how to initialize it inside a method and use it later. For example, I want to have a class that creates the List when it is constructed. Then, I want to use a method of that class to add elements to the list. The elements in the list are objects defined by the SolidWorks API. So, to construct the List, I used... public class ExportPoints : Exporter { public List<SldWorks.SketchPoint> listOfSketchPoints; public ExportPoints(SldWorks.SldWorks swApp, string nameSuffix) : base(swApp, nameSuffix) { List<SldWorks.SketchPoint> listOfSketchPoints = new List<SldWorks.SketchPoint>(); } public void createListOfFreePoints() { try { [imagine more code here] this.listOfSketchPoints.Add(pointTest); } catch (Exception e) { Debug.Print(e.ToString()); return; } } This fails during execution as if the listOfSketchPoints was never initialized as a List. So, I tried a hack and this worked: public ExportPoints(SldWorks.SldWorks swApp, string nameSuffix) : base(swApp, nameSuffix) { List<SldWorks.SketchPoint> listOfSketchPoints = new List<SldWorks.SketchPoint>(); this.listOfSketchPoints = listOfSketchPoints; } This approach creates the behavior that I want. However, it seems that I lack some understanding as to why this is necessary. Shouldn't it be possible to "initialize" a List that is a property of your object with a constructor? Why would you need to create the list, then assign the pointer of that new List to your property?

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  • jquery dialog calls a server side method with button parameters

    - by Chiefy
    Hello all, I have a gridview control with delete asp:ImageButton for each row of the grid. What I would like is for a jquery dialog to pop up when a user clicks the delete button to ask if they are sure they want to delete it. So far I have the dialog coming up just fine, Ive got buttons on that dialog and I can make the buttons call server side methods but its getting the dialog to know the ID of the row that the user has selected and then passing that to the server side code. The button in the page row is currently just an 'a' tag with the id 'dialog_link'. The jquery on the page looks like this: $("button").button(); $("#DeleteButton").click(function () { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "ManageUsers.aspx/DeleteUser", data: "{}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { // Replace the div's content with the page method's return. $("#DeleteButton").text(msg.d); } }); }); // Dialog $('#dialog').dialog({ autoOpen: false, width: 400, modal: true, bgiframe: true }); // Dialog Link $('#dialog_link').click(function () { $('#dialog').dialog('open'); return false; }); The dialog itself is just a set of 'div' tags. Ive thought of lots of different ways of doing this (parameter passing, session variable etc...) but cant figure out how to get any of them working. Any ideas are most welcome As always, thanks in advance to those who contribute.

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  • How do I call C++/CLI (.NET) DLLs from standard, unmanaged non-.NET applications?

    - by tronjohnson
    In the unmanaged world, I was able to write a __declspec(dllexport) or, alternatively, use a .DEF file to expose a function to be able to call a DLL. (Because of name mangling in C++ for the __stdcall, I put aliases into the .DEF file so certain applications could re-use certain exported DLL functions.) Now, I am interested in being able to expose a single entry-point function from a .NET assembly, in unmanaged-fashion, but have it enter into .NET-style functions within the DLL. Is this possible, in a simple and straight-forward fashion? What I have is a third-party program that I have extended through DLLs (plugins) that implement some complex mathematics. However, the third-party program has no means for me to visualize the calculations. I want to somehow take these pre-written math functions, compile them into a separate DLL (but using C++/CLI in .NET), but then add hooks to the functions so I can render what's going on under the hood in a .NET user control. I'm not sure how to blend the .NET stuff with the unmanaged stuff, or what to Google to accomplish this task. Specific suggestions with regard to the managed/unmanaged bridge, or alternative methods to accomplish the rendering in the manner I have described would be helpful. Thank you.

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  • Implementing inotifycollectionchanged interface

    - by George
    Hello, I need to implement a collection with special capabilities. In addition, I want to bind this collection to a ListView, Therefore I ended up with the next code (I omitted some methods to make it shorter here in the forum): public class myCollection<T> : INotifyCollectionChanged { private Collection<T> collection = new Collection<T>(); public event NotifyCollectionChangedEventHandler CollectionChanged; public void Add(T item) { collection.Insert(collection.Count, item); OnCollectionChange(new NotifyCollectionChangedEventArgs(NotifyCollectionChangedAction.Add, item)); } protected virtual void OnCollectionChange(NotifyCollectionChangedEventArgs e) { if (CollectionChanged != null) CollectionChanged(this, e); } } I wanted to test it with a simple data class: public class Person { public string GivenName { get; set; } public string SurName { get; set; } } So I created an instance of myCollection class as follows: myCollection<Person> _PersonCollection = new myCollection<Person>(); public myCollection<Person> PersonCollection { get { return _PersonCollection; } } The problem is that the ListView does not update when the collection updates although I implemented the INotifyCollectionChanged interface. I know that my binding is fine (in XAML) because when I use the ObservableCollecion class instead of myCollecion class like this: ObservableCollection<Person> _PersonCollection = new ObservableCollection<Person>(); public ObservableCollection<Person> PersonCollection { get { return _PersonCollection; } } the ListView updates What is the problem?

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  • C++: Vector of objects vs. vector of pointers to new objects?

    - by metamemetics
    Hello, I am seeking to improve my C++ skills by writing a sample software renderer. It takes objects consisting of points in a 3d space and maps them to a 2d viewport and draws circles of varying size for each point in view. Which is better: class World{ vector<ObjectBaseClass> object_list; public: void generate(){ object_list.clear(); object_list.push_back(DerivedClass1()); object_list.push_back(DerivedClass2()); or... class World{ vector<ObjectBaseClass*> object_list; public: void generate(){ object_list.clear(); object_list.push_back(new DerivedClass1()); object_list.push_back(new DerivedClass2()); ?? Would be using pointers in the 2nd example to create new objects defeat the point of using vectors, because vectors automatically call the DerivedClass destructors in the first example but not in the 2nd? Are pointers to new objects necessary when using vectors because they handle memory management themselves as long as you use their access methods? Now let's say I have another method in world: void drawfrom(Viewport& view){ for (unsigned int i=0;i<object_list.size();++i){ object_list.at(i).draw(view); } } When called this will run the draw method for every object in the world list. Let's say I want derived classes to be able to have their own versions of draw(). Would the list need to be of pointers then in order to use the method selector (-) ?

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  • C# Generic Generics (A Serious Question)

    - by tahirhassan
    In C# I am trying to write code where I would be creating a Func delegate which is in itself generic. For example the following (non-Generic) delegate is returning an arbitrary string: Func<string> getString = () => "Hello!"; I on the other hand want to create a generic which acts similarly to generic methods. For example if I want a generic Func to return default(T) for a type T. I would imagine that I write code as follows: Func<T><T> getDefaultObject = <T>() => default(T); Then I would use it as getDefaultObject<string>() which would return null and if I were to write getDefaultObject<int>() would return 0. This question is not merely an academic excercise. I have found numerous places where I could have used this but I cannot get the syntax right. Is this possible? Are there any libraries which provide this sort of functionality?

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  • initialize jquery slider with hidden input value from database.

    - by ludwigs3rd
    I'm using a slider as user input for a screen. Basically it's a bulk update screen where there is a table with multiple rows, thus multiple sliders. I created it so that the hidden value is what gets posted in the form. <td> <input class="percentageProvidedHidden" type="hidden" name='<%= "Values[" + i + "].Percentage" %>' value='<%=item.Percentage %>' /> <div class="percentageProvidedSlider"></div> </td> I have the update working just fine (move slider changes hidden input value, submit, values are updated in db), however, I can't get the damn thing to initialize with the value of the hidden input (note the "value: " parameter below). In this case I think $(this) isn't actually $('percentageProvidedSlider') but the page itself. Can someone help me get the slider value to initialize with the hidden input field? I'm using ASP .Net MVC 2 so if there are any methods I should try with that I welcome them as well. $('.percentageProvidedSlider').slider( { min: 0, max: 100, step: 25, value: $(this).parents('tr').find('input.percentageProvidedHidden').val(), slide: function(e, ui) { var mypos = ui.value; $(this).find('.ui-slider-handle').text(ui.value); }, change: function(event, ui) { var myVal = $(this).slider("option", "value"); $(this).parents('tr').find('input.percentageProvidedHidden').val(myVal); var myDropDown = $(this).parents('tr').find('select.verified'); } });

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  • Placing and removing element on array trough object

    - by Chris
    Hello, Lets assume i have 2 methods 1 that places a element on the array and one that removes it. const int Max = 10; int[] table= new int[Max]; I would like to call it up like this: s1.Place(5); // 5 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 s1.Place(9); // 5 9 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 s1.Remove(9); // 5 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 I would only like to use : using system for this. The result i get right now when i run the program is s1 = "nameofprogram" "name of class object" Normally i should get 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 to begin with. Any ideas how i can exactly add or remove those elements on the array? public void Place(int g) { if (top == Max) { throw new Exception("Stack overflow..."); } else { table[top] = g; top++; } .... Best Regards.

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  • Website badge system

    - by linkyndy
    I am currently working on a widget-based website, built entirely on user socialization. Since a reputation system pays off for attracting users, I decided to implement one of these. Now, I would like to hear some solutions on how should this be implemented the right way (take, for example, Foursquare's badge system). Basically, I need to be able to do the following: have a badges table, where I can add, edit and delete badges; be able to enable and disable a badge; be able to introduce a new badge, but without writing new code - simply give some parameters to the add badge form regarding what should be followed in order for a user to receive a badge; be able to give badges in real time - meaning that whenever a user accomplishes whatever it needs to receive a badge, the system should know immediately to give the badge to that user; also, the system should not be overloaded with "badge listeners" - I believe interrogating each user request with every badge requirements is time consuming; These being said, I would like to hear your opinions on how to implement the right way a badge system (logic, database schema, methods etc.) Thank you very much!

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  • EF 4 Query - Issue with Multiple Parameters

    - by Brian
    Hello, A trick to avoiding filtering by nullable parameters in SQL was something like the following: select * from customers where (@CustomerName is null or CustomerName = @CustomerName) This worked well for me in LINQ to SQL: string customerName = "XYZ"; var results = (from c in ctx.Customers where (customerName == null || (customerName != null && c.CustomerName == customerName)) select c); But that above query, when in ADO.NET EF, doesn't work for me; it should filter by customer name because it exists, but it doesn't. Instead, it's querying all the customer records. Now, this is a simplified example, because I have many fields that I'm utilizing this kind of logic with. But it never actually filters, queries all the records, and causes a timeout exception. But the wierd thing is another query does something similarly, with no issues. Any ideas why? Seems like a bug to me, or is there a workaround for this? I've since switched to extension methods which works. Thanks.

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