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  • XSL unique values per node

    - by Nathan
    ok i have this xml <roots> <root> <name>first</name> <item type='test'><something>A</something></item> <item type='test'><something>B</something></item> <item type='test'><something>C</something></item> <item type='test'><something>A</something></item> <item type='other'><something>A</something></item> <item type='test'><something>B</something></item> <item type='other'><something>D</something></item> </root> <root> <name>second</name> <item type='test'><something>E</something></item> <item type='test'><something>B</something></item> <item type='test'><something>F</something></item> <item type='test'><something>A</something></item> <item type='other'><something>A</something></item> <item type='test'><something>B</something></item> <item type='other'><something>D</something></item> </root> </roots> now i need to get the unique values of each root node so far i have <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> <xsl:output indent="yes" method="text"/> <xsl:key name="item-by-value" match="something" use="."/> <xsl:key name="rootkey" match="root" use="name"/> <xsl:template match="/"> <xsl:for-each select="key('rootkey','second')"> <xsl:for-each select="item/something"> <xsl:if test="generate-id() = generate-id(key('item-by-value', normalize-space(.)))"> <xsl:value-of select="."/> </xsl:if> </xsl:for-each> </xsl:for-each> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> if i use "First" as the key to get only the first root i get a good result ABCD how ever if i use "second" i only get EF but i need the result to be ABDFE

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  • Is O_NONBLOCK being set a property of the file descriptor or underlying file?

    - by Daniel Trebbien
    From what I have been reading on The Open Group website on fcntl, open, read, and write, I get the impression that whether O_NONBLOCK is set on a file descriptor, and hence whether non-blocking I/O is used with the descriptor, should be a property of that file descriptor rather than the underlying file. Being a property of the file descriptor means, for example, that if I duplicate a file descriptor or open another descriptor to the same file, then I can use blocking I/O with one and non-blocking I/O with the other. Experimenting with a FIFO, however, it appears that it is not possible to have a blocking I/O descriptor and non-blocking I/O descriptor to the FIFO simultaneously (so whether O_NONBLOCK is set is a property of the underlying file [the FIFO]): #include <errno.h> #include <fcntl.h> #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <unistd.h> int main(int argc, char **argv) { int fds[2]; if (pipe(fds) == -1) { fprintf(stderr, "`pipe` failed.\n"); return EXIT_FAILURE; } int fd0_dup = dup(fds[0]); if (fd0_dup <= STDERR_FILENO) { fprintf(stderr, "Failed to duplicate the read end\n"); return EXIT_FAILURE; } if (fds[0] == fd0_dup) { fprintf(stderr, "`fds[0]` should not equal `fd0_dup`.\n"); return EXIT_FAILURE; } if ((fcntl(fds[0], F_GETFL) & O_NONBLOCK)) { fprintf(stderr, "`fds[0]` should not have `O_NONBLOCK` set.\n"); return EXIT_FAILURE; } if (fcntl(fd0_dup, F_SETFL, fcntl(fd0_dup, F_GETFL) | O_NONBLOCK) == -1) { fprintf(stderr, "Failed to set `O_NONBLOCK` on `fd0_dup`\n"); return EXIT_FAILURE; } if ((fcntl(fds[0], F_GETFL) & O_NONBLOCK)) { fprintf(stderr, "`fds[0]` should still have `O_NONBLOCK` unset.\n"); return EXIT_FAILURE; // RETURNS HERE } char buf[1]; if (read(fd0_dup, buf, 1) != -1) { fprintf(stderr, "Expected `read` on `fd0_dup` to fail immediately\n"); return EXIT_FAILURE; } else if (errno != EAGAIN) { fprintf(stderr, "Expected `errno` to be `EAGAIN`\n"); return EXIT_FAILURE; } return EXIT_SUCCESS; } This leaves me thinking: is it ever possible to have a non-blocking I/O descriptor and blocking I/O descriptor to the same file and if so, does it depend on the type of file (regular file, FIFO, block special file, character special file, socket, etc.)?

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  • Performance of tokenizing CSS in PHP

    - by Boldewyn
    This is a noob question from someone who hasn't written a parser/lexer ever before. I'm writing a tokenizer/parser for CSS in PHP (please don't repeat with 'OMG, why in PHP?'). The syntax is written down by the W3C neatly here (CSS2.1) and here (CSS3, draft). It's a list of 21 possible tokens, that all (but two) cannot be represented as static strings. My current approach is to loop through an array containing the 21 patterns over and over again, do an if (preg_match()) and reduce the source string match by match. In principle this works really good. However, for a 1000 lines CSS string this takes something between 2 and 8 seconds, which is too much for my project. Now I'm banging my head how other parsers tokenize and parse CSS in fractions of seconds. OK, C is always faster than PHP, but nonetheless, are there any obvious D'Oh! s that I fell into? I made some optimizations, like checking for '@', '#' or '"' as the first char of the remaining string and applying only the relevant regexp then, but this hadn't brought any great performance boosts. My code (snippet) so far: $TOKENS = array( 'IDENT' => '...regexp...', 'ATKEYWORD' => '@...regexp...', 'String' => '"...regexp..."|\'...regexp...\'', //... ); $string = '...CSS source string...'; $stream = array(); // we reduce $string token by token while ($string != '') { $string = ltrim($string, " \t\r\n\f"); // unconsumed whitespace at the // start is insignificant but doing a trim reduces exec time by 25% $matches = array(); // loop through all possible tokens foreach ($TOKENS as $t => $p) { // The '&' is used as delimiter, because it isn't used anywhere in // the token regexps if (preg_match('&^'.$p.'&Su', $string, $matches)) { $stream[] = array($t, $matches[0]); $string = substr($string, strlen($matches[0])); // Yay! We found one that matches! continue 2; } } // if we come here, we have a syntax error and handle it somehow } // result: an array $stream consisting of arrays with // 0 => type of token // 1 => token content

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  • How can I inject Javascript (including Prototype.js) in other sites without cluttering the global na

    - by Daniel Magliola
    I'm currently on a project that is a big site that uses the Prototype library, and there is already a humongous amount of Javascript code. We're now working on a piece of code that will get "injected" into other people's sites (picture people adding a <script> tag in their sites) which will then run our code and add a bunch of DOM elements and functionality to their site. This will have new pieces of code, and will also reuse a lot of the code that we use on our main site. The problem I have is that it's of course not cool to just add a <script> that will include Prototype in people's pages. If we do that in a page that's already using ANY framework, we're guaranteed to screw everything up. jQuery gives us the option to "rename" the $ object, so it could handle this situation decently, except obviously for the fact that we're not using jQuery, so we'd have to migrate everything. Right now i'm contemplating a number of ugly choices, and I'm not sure what's best... Rewrite everything to use jQuery, with a renamed $ object everywhere. Creating a "new" Prototype library with only the subset we'd be using in "injected" code, and renaming $ to something else. Then again I'd have to adapt the parts of my code that would be shared somehow. Not using a library at all in injected code, to keep it as clean as possible, and rewriting the shared code to use no library at all. This would obviously degenerate into us creating our own frankenstein of a library, which is probably the worst case scenario ever. I'm wondering what you guys think I could do, and also whether there's some magic option that would solve all my problems... For example, do you think I could use something like Caja / Cajita to sandbox my own code and isolate it from the rest of the site, and have Prototype inside of there? Or am I completely missing the point with that? I also read once about a technique for bookmarklets, were you add your code like this: (function() { /* your code */ })(); And then your code is all inside your anonymous function and you haven't touched the global namespace at all. Do you think I could make one file containing: (function() { /* Full Code of the Prototype file here */ /* All my code that will run in the "other" site */ InitializeStuff_CreateDOMElements_AttachEventHandlers(); })(); Would that work? Would it accomplish the objective of not cluttering the global namespace, and not killing the functionality on a site that uses jQuery, for example? Or is Prototype too complex somehow to isolate it like that? (NOTE: I think I know that that would create closures everywhere and that's slower, but I don't care too much about performance, my code is not doing anything that complex)

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  • One entityManger finds entity , the other does not.

    - by Pitelk
    Hi all, I have a very strange behavior in my program. I have 2 classes (class LogIn and CreateGame) where i have injected an EntityManager in each using the annotation @PersistenceContext(unitName="myUnitPU") EntityManager entitymanger; In some point i remove an object called "user" from the database using entitymanger.remove(user) from a method in LogIn class. The business logic is that a user can host and join games ( in the same time) so removing the user all the entries in database about the games the user has created are removed and all the entries showing in which games the user has joined are removed also. After that, i call another function which checks if the user exists using a method in the LogIn class entitymanager.find(user) which surprisingly enough, finds the user. After that I call a method in CreateGame class which tries to find the user by using again entitymanger.find(user) the entitymanger in that class fails to find the user (which is the expected result as the user is removed and it's not in the database) So the question is : Why the entitymanager in one class finds the user (which is wrong) where the other doesn't find it? Does anyone has ever the same problem? PS : This "bug" occurs when the user has hosted a game which is joined by another user (lets call him Buser) and the Buser has made a game which is joined by the current user. GAME | HOST | CLIENTS game1 | user | userB game2 | userB | user where in this case by removing the user, the game1 is deleted and the user is removed from game2 so the result is GAME | HOST | CLIENTS game2 | userB | PS2 : The Beans are EJB3.0. The methods are called from a delegate class. The beans in the delegate class are instantiated using the InitialContext.lookup() method. Note that for logging in ,creating , joining games the appropriate delegate class calls the correspondent EJB which does the transactions. In the case of logOut, the delegate calls an EJB to logout the user but becuase other stuff must be done (as said above) this EJB calls other EJB (again using lookup() ) which has methods like removegame(), removeUserFromGame() etc. After those methods are executed the user is then logged out. Maybe it has something to do with the fact the the first entity manager is called by a delegate but the second from inside an EJb and thats why the one entitymanger can see the non-existent user while the other cannot? Also all the methods have TRANSACTIONTYPE.REQUIRED Thank you in advance

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  • Is the Scala 2.8 collections library a case of "the longest suicide note in history" ?

    - by oxbow_lakes
    First note the inflammatory subject title is a quotation made about the manifesto of a UK political party in the early 1980s. This question is subjective but it is a genuine question, I've made it CW and I'd like some opinions on the matter. Despite whatever my wife and coworkers keep telling me, I don't think I'm an idiot: I have a good degree in mathematics from the University of Oxford and I've been programming commercially for almost 12 years and in Scala for about a year (also commercially). I have just started to look at the Scala collections library re-implementation which is coming in the imminent 2.8 release. Those familiar with the library from 2.7 will notice that the library, from a usage perspective, has changed little. For example... > List("Paris", "London").map(_.length) res0: List[Int] List(5, 6) ...would work in either versions. The library is eminently useable: in fact it's fantastic. However, those previously unfamiliar with Scala and poking around to get a feel for the language now have to make sense of method signatures like: def map[B, That](f: A => B)(implicit bf: CanBuildFrom[Repr, B, That]): That For such simple functionality, this is a daunting signature and one which I find myself struggling to understand. Not that I think Scala was ever likely to be the next Java (or /C/C++/C#) - I don't believe its creators were aiming it at that market - but I think it is/was certainly feasible for Scala to become the next Ruby or Python (i.e. to gain a significant commercial user-base) Is this going to put people off coming to Scala? Is this going to give Scala a bad name in the commercial world as an academic plaything that only dedicated PhD students can understand? Are CTOs and heads of software going to get scared off? Was the library re-design a sensible idea? If you're using Scala commercially, are you worried about this? Are you planning to adopt 2.8 immediately or wait to see what happens? Steve Yegge once attacked Scala (mistakenly in my opinion) for what he saw as its overcomplicated type-system. I worry that someone is going to have a field day spreading fud with this API (similarly to how Josh Bloch scared the JCP out of adding closures to Java). Note - I should be clear that, whilst I believe that Josh Bloch was influential in the rejection of the BGGA closures proposal, I don't ascribe this to anything other than his honestly-held beliefs that the proposal represented a mistake.

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  • What is the relationship between WebProxy & IWebProxy with respect to WebClient?

    - by Streamline
    I am creating an app (.NET 2.0) that uses WebClient to connect (downloaddata, etc) to/from a http web service. I am adding a form now to handle allowing proxy information to either be stored or set to use the defaults. I am a little confused about some things. First, some of the methods & properties available in either WebProxy or IWebProxy are not in both. What is the difference here with respect to setting up how WebClient will be have when it is called? Secondly, do I have to tell WebClient to use the proxy information if I set it using either WebProxy or IWebProxy class elsewhere? Or is it automatically inherited? Thirdly, when giving the option for the user to use the default proxy (whatever is set in IE) and using the default credentials (I assume also whatever is set in IE) are these two mutually exclusive? Or you only use default credentials when you have also used default proxy? This gets me to the whole difference between WebProxy and IWebProxy. WebRequest.DefaultProxy is a IWebPRoxy class but UseDefaultCredentials is not a method on the IWebProxy class, rather it is only on WebProxy and in turn, How to set the proxy to the WebRequest.DefautlProxy if they are two different classes? Here is my current method to read the stored form settings by the user - but I am not sure if this is correct, not enough, overkill, or just wrong because of the mix of WebProxy and IWebProxy: private WebProxy _proxyInfo = new WebProxy(); private WebProxy SetProxyInfo() { if (UseProxy) { if (UseIEProxy) { // is doing this enough to set this as default for WebClient? IWebProxy iProxy = WebRequest.DefaultWebProxy; if (UseIEProxyCredentials) { _proxyInfo.UseDefaultCredentials = true; } else { // is doing this enough to set this as default credentials for WebClient? WebRequest.DefaultWebProxy.Credentials = new NetworkCredential(ProxyUsername, ProxyPassword); } } else { // is doing this enough to set this as default for WebClient? WebRequest.DefaultWebProxy = new WebProxy(ProxyAddress, ParseLib.StringToInt(ProxyPort)); if (UseIEProxyCredentials) { _proxyInfo.UseDefaultCredentials = true; } else { WebRequest.DefaultWebProxy.Credentials = new NetworkCredential(ProxyUsername, ProxyPassword); } } } // Do I need to WebClient to absorb this returned proxy info if I didn't set or use defaults? return _proxyInfo; } Is there any reason to not just scrap storing app specific proxy information and only allow the app the ability to use the default proxy information & credentials for the logged in user? Will this ever not be enough if using HTTP? Part 2 Question: How can I test that the WebClient instance is using the proxy information or not?

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  • Experienced developer trying to get outsourcing contract with current client.

    - by Mike
    I work for a major bank as a contract software developer. I've been there a few months, and without exception this place has the worst software practices I've ever seen. The software my team makes has no formal testing, terrible code (not reusable, hard to read, etc), minimal documentation, no defined development process and an absolutely sickening amount of waste due to bureaucratic overhead. Part of my contract is to maintain a group of thousands of very poorly written batch jobs. When one of the jobs fails (read: crashes), it's a developers job to look at the source, figure out what's wrong, fix it, and check it in. There is no quality assurance process or auditing of the results whatsoever. Once the developer says "it works" a manager signs off and it goes into production. What's disturbing is that these jobs essentially grab market data and put it into a third-party risk management system, which provides the bank with critical intelligence. I've discovered the disturbing truth that this has been happening since the 90s and nobody really has evidence the system is getting the correct data! Without going into details, an issue arose on Friday that was so horrible I actually stormed out of the place. I was ready to quit, but I decided to just get out to calm my nerves and possibly go back Monday. I've been reflecting today on how to handle this. I have realized that, in probably less than 6 months, I could (with 2 other developers) remake a large component of this system. The new system would provide them with, as primary benefits, a maintainable codebase less prone to error and a solid QA framework. To do it properly I would have to be outside the bank, the internal bureaucracy is just too much. And moreover, I think a bank is fundamentally not a place that can make good software. This is my plan. Write a report explaining in depth all the problems with their current system Explain why their software practices fail and generate a tremendous amount of error and waste. Use this as the basis for claiming the project must be developed externally. Write a high level development plan, including what resources I will require Hand 1,2,3 to my manager, hopefully he passes it up the chain. Worst case he fires me, but this isn't so bad. Convinced Executive decides to award my company a contract for the new system I have 8 years experience as a software contractor and have delivered my share of successful software products, but all working in-house for small/medium sized companies. When I read this over, I think I have a dynamite plan. But since this is the first time doing something this bold so I have my doubts. My question is, is this a good idea? If you think not, please spare no detail.

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  • Tracking upstream svn changes with git-svn and github?

    - by Joseph Turian
    How do I track upstream SVN changes using git-svn and github? I used git-svn to convert an SVN repo to git on github: $ git svn clone -s http://svn.osqa.net/svnroot/osqa/ osqa $ cd osqa $ git remote add origin [email protected]:turian/osqa.git $ git push origin master I then made a few changes in my git repo, committed, and pushed to github. Now, I am on a new machine. I want to take upstream SVN changes, merge them with my github repo, and push them to my github repo. This documentation says: "If you ever lose your local copy, just run the import again with the same settings, and you’ll get another working directory with all the necessary SVN metainfo." So I did the following. But none of the commands work as desired. How do I track upstream SVN changes using git-svn and github? What am I doing wrong? $ git svn clone -s http://svn.osqa.net/svnroot/osqa/ osqa $ cd osqa $ git remote add origin [email protected]:turian/osqa.git $ git push origin master To [email protected]:turian/osqa.git ! [rejected] master -> master (non-fast forward) error: failed to push some refs to '[email protected]:turian/osqa.git' $ git pull remote: Counting objects: 21, done. remote: Compressing objects: 100% (17/17), done. remote: Total 17 (delta 7), reused 9 (delta 0) Unpacking objects: 100% (17/17), done. From [email protected]:turian/osqa * [new branch] master -> origin/master From [email protected]:turian/osqa * [new tag] master -> master You asked me to pull without telling me which branch you want to merge with, and 'branch.master.merge' in your configuration file does not tell me either. Please name which branch you want to merge on the command line and try again (e.g. 'git pull <repository> <refspec>'). See git-pull(1) for details on the refspec. ... $ /usr//lib/git-core/git-svn rebase warning: refname 'master' is ambiguous. First, rewinding head to replay your work on top of it... Applying: Added forum/management/commands/dumpsettings.py error: Ref refs/heads/master is at 6acd747f95aef6d9bce37f86798a32c14e04b82e but expected a7109d94d813b20c230a029ecd67801e6067a452 fatal: Cannot lock the ref 'refs/heads/master'. Could not move back to refs/heads/master rebase refs/remotes/trunk: command returned error: 1

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  • Tomcat 403 error after LDAP authentication.

    - by user352636
    I'm currently trying to use an LDAP server to authenticate users who are trying to access our Tomcat setup. I believe I have managed to get the LDAP authentication working in the form of a JNDI realm call from Tomcat, but immediately after the user enters their password Tomcat starts throwing 403 (permission denied) errors for everything except from the root page (ttp://localhost:1337/). I have no idea why this is happening. I am following the example at http://blog.mc-thias.org/?title=tomcat_ldap_authentication&more=1&c=1&tb=1&pb=1 . server.xml (the interesting/changed bits) <Realm className="org.apache.catalina.realm.JNDIRealm" debug="99" connectionURL="ldap://localhost:389" userPattern="uid={0},ou=People,o=test,dc=company,dc=uk" userSubTree="true" roleBase="ou=Roles,o=test,dc=company,dc=uk" roleName="cn" roleSearch="memberUid={1}" /> <Valve className="org.apache.catalina.authenticator.SingleSignOn" /> web.xml (the interesting/changed bits) <security-constraint> <display-name>Security Constraint</display-name> <web-resource-collection> <web-resource-name>Protected Area</web-resource-name> <!-- Define the context-relative URL(s) to be protected --> <url-pattern>/*</url-pattern> <!-- If you list http methods, only those methods are protected --> </web-resource-collection> <auth-constraint> <!-- Anyone with one of the listed roles may access this area --> <role-name>admin</role-name> <role-name>regular</role-name> </auth-constraint> </security-constraint> <!-- Default login configuration uses form-based authentication --> <login-config> <auth-method>BASIC</auth-method> </login-config> <!-- Security roles referenced by this web application --> <security-role> <role-name>admin</role-name> <role-name>regular</role-name> </security-role> I cannot access my LDAP setup at the moment, but I believe it is alright as the login is accepted by the BASIC auth method, it's just tomcat that is rejecting it. The roles should be as defined in web.xml - admin and regular. If there is any other information you require me to provide, please just ask! My thanks in advance to anyone who can help, and my apologies for any major mistakes I have made - yesterday was pretty much the first time I'd ever heard of LDAP =D. EDIT: Fixed the second xml segment. Apologies for the formating-fail.

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  • jQuery jScrollPane - it simply won't work! :'(

    - by Jack Webb-Heller
    Hey folks, OK - I'll admit, I'm quite a beginner in this jQuery-department. I've probably made some amateur mistake, but hey, you gotta learn somewhere! :) So I'm using jScrollPane: http://www.kelvinluck.com/assets/jquery/jScrollPane/jScrollPane.html I want to use it style the scrollable area in my second column. Specifically, I would like to apply and format the scrollbars on the div #ajaxresults My page is... rather jQuery heavy. I don't know if any variables are conflicting or something... in fact I really have no idea at all why this isn't working. Take a look at my problematic page: http://furnace.howcode.com In the header, I've set this to go: <!-- Includes for jScrollPane --> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://localhost:8888/js/jquery.mousewheel.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://localhost:8888/js/jScrollPane.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" media="all" href="http://localhost:8888/stylesheets/jScrollPane.css" /> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $('#ajaxresults').jScrollPane(); }); </script> (I've changed localhost on the server copy though) Nothing ever seems to work with the #ajaxresults div. I've set, as the jScrollPane docs say, overflow:auto on it but still no luck. I find that when jScrollPane DOES seem to 'run' it just moves the div down about 100 pixels. Try it for yourself. Perhaps someone could help? There's quite a few jQuery plugins there so I don't know if something's colliding/crashing etc... Please note the site is still in development between myself and a friend, which explains the personal messages we submit to each other ('Hi Donnie!' etc. :D ). Also, when you view the page nothing may appear in the second column for a few seconds - it's just fetching the data via Ajax. So give it a little time. Thanks very much! Jack

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  • e.Row.Tag .ToString

    - by prince23
    hi, Child data grid is not showing the values in the page for the child datagrid I am binding with an list <sdk:DataGrid MinHeight="100" x:Name="contacts" Margin="51,21,88,98" RowDetailsVisibilityChanged="contacts_RowDetailsVisibilityChanged" LoadingRowDetails="contacts_LoadingRowDetails" RowDetailsVisibilityMode="VisibleWhenSelected" MouseLeftButtonUp="contacts_MouseLeftButtonUp" MouseLeftButtonDown="contacts_MouseLeftButtonDown"> <sdk:DataGrid.Columns> <sdk:DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding EmployeeID}" Header="ID" /> <sdk:DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding EmployeeFName}" Header="Fname" /> <sdk:DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding EmployeeLName}" Header="LName" /> <sdk:DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding EmployeeMailID}" Header="MailID" /> </sdk:DataGrid.Columns> <sdk:DataGrid.RowDetailsTemplate> <DataTemplate> <sdk:DataGrid x:Name="dgrdRowDetail" Width="200" AutoGenerateColumns="False" HorizontalAlignment="Center" IsReadOnly="True"> <sdk:DataGrid.Columns> <sdk:DataGridTextColumn Header="CompanyName" Binding="{Binding Company name}"/> <sdk:DataGridTextColumn Header="CompanyName" Binding="{Binding EmpID}"/> </sdk:DataGrid.Columns> </sdk:DataGrid> </DataTemplate> </sdk:DataGrid.RowDetailsTemplate> </sdk:DataGrid> I am having 2 grids "contacts" and "dgrdRowDetail" globally i have defined an variable like this:- DataGrid dgrdRowDetail; in the contacts_RowDetailsVisibilityChanged event I have this code if (e.Row.DataContext != null) { string strEmpID = ((SilverlightApplication1.DBServiceEMP.Employee)((e.DetailsElement).DataContext)).EmployeeID; dgrdRowDetail = (DataGrid)e.DetailsElement.FindName("dgrdRowDetail"); // here i am finding the child datgrid control in contacts datagrid // then in dgrdRowDetail i will be binding this grid with new values if (strEmpID != null) { int EmpID = Convert.ToInt32(strEmpID.ToString()); DBServiceEmp.GetEmployeeIDCompleted += new EventHandler<GetEmployeeIDCompletedEventArgs>(DBServiceEmp_GetEmployeeIDCompleted); DBServiceEmp.GetEmployeeIDAsync(EmpID); } } this is my method void DBServiceEmp_GetEmployeeIDCompleted(object sender, GetEmployeeIDCompletedEventArgs e) { // List<Employee> Employes = new List<Employee>(); List<Employee> rows = new List<Employee>(); for (int i = 0; i < e.Result.Count; i++) { rows.Add(e.Result[i]); } dgrdRowDetail.ItemsSource = rows; // here i am binding the child datagrid with new data source } dgrdRowDetail.ItemsSource = rows// what ever rows i am binding to dgrdRowDetail are not shown in the page if i check the rows i am able to see the value ther. but in the child grid it is not reflecting plz plz help me out i am struck thanks in advance prince

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  • Is ResourceBundle fallback resolution broken in Resin3x?

    - by LES2
    Given the following ResourceBundle properties files: messages.properties messages_en.properties messages_es.properties messages_{some locale}.properties Note: messages.properties contains all the messages for the default locale. messages_en.properties is really empty - it's just there for correctness. messages_en.properties will fall back to messages.properties! And given the following config params in web.xml: <context-param> <param-name>javax.servlet.jsp.jstl.fmt.localizationContext</param-name> <param-value>messages</param-value> </context-param> <context-param> <param-name>javax.servlet.jsp.jstl.fmt.fallbackLocale</param-name> <param-value>en</param-value> </context-param> I would expect that if the chosen locale is 'es', and a resource is not translated in 'es', then it would fall back to 'en', and finally to 'messages.properties' (since messages_en.properties is empty). This is how things work in Jetty. I've also tested this on WebSphere. Resin Is the Problem The problem is when I get to Resin (3.0.23). Fallback resolution does not work at all! In order to get an messages to display, I must do the following: Rename messages.properties to messages_en.properties (essentially, swap the contents of messages.properties and messages_en.properties) Make sure ever key in messages_en.properties is also defined in messages_{every other locale}.properties (even if the exact same). If I don't do this, I get "???some.key???" in the JSPs. Please help! This is perplexing. -- LES SOLUTION Add following to pom.xml (if you're using maven) ... <properties> <taglibs.version>1.1.2</taglibs.version> </properties> ... <!-- Resin ships with a crappy JSTL implementation that doesn't work with fallback locales for resource bundles correctly; we therefore include our own JSTL implementation in the WAR, and avoid this problem. This can be removed if the target container is not resin. --> <dependency> <groupId>taglibs</groupId> <artifactId>standard</artifactId> <version>${taglibs.version}</version> <scope>compile</scope> </dependency>

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  • Maven 2 assembly with dependencies: jar under scope "system" not included.

    - by YuppieNetworking
    Hello, I am using maven-assembly plugin to create a jar of my application, including its dependencies as follows: <assembly> <id>macosx</id> <formats> <format>tar.gz</format> <format>dir</format> </formats> <dependencySets> <dependencySet> <includes> <include>*:jar</include> </includes> <outputDirectory>lib</outputDirectory> </dependencySet> </dependencySets> </assembly> (I omitted some other stuff that is not related to the question) So far this has worked fine because it creates a lib directory with all dependencies. However, I recently added a new dependency whose scope is system, and it does not copy it to the lib output directory. i must be missing something basic here, so I call for help. The dependency that I just added is: <dependency> <groupId>sourceforge.jchart2d</groupId> <artifactId>jchart2d</artifactId> <version>3.1.0</version> <scope>system</scope> <systemPath>${project.basedir}/external/jchart2d-3.1.0.jar</systemPath> </dependency> The only way I was able to include this dependency was by adding the following to the assembly element: <files> <file> <source>external/jchart2d-3.1.0.jar</source> <outputDirectory>lib</outputDirectory> </file> </files> However, this forces me to change the pom and the assembly file whenever this jar is renamed, if ever. Also, it seems just wrong. I have tried with <scope>runtime</scope> in the dependencySets and <include>sourceforge.jchart2d:jchart2d</include> with no luck. So how do you include a system scoped jar to your assembly file in maven 2? Thanks a lot

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  • Multiline editable textarea in SVG

    - by Timo
    I'm trying to implement multiline editable textfield in SVG. I have the following code in http://jsfiddle.net/ca4d3/ : <svg width="1000" height="1000" overflow="scroll"> <g transform="rotate(5)"> <rect width="300" height="400" fill="#22DD22" fill-opacity="0.5"/> </g> <foreignObject x="10" y="10" overflow="visible" width="10000" height="10000" requiredFeatures="http://www.w3.org/TR/SVG11/feature#Extensibility"> <p style="display:table-cell;padding:10px;border:1px solid red; background-color:white;opacity:0.5;font-family:Verdana; font-size:20px;white-space: pre; word-wrap: normal; overflow: visible; overflow-y: visible; overflow-x:visible;" contentEditable="true" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> Write here some text. Be smart and select some word. If you wanna be really COOL, paste here something cool! </p> </foreignObject> </svg> In newest Chrome, Safari and Firefox the code works in some way, but in Opera and IE 9 not. The goal is that: 0) Works in newest Chrome, Safari, Firefox, Opera and IE and if ever possible in some pads. 1) White-spaces are preserved and text wraps only on newline char (works in Chrome, Safari and Firefox, but not in Opera and IE 9 *). 2) The textfield is editable (in the same reliable and stabile way as textareas and contenteditable p elements in html) and height and width is expanded to fit text (works in Chrome, Safari and Firefox, but not in Opera and IE 9 *). 3) Texfield can be transformed (rotated, skewed, translated) while maintaining text editability (Tested rotation, but not work in any browser *). EDIT: Foreignobject rotation works on Firefox 15.0.1, but not in Safari 5.1.7 (6534.57.2), Chrome 22.0.1229.79, Opera 12.02, IE 9. Tested on Mac OS X 10.6.8. 4) Textfield can be clipped and masked while not necessarily maintaining text editability (not yet tested). *) using above code These all can be achieved using Flash, but Flash has so severe problems that it is not suitable for my purposes (after every little change in code, all have to be compiled again using Flex, which is slow, font size has limits, tracking technique is pixeloriented, not relative to em size etc.) and there still are differences across platforms. And I want to give a try to SVG! GUESTION: Can I achieve my goals 0-4 with current SVG support in browsers? Is coming SVG 2.0 for some help in this case? EDIT: Changed display:table to display:table-cell (and added new jsfiddle), because display:table made the field to loses focus when pressed arrow-up on first text row.

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  • Drupal 7: File field causes error with Dependable Dropdowns

    - by LoneWolfPR
    I'm building a Form in a module using the Form API. I've had a couple of dependent dropdowns that have been working just fine. The code is as follows: $types = db_query('SELECT * FROM {touchpoints_metric_types}') -> fetchAllKeyed(0, 1); $types = array('0' => '- Select -') + $types; $selectedType = isset($form_state['values']['metrictype']) ? $form_state['values']['metrictype'] : 0; $methods = _get_methods($selectedType); $selectedMethod = isset($form_state['values']['measurementmethod']) ? $form_state['values']['measurementmethod'] : 0; $form['metrictype'] = array( '#type' => 'select', '#title' => t('Metric Type'), '#options' => $types, '#default_value' => $selectedType, '#ajax' => array( 'event' => 'change', 'wrapper' => 'method-wrapper', 'callback' => 'touchpoints_method_callback' ) ); $form['measurementmethod'] = array( '#type' => 'select', '#title' => t('Measurement Method'), '#prefix' => '<div id="method-wrapper">', '#suffix' => '</div>', '#options' => $methods, '#default_value' => $selectedMethod, ); Here are the _get_methods and touchpoints_method_callback functions: function _get_methods($selected) { if ($selected) { $methods = db_query("SELECT * FROM {touchpoints_m_methods} WHERE mt_id=$selected") -> fetchAllKeyed(0, 2); } else { $methods = array(); } $methods = array('0' => "- Select -") + $methods; return $methods; } function touchpoints_method_callback($form, &$form_state) { return $form['measurementmethod']; } This all worked fine until I added a file field to the form. Here is the code I used for that: $form['metricfile'] = array( '#type' => 'file', '#title' => 'Attach a File', ); Now that the file is added if I change the first dropdown it hangs with the 'Please wait' message next to it without ever loading the contents of the second dropdown. I also get the following error in my JavaScript console: "Uncaught TypeError: Object function (a,b){return new p.fn.init(a,b,c)} has no method 'handleError'" What am I doing wrong here?

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  • Fixing up an entity framework query

    - by vdh_ant
    My table structure is as follows: Person 1-M PesonAddress Person 1-M PesonPhone Person 1-M PesonEmail Person 1-M Contract Contract M-M Program Contract M-1 Organization At the end of this query I need a populated object graph where each person has their: PesonAddress's PesonPhone's PesonEmail's PesonPhone's Contract's - and this has its respective Program's Now I had the following query and I thought that it was working great, but it has a couple of problems: from people in ctx.People.Include("PersonAddress") .Include("PersonLandline") .Include("PersonMobile") .Include("PersonEmail") .Include("Contract") .Include("Contract.Program") where people.Contract.Any( contract => (param.OrganizationId == contract.OrganizationId) && contract.Program.Any( contractProgram => (param.ProgramId == contractProgram.ProgramId))) select people; The problem is that it filters the person to the criteria but not the Contracts or the Contract's Programs. It brings back all Contracts that each person has not just the ones that have an OrganizationId of x and the same goes for each of those Contract's Programs respectively. What I want is only the people that have at least one contract with an OrgId of x with and where that contract has a Program with the Id of y... and for the object graph that is returned to have only the contracts that match and programs within that contract that match. I kinda understand why its not working, but I don't know how to change it so it is working... This is my attempt thus far: from people in ctx.People.Include("PersonAddress") .Include("PersonLandline") .Include("PersonMobile") .Include("PersonEmail") .Include("Contract") .Include("Contract.Program") let currentContracts = from contract in people.Contract where (param.OrganizationId == contract.OrganizationId) select contract let currentContractPrograms = from contractProgram in currentContracts let temp = from x in contractProgram.Program where (param.ProgramId == contractProgram.ProgramId) select x where temp.Any() select temp where currentContracts.Any() && currentContractPrograms.Any() select new Person { PersonId = people.PersonId, FirstName = people.FirstName, ..., ...., MiddleName = people.MiddleName, Surname = people.Surname, ..., ...., Gender = people.Gender, DateOfBirth = people.DateOfBirth, ..., ...., Contract = currentContracts, ... }; //This doesn't work But this has several problems (where the Person type is an EF object): I am left to do the mapping by myself, which in this case there is quite a lot to map When ever I try to map a list to a property (i.e. Scholarship = currentScholarships) it says I can't because IEnumerable is trying to be cast to EntityCollection Include doesn't work Hence how do I get this to work. Keeping in mind that I am trying to do this as a compiled query so I think that means anonymous types are out.

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  • Understanding CLR 2.0 Memory Model

    - by Eloff
    Joe Duffy, gives 6 rules that describe the CLR 2.0+ memory model (it's actual implementation, not any ECMA standard) I'm writing down my attempt at figuring this out, mostly as a way of rubber ducking, but if I make a mistake in my logic, at least someone here will be able to catch it before it causes me grief. Rule 1: Data dependence among loads and stores is never violated. Rule 2: All stores have release semantics, i.e. no load or store may move after one. Rule 3: All volatile loads are acquire, i.e. no load or store may move before one. Rule 4: No loads and stores may ever cross a full-barrier (e.g. Thread.MemoryBarrier, lock acquire, Interlocked.Exchange, Interlocked.CompareExchange, etc.). Rule 5: Loads and stores to the heap may never be introduced. Rule 6: Loads and stores may only be deleted when coalescing adjacent loads and stores from/to the same location. I'm attempting to understand these rules. x = y y = 0 // Cannot move before the previous line according to Rule 1. x = y z = 0 // equates to this sequence of loads and stores before possible re-ordering load y store x load 0 store z Looking at this, it appears that the load 0 can be moved up to before load y, but the stores may not be re-ordered at all. Therefore, if a thread sees z == 0, then it also will see x == y. If y was volatile, then load 0 could not move before load y, otherwise it may. Volatile stores don't seem to have any special properties, no stores can be re-ordered with respect to each other (which is a very strong guarantee!) Full barriers are like a line in the sand which loads and stores can not be moved over. No idea what rule 5 means. I guess rule 6 means if you do: x = y x = z Then it is possible for the CLR to delete both the load to y and the first store to x. x = y z = y // equates to this sequence of loads and stores before possible re-ordering load y store x load y store z // could be re-ordered like this load y load y store x store z // rule 6 applied means this is possible? load y store x // but don't pop y from stack (or first duplicate item on top of stack) store z What if y was volatile? I don't see anything in the rules that prohibits the above optimization from being carried out. This does not violate double-checked locking, because the lock() between the two identical conditions prevents the loads from being moved into adjacent positions, and according to rule 6, that's the only time they can be eliminated. So I think I understand all but rule 5, here. Anyone want to enlighten me (or correct me or add something to any of the above?)

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  • Android - Start service on boot

    - by Gady
    From everything I've seen on Stack Exchange and elsewhere, I have everything set up correctly to start an IntentService when Android OS boots. Unfortunately it is not starting on boot, and I'm not getting any errors. Maybe the experts can help... Manifest: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <manifest xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" package="com.phx.batterylogger" android:versionCode="1" android:versionName="1.0" android:installLocation="internalOnly"> <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="8" /> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.RECEIVE_BOOT_COMPLETED" /> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.WRITE_EXTERNAL_STORAGE" /> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.BATTERY_STATS" /> <application android:icon="@drawable/icon" android:label="@string/app_name"> <service android:name=".BatteryLogger"/> <receiver android:name=".StartupIntentReceiver"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.BOOT_COMPLETED" /> </intent-filter> </receiver> </application> </manifest> BroadcastReceiver for Startup: package com.phx.batterylogger; import android.content.BroadcastReceiver; import android.content.Context; import android.content.Intent; public class StartupIntentReceiver extends BroadcastReceiver { @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { Intent serviceIntent = new Intent(context, BatteryLogger.class); context.startService(serviceIntent); } } UPDATE: I tried just about all of the suggestions below, and I added logging such as Log.v("BatteryLogger", "Got to onReceive, about to start service"); to the onReceive handler of the StartupIntentReceiver, and nothing is ever logged. So it isn't even making it to the BroadcastReceiver. I think I'm deploying the APK and testing correctly, just running Debug in Eclipse and the console says it successfully installs it to my Xoom tablet at \BatteryLogger\bin\BatteryLogger.apk. Then to test, I reboot the tablet and then look at the logs in DDMS and check the Running Services in the OS settings. Does this all sound correct, or am I missing something? Again, any help is much appreciated.

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  • Problem accessing updated variables within OnTouch

    - by Jay Smith
    I have an OnTouch and a setOnTouchListener that updates varibles which contain screen coord info. The problem is it doesnt seem to ever update them. On line 78, RGB.setText(test); it never changes from 0.0. If i were to move that line and the line above it into the onTouch it updates. any idea what is wrong? Thank you. package com.evankimia.huskybus; import com.test.huskybus.R; import android.app.Activity; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.MotionEvent; import android.view.View; import android.view.View.OnTouchListener; import android.widget.TextView; public class HuskyBus extends Activity { TextView RGB; private CampusMap mCampusMap; private float startX = 0; //track x from one ACTION_MOVE to the next private float startY = 0; //track y from one ACTION_MOVE to the next float scrollByX = 0; //x amount to scroll by float scrollByY = 0; //y amount to scroll by /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); RGB = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.coordBox); mCampusMap = (CampusMap) findViewById(R.id.map); mCampusMap.setOnTouchListener(new OnTouchListener() { @Override public boolean onTouch(View v, MotionEvent event) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub switch (event.getAction()) { case MotionEvent.ACTION_DOWN: // Remember our initial down event location. startX = event.getRawX(); startY = event.getRawY(); break; case MotionEvent.ACTION_MOVE: float x = event.getRawX(); float y = event.getRawY(); // Calculate move update. This will happen many times // during the course of a single movement gesture. scrollByX = x - startX; //move update x increment scrollByY = y - startY; //move update y increment startX = x; //reset initial values to latest startY = y; mCampusMap.invalidate(); break; }//end switch return false; } ; }); //end onDraw? String test = "" + scrollByX; RGB.setText(test); } }

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  • Is this scatter-brained workflow realizable in Git?

    - by Luke Maurer
    This is what I'd like my workflow to look like at a conceptual level: I hack on my new feature for a while I notice a typo in a comment I change it Since the typo is completely unrelated to anything else, I put that change in a pile of comment fixes I keep working on the code I realize I need to flesh out a few utility functions I do so I put that change in its own pile Steps 2, 3, and 4 each repeat throughout the day I finish the new feature and put the changes for that feature in a pile I push nice patches upstream: One with the new feature, a few for the other tweaks, and one with a bunch of comment fixes if enough have accumulated Since I'm both lazy and a perfectionist, I want to be able to do some things out of order: I might correct a typo but forget to put it in the comment fix pile; when I prepare the upstream patches (I'm using git-svn, so I need to be pretty deliberate about these), I'll then pull out the comment fixes at that point. I might forget to separate things altogether until the very end. But I might /also/ have committed some of the piles along the way (sorry, the metaphor is breaking down …). This is all rather like just using Eclipse changesets with SVN, only I can have different changes to the same file in different piles (having to disentangle changes into different commits is what motivated me to move to git-svn, in fact …), and with Git I can have my full discombobulated change history, experimental branches and all, but still make a nice, neat patch. I've just recently started with Git after having wanted to for a good while, and I'm quite happy so far. The biggest way in which the above workflow doesn't really map into Git, though, is that a “bin” can't really be just a local branch, since the working tree only ever reflects the state of a single branch. Or maybe the Git index is a “pile,” and what I want is to have more than one somehow (effectively). I can think of a few ways to approximate what I want (maybe creative use of stash? Intricate stash-checkout-merge dances?), but my grasp on Git isn't solid enough to be sure of how best to put all the pieces together. It's said that Git is more a toolkit than a VCS, so I guess the question comes down to: How do I build this thing with these tools?

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  • Bullet indents in PowerPoint 2007 compatibility mode via .NET interop issue

    - by L. Shaydariv
    Hello. I've got a really difficult bug and I can't see the fix. The subject drives me insane for real for a long time. Let's consider the following scenario: 1) There is a PowerPoint 2003 presentation. It contains the only slide and the only shape, but the shape contains a text frame including a bulleted list with a random textual representation structure. 2) There is a requirement to get bullet indents for every bulletted paragraph using PowerPoint 2007. I can satisfy the requirement opening the presentation in the compatibility mode and applying the following VBA script: With ActivePresentation Dim sl As Slide: Set sl = .Slides(1) Dim sh As Shape: Set sh = sl.Shapes(1) Dim i As Integer For i = 1 To sh.TextFrame.TextRange.Paragraphs.Count Dim para As TextRange: Set para = sh.TextFrame.TextRange.Paragraphs(i, 1) Debug.Print para.Text; para.indentLevel, sh.TextFrame.Ruler.Levels(para.indentLevel).FirstMargin Next i End With that produces the following output: A 1 0 B 1 0 C 2 24 D 3 60 E 5 132 Obviously, everything is perfect indeed: it has shown the proper list item text, list item level and its bullet indent. But I can't see the way of how I can reach the same result using C#. Let's add a COM-reference to Microsoft.Office.Interop.PowerPoint 2.9.0.0 (taken from MSPPT.OLB, MS Office 12): // presentation = ...("presentation.ppt")... // a PowerPoint 2003 presentation Slide slide = presentation.Slides[1]; Shape shape = slide.Shapes[1]; for (int i = 1; i<=shape.TextFrame.TextRange.Paragraphs(-1, -1).Count; i++) { TextRange paragraph = shape.TextFrame.TextRange.Paragraphs(i, 1); Console.WriteLine("{0} {1} {2}", paragraph.Text, paragraph.IndentLevel, shape.TextFrame.Ruler.Levels[paragraph.IndentLevel].FirstMargin); } Oh, man... What's it? I've got problems here. First, the paragraph.Text value is trimmed until the '\r' character is found (however paragraph.Text[0] really returns the first character O_o). But it's ok, I can shut my eyes to this. But... But, second, I can't understand why the first margins are always zero and it does not matter which level they belong to. They are always zero in the compatibility mode... It's hard to believe it... :) So is there any way to fix it or just to find a workaround? I'd like to accept any help regarding to the solution of the subject. I can't even find any article related to the issue. :( Probably you have ever been face to face with it... Or is it just a bug with no fix and must it be reported to Microsoft? Thanks you.

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  • ELMAH - Using custom error pages to collecting user feedback

    - by vdh_ant
    Hey guys I'm looking at using ELMAH for the first time but have a requirement that needs to be met that I'm not sure how to go about achieving... Basically, I am going to configure ELMAH to work under asp.net MVC and get it to log errors to the database when they occur. On top of this I be using customErrors to direct the user to a friendly message page when an error occurs. Fairly standard stuff... The requirement is that on this custom error page I have a form which enables to user to provide extra information if they wish. Now the problem arises due to the fact that at this point the error is already logged and I need to associate the loged error with the users feedback. Normally, if I was using my own custom implementation, after I log the error I would pass through the ID of the error to the custom error page so that an association can be made. But because of the way that ELMAH works, I don't think the same is quite possible. Hence I was wondering how people thought that one might go about doing this.... Cheers UPDATE: My solution to the problem is as follows: public class UserCurrentConextUsingWebContext : IUserCurrentConext { private const string _StoredExceptionName = "System.StoredException."; private const string _StoredExceptionIdName = "System.StoredExceptionId."; public virtual string UniqueAddress { get { return HttpContext.Current.Request.UserHostAddress; } } public Exception StoredException { get { return HttpContext.Current.Application[_StoredExceptionName + this.UniqueAddress] as Exception; } set { HttpContext.Current.Application[_StoredExceptionName + this.UniqueAddress] = value; } } public string StoredExceptionId { get { return HttpContext.Current.Application[_StoredExceptionIdName + this.UniqueAddress] as string; } set { HttpContext.Current.Application[_StoredExceptionIdName + this.UniqueAddress] = value; } } } Then when the error occurs, I have something like this in my Global.asax: public void ErrorLog_Logged(object sender, ErrorLoggedEventArgs args) { var item = new UserCurrentConextUsingWebContext(); item.StoredException = args.Entry.Error.Exception; item.StoredExceptionId = args.Entry.Id; } Then where ever you are later you can pull out the details by var item = new UserCurrentConextUsingWebContext(); var error = item.StoredException; var errorId = item.StoredExceptionId; item.StoredException = null; item.StoredExceptionId = null; Note this isn't 100% perfect as its possible for the same IP to have multiple requests to have errors at the same time. But the likely hood of that happening is remote. And this solution is independent of the session, which in our case is important, also some errors can cause sessions to be terminated, etc. Hence why this approach has worked nicely for us.

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  • IDs necessary in update script not being stored (or even seen!?) (PHP MySQL)

    - by Derek
    Hi guys, I really need help with this one...have spent 3 hours trying to figure it out... Basically, I have 3 tables necessary for this function to work (the query and PHP)... Authors, Books and Users. An author can have many books, and a user can have many books - that's it. When the admin user selects to update a book, they are presented with a form, displaying the current data within the fields, very straight forward... However there is one tricky part, the admin user can change the author for a book (incase they make a mistake) and also change the user for which the book is associated with. When I select to update the single book information I am not getting any values what so ever for author_id or user_id. Meaning that when the user updates the book info, the associations with the user and author is being scrapped altogether (when before there was an association)... I cannot see why this is happening because I can clearly see the IDs for the users and authors for my option values (this is because they are in select dropdowns). Here is what my sql to retrieve the user ID is: SELECT user_id, name FROM users and then i have my select options which brings up all the users in the system: <label>This book belongs to:</label> <select name="name" id="name"> <option value="<?php echo $row['user_id']?>" SELECTED><?php echo $row['name']?> - Current</option> <?php while($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { ?> <option value="<?php echo $row['user_id']; if (isset($_POST['user_id']));?>"><?php echo $row['name']?></option> <?php } ?> In the presented HTML form, I can select the users (by name) and within the source code I can see the IDs (for the value) matching against the names of the users. Finally, in my script that performs the update, I have this: $book_id = $_POST['book_id']; $bookname = $_POST['bookname']; $booklevel = $_POST['booklevel']; $author_id = $_POST['author_id']; $user_id = $_POST['user_id']; $sql = "UPDATE books SET bookname= '".$bookname."', booklevel= '".$booklevel."', author_id='".$author_id."', user_id= '".$user_id."' WHERE book_id = ".$book_id; The result of this query returns no value for either author_id or user_id... Obviously in this question I have given the information for the user stuff (with the HTML being displayed) but im guessing that I have the same problem with authors aswell... How can I get these ID's passed to the script so that the change can be acknowledge!! :(

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  • Do Websites need Local Databases Anymore?

    - by viatropos
    If there's a better place to ask this, please let me know. Every time I build a new website/blog/shopping-cart/etc., I keep trying to do the following: Extract out common functionality into reusable code (Rubygems and jQuery plugins mostly) If possible, convert that gem into a small service so I never have to deal with a database for the objects involved (by service, I mean something lean and mean, usually built with the Sinatra Web Framework with a few core models). My assumption is, if I can remove dependencies on local databases, that will make it easier and more scalable in the long run (scalable in terms of reusability and manageability, not necessarily database/performance). I'm not sure if that's a good or bad assumption yet. What do you think? I've made this assumption because of the following reason: Most serious database/model functionality has been built on the internet somewhere. Just to name a few: Social Network API: Facebook Messaging API: Twitter Mailing API: Google Event API: Eventbrite Shopping API: Shopify Comment API: Disqus Form API: Wufoo Image API: Picasa Video API: Youtube ... Each of those things are fairly complicated to build from scratch and to make as optimized, simple, and easy to use as those companies have made them. So if I build an app that shows pictures (picasa) on an Event page (eventbrite), and you can see who joined the event (facebook events), and send them emails (google apps api), and have them fill out monthly surveys (wufoo), and watch a video when they're done (youtube), all integrated into a custom, easy to use website, and I can do that without ever creating a local database, is that a good thing? I ask because there's two things missing from the puzzle that keep forcing me to create that local database: Post API RESTful/Pretty Url API While there's plenty of Blogging systems and APIs for them, there is no one place where you can just write content and have it part of some massive thing. For every app, I have to use code for creating pretty/restful urls, and that saves posts. But it seems like that should be a service! Question is, is that what the website is? ...That place to integrate the worlds services for my specific cause... and, sigh, to store posts that only my site has access to. Will everyone always need "their own blog"? Why not just have a profile and write lots of content on an established platform like StackOverflow or Facebook? ... That way I can write apps entirely without a database and know that I'm doing it right. Note: Of course at some point you'd need a database, if you were doing something unique or new. But for the case where you're just rewiring information or creating things like videos, events, and products, is it really necessary anymore??

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