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  • Overwrite values when using gridview Edit?

    - by sah302
    I am using a GridView which is bound to a LinqDataSource and using the automatic edit and delete buttons. However, I don't want the user to edit two of the columns manually, but done automatically. Specifically username who last updated the entry, and the date it was updated. The gridview only contains 3 columns: Name, Date modified, last updated by. Right now when the user clicks the edit button they can only edit the name column (other two set to read-only). Upon clicking the update button, I want the other 2 fields to update as well based on some extra code. I thought this was done in the code behind within the event rowUpdating, but it doesn't seem to work. My gridview: <asp:GridView ID="gvNewsSources" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="False" DataSourceID="ldsNewsSource" AutoGenerateDeleteButton="True" AutoGenerateEditButton="True" CellPadding="4" ForeColor="#333333" GridLines="None" DataKeyNames="Id"> <RowStyle BackColor="#F7F6F3" ForeColor="#333333" /> <Columns> <asp:BoundField DataField="Name" HeaderText="Name" SortExpression="Name" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="LastUpdatedBy" HeaderText="Last Updated By" SortExpression="LastUpdatedBy" ReadOnly="True" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="DatedModified" HeaderText="Dated Modified" SortExpression="DatedModified" ReadOnly="True" /> </Columns> <FooterStyle BackColor="#5D7B9D" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="White" /> <PagerStyle BackColor="#284775" ForeColor="White" HorizontalAlign="Center" /> <SelectedRowStyle BackColor="#E2DED6" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="#333333" /> <HeaderStyle BackColor="#5D7B9D" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="White" /> <EditRowStyle BackColor="#999999" /> <AlternatingRowStyle BackColor="White" ForeColor="#284775" /> </asp:GridView> My code behind: Partial Class _Default Inherits System.Web.UI.Page Protected Sub gvNewsSources_RowUpdating(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridViewUpdateEventArgs) Handles gvNewsSources.RowUpdating e.NewValues("LastUpdatedBy") = GetUser.GetUserName e.NewValues("DateModified") = Date.Now() lblOutput.Text = e.NewValues("DateModified").ToString() End Sub End Class Yet when I run through this, I get no errors, but the values aren't being updated in the database or in the gridview. I ran through debug mode and the new values dictionary starts at 1 and ends up being 3 by the end of the rowUpdating event and the value is being set (tested by output the newValue of Datemodified), but it isn't saving. What am I doing wrong?

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  • Cannot figure out how to take in generic parameters for an Enterprise Framework library sql statemen

    - by KallDrexx
    I have written a specialized class to wrap up the enterprise library database functionality for easier usage. The reasoning for using the Enterprise Library is because my applications commonly connect to both oracle and sql server database systems. My wrapper handles both creating connection strings on the fly, connecting, and executing queries allowing my main code to only have to write a few lines of code to do database stuff and deal with error handling. As an example my ExecuteNonQuery method has the following declaration: /// <summary> /// Executes a query that returns no results (e.g. insert or update statements) /// </summary> /// <param name="sqlQuery"></param> /// <param name="parameters">Hashtable containing all the parameters for the query</param> /// <returns>The total number of records modified, -1 if an error occurred </returns> public int ExecuteNonQuery(string sqlQuery, Hashtable parameters) { // Make sure we are connected to the database if (!IsConnected) { ErrorHandler("Attempted to run a query without being connected to a database.", ErrorSeverity.Critical); return -1; } // Form the command DbCommand dbCommand = _database.GetSqlStringCommand(sqlQuery); // Add all the paramters foreach (string key in parameters.Keys) { if (parameters[key] == null) _database.AddInParameter(dbCommand, key, DbType.Object, null); else _database.AddInParameter(dbCommand, key, DbType.Object, parameters[key].ToString()); } return _database.ExecuteNonQuery(dbCommand); } _database is defined as private Database _database;. Hashtable parameters are created via code similar to p.Add("@param", value);. the issue I am having is that it seems that with enterprise library database framework you must declare the dbType of each parameter. This isn't an issue when you are calling the database code directly when forming the paramters but doesn't work for creating a generic abstraction class such as I have. In order to try and get around that I thought I could just use DbType.Object and figure the DB will figure it out based on the columns the sql is working with. Unfortunately, this is not the case as I get the following error: Implicit conversion from data type sql_variant to varchar is not allowed. Use the CONVERT function to run this query Is there any way to use generic parameters in a wrapper class or am I just going to have to move all my DB code into my main classes?

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  • Good style for handling constructor failure of critical object

    - by mtlphil
    I'm trying to decide between two ways of instantiating an object & handling any constructor exceptions for an object that is critical to my program, i.e. if construction fails the program can't continue. I have a class SimpleMIDIOut that wraps basic Win32 MIDI functions. It will open a MIDI device in the constructor and close it in the destructor. It will throw an exception inherited from std::exception in the constructor if the MIDI device cannot be opened. Which of the following ways of catching constructor exceptions for this object would be more in line with C++ best practices Method 1 - Stack allocated object, only in scope inside try block #include <iostream> #include "simplemidiout.h" int main() { try { SimpleMIDIOut myOut; //constructor will throw if MIDI device cannot be opened myOut.PlayNote(60,100); //..... //myOut goes out of scope outside this block //so basically the whole program has to be inside //this block. //On the plus side, it's on the stack so //destructor that handles object cleanup //is called automatically, more inline with RAII idiom? } catch(const std::exception& e) { std::cout << e.what() << std::endl; std::cin.ignore(); return 1; } std::cin.ignore(); return 0; } Method 2 - Pointer to object, heap allocated, nicer structured code? #include <iostream> #include "simplemidiout.h" int main() { SimpleMIDIOut *myOut; try { myOut = new SimpleMIDIOut(); } catch(const std::exception& e) { std::cout << e.what() << std::endl; delete myOut; return 1; } myOut->PlayNote(60,100); std::cin.ignore(); delete myOut; return 0; } I like the look of the code in Method 2 better, don't have to jam my whole program into a try block, but Method 1 creates the object on the stack so C++ manages the object's life time, which is more in tune with RAII philosophy isn't it? I'm still a novice at this so any feedback on the above is much appreciated. If there's an even better way to check for/handle constructor failure in a siatuation like this please let me know.

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  • MVC pattern implementation. What is the n-relation between its components

    - by Srodriguez
    Dear all, I'm working in a C# project and we are , in order to get some unity across the different parts of our UI, trying to use the MVC pattern. The client is windows form based and I'm trying to create a simple MVC pattern implementation. It's been more challenging than expected, but I still have some questions regarding the MVC pattern. The problem comes mostly from the n-n relationships between its components: Here is what I've understood, but I'm not sure at all of it. Maybe someone can correct me? Model: can be shared among different Views. 1-n relationship between Model-View View: shows the state of the model. only one controller (can be shared among different views?). 1-1 relationship with the Model, 1-1 relationship with the controller Controller: handles the user actions on the view and updates the model. One controller can be shared among different views, a controller interacts only with one model? I'm not sure about the two last ones: Can a view have several controller? Or can a view share a controller with another view? Or is it only a 1:1 relationship? Can a controller handle several views? can it interact with several models? Also, I take advantage of this question to ask another MVC related question. I've suppressed all the synchronous calls between the different members of the MVC, making use of the events and delegates. One last call is still synchronous and is actually the most important one: The call between the view and the controller is still synchronous, as I need to know rather the controller has been able to handle the user's action or not. This is very bad as it means that I could block the UI thread (hence the client itself) while the controller is processing or doing some work. How can I avoid this? I can make use of the callback but then how do i know to which event the callback comes from? PS: I can't change the pattern at this stage, so please avoid answers of type "use MVP or MVVC, etc ;) Thanks!

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  • MVC pattern implementation. What is the n-relation between its components

    - by Srodriguez
    Dear all, I'm working in a C# project and we are , in order to get some unity across the different parts of our UI, trying to use the MVC pattern. The client is windows form based and I'm trying to create a simple MVC pattern implementation. It's been more challenging than expected, but I still have some questions regarding the MVC pattern. The problem comes mostly from the n-n relationships between its components: Here is what I've understood, but I'm not sure at all of it. Maybe someone can correct me? Model: can be shared among different Views. 1-n relationship between Model-View View: shows the state of the model. only one controller (can be shared among different views?). 1-1 relationship with the Model, 1-1 relationship with the controller Controller: handles the user actions on the view and updates the model. One controller can be shared among different views, a controller interacts only with one model? I'm not sure about the two last ones: Can a view have several controller? Or can a view share a controller with another view? Or is it only a 1:1 relationship? Can a controller handle several views? can it interact with several models? Also, I take advantage of this question to ask another MVC related question. I've suppressed all the synchronous calls between the different members of the MVC, making use of the events and delegates. One last call is still synchronous and is actually the most important one: The call between the view and the controller is still synchronous, as I need to know rather the controller has been able to handle the user's action or not. This is very bad as it means that I could block the UI thread (hence the client itself) while the controller is processing or doing some work. How can I avoid this? I can make use of the callback but then how do i know to which event the callback comes from? PS: I can't change the pattern at this stage, so please avoid answers of type "use MVP or MVVC, etc ;) Thanks!

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  • flickr.photos.search strange behavior with nested xml response

    - by JohnIdol
    I am querying flickr with the following request: view-source:http://www.flickr.com/services/rest/?method=flickr.photos.search&api_key=MY_KEY&text=cork&per_page=12&&format=rest if I put the above url in the browser I get the following as I would expect: <rsp stat="ok"> <photos page="1" pages="22661" perpage="12" total="271924"> <photo id="4587565363" owner="46277999@N05" secret="717118838d" server="4029" farm="5" title="06052010(001)" ispublic="1" isfriend="0" isfamily="0" /> <photo id="4587466773" owner="25901874@N06" secret="32c5a1a57f" server="4002" farm="5" title="black wine cork 2 BW" ispublic="1" isfriend="0" isfamily="0" /> <photo id="4588084730" owner="25901874@N06" secret="b27eef5635" server="4032" farm="5" title="black wine cork 2" ispublic="1" isfriend="0" isfamily="0" /> <photo id="4587457789" owner="43115275@N00" secret="ae0daa0ab6" server="4034" farm="5" title="Matthew" ispublic="1" isfriend="0" isfamily="0" /> <photo id="4587443837" owner="49967920@N07" secret="2b4c1a58de" server="4066" farm="5" title="Two car garage" ispublic="1" isfriend="0" isfamily="0" /> <photo id="4588050906" owner="45827769@N06" secret="72de138f7e" server="4067" farm="5" title="Dabie Mountains, Central China" ispublic="1" isfriend="0" isfamily="0" /> <photo id="4587979300" owner="36531359@N00" secret="e5f8b30734" server="3299" farm="4" title="stroll" ispublic="1" isfriend="0" isfamily="0" /> <photo id="4587304769" owner="7904649@N02" secret="995062f550" server="4034" farm="5" title="IMG_4325" ispublic="1" isfriend="0" isfamily="0" /> <photo id="4587306827" owner="7904649@N02" secret="b92d7ff916" server="4050" farm="5" title="IMG_4329" ispublic="1" isfriend="0" isfamily="0" /> <photo id="4587311657" owner="7904649@N02" secret="bb1b34ccf8" server="4053" farm="5" title="IMG_4336" ispublic="1" isfriend="0" isfamily="0" /> <photo id="4587933110" owner="7904649@N02" secret="f733b1d482" server="3300" farm="4" title="IMG_4334" ispublic="1" isfriend="0" isfamily="0" /> <photo id="4587930650" owner="7904649@N02" secret="9bc202b3ed" server="4018" farm="5" title="IMG_4331" ispublic="1" isfriend="0" isfamily="0" /> </photos> </rsp> Now I've got something very simple PHP to query the exact same url, called from javascript through AJAX - it all works as I can see putting a breakpoint in my javascript function that handles the response: function HandleResponse(response) { document.getElementById('ResponseDiv').innerHTML = response; } Looking at response value in the snippet above I see what I expect (xml formed as above) - then the strangest thing happens: when I inspect the DOM instead of having photo elements all as children of photos they're all nested within each other. What amI missing - How is this possible in light of the fact that the response string is definitely formed as I would expect it to be?

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  • Need help converting Ruby code to php code

    - by newprog
    Yesterday I posted this queston. Today I found the code which I need but written in Ruby. Some parts of code I have understood (I don't know Ruby) but there is one part that I can't. I think people who know ruby and php can help me understand this code. def do_create(image) # Clear any old info in case of a re-submit FIELDS_TO_CLEAR.each { |field| image.send(field+'=', nil) } image.save # Compose request vm_params = Hash.new # Submitting a file in ruby requires opening it and then reading the contents into the post body file = File.open(image.filename_in, "rb") # Populate the parameters and compute the signature # Normally you would do this in a subroutine - for maximum clarity all # parameters are explicitly spelled out here. vm_params["image"] = file # Contents will be read by the multipart object created below vm_params["image_checksum"] = image.image_checksum vm_params["start_job"] = 'vectorize' vm_params["image_type"] = image.image_type if image.image_type != 'none' vm_params["image_complexity"] = image.image_complexity if image.image_complexity != 'none' vm_params["image_num_colors"] = image.image_num_colors if image.image_num_colors != '' vm_params["image_colors"] = image.image_colors if image.image_colors != '' vm_params["expire_at"] = image.expire_at if image.expire_at != '' vm_params["licensee_id"] = DEVELOPER_ID #in php it's like this $vm_params["sequence_number"] = -rand(100000000);????? vm_params["sequence_number"] = Kernel.rand(1000000000) # Use a negative value to force an error when calling the test server vm_params["timestamp"] = Time.new.utc.httpdate string_to_sign = CREATE_URL + # Start out with the URL being called... #vm_params["image"].to_s + # ... don't include the file per se - use the checksum instead vm_params["image_checksum"].to_s + # ... then include all regular parameters vm_params["start_job"].to_s + vm_params["image_type"].to_s + vm_params["image_complexity"].to_s + # (nil.to_s => '', so this is fine for vm_params we don't use) vm_params["image_num_colors"].to_s + vm_params["image_colors"].to_s + vm_params["expire_at"].to_s + vm_params["licensee_id"].to_s + # ... then do all the security parameters vm_params["sequence_number"].to_s + vm_params["timestamp"].to_s vm_params["signature"] = sign(string_to_sign) #no problem # Workaround class for handling multipart posts mp = Multipart::MultipartPost.new query, headers = mp.prepare_query(vm_params) # Handles the file parameter in a special way (see /lib/multipart.rb) file.close # mp has read the contents, we can close the file now response = post_form(URI.parse(CREATE_URL), query, headers) logger.info(response.body) response_hash = ActiveSupport::JSON.decode(response.body) # Decode the JSON response string ##I have understood below def sign(string_to_sign) #logger.info("String to sign: '#{string_to_sign}'") Base64.encode64(HMAC::SHA1.digest(DEVELOPER_KEY, string_to_sign)) end # Within Multipart modul I have this: class MultipartPost BOUNDARY = 'tarsiers-rule0000' HEADER = {"Content-type" => "multipart/form-data, boundary=" + BOUNDARY + " "} def prepare_query (params) fp = [] params.each {|k,v| if v.respond_to?(:read) fp.push(FileParam.new(k, v.path, v.read)) else fp.push(Param.new(k,v)) end } query = fp.collect {|p| "--" + BOUNDARY + "\r\n" + p.to_multipart }.join("") + "--" + BOUNDARY + "--" return query, HEADER end end end Thanks for your help.

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  • What would you suggest as a high school first language?

    - by ldigas
    Edit by OA: After reading some answers I'll just update the question a little. At first I put it a little bluntly, but some of those gave me some good arguments which have to be taken into consideration while making a stand on this one. (these are mostly picked up from comments and answers below). A few things to take into account: to many pupils this is a first programming language - at this stage most of them have trouble grasping a difference between data types, variable passing, ... and whatnot, less alone pointers and similar 'low level stuff' :) they will all have to pass this to get into next grade (well, big majority of them anyway) not all of them have computers at home, not all of them are willing to learn this, less alone interested in - so the concepts have to be taught on a finite time scale in school hours (as well as practice on computers) free literature is a bonus - the teacher will make some scripts and handaways, but still ... I wouldn't like to bear the parents with the burden of buying expensive literature (also, english is not a native language here ... and although they are all learning it, their ability to read it fluently is somewhat questionable) somebody gave an argument - "a language which does not get in the way of ideas" - good one accessibility on different platforms in not expecially important at this point - although most of the suggested ones are available on win as well as linux - not many macs in this part of europe (their prices are sky high for anything but specialised usage) I will check what are the licencing issues on ms express editions about using it massively in high schools for purposes like this - if someone has any info about this, please, do not be shy with it :) A friend of mine, informatics teacher - in EU it comes as something as junior cs teacher, in a local high school asked me what I thought about what should be the first language pupils should be taught? It is a technical school (a little more oriented towards mathematics than the gymnasium, but not computer oriented totally). So I'm asking you - what do you think should be the first language pupils are exposed to in highschool? They have been teaching Pascal so far, but she's not sure that's a good course. She thought about switching to C (which I resented; considering not all pupils have interests in programming, to start with, and should be taught something higher level since they are just gripping the idea of a loop and such ... for a start), I suggested python or ruby (preferably py since it handles all paradigms). What is your opinion on this one? I looked, but didn't find a similar question on SO, so if there is one, please just point me towards it. Edit: The assumption is that none of the pupils have been exposed to any programming in junior school. See also: What is the best way to teach young kids some basic programming concepts? Best ways to teach a beginner to program How and when do you teach a kid to code What is the easiest language to start with? High School Programming

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  • Best way to test for a variable's existence in PHP; isset() is clearly broken

    - by chazomaticus
    From the isset() docs: isset() will return FALSE if testing a variable that has been set to NULL. Basically, isset() doesn't check for whether the variable is set at all, but whether it's set to anything but NULL. Given that, what's the best way to actually check for the existence of a variable? I tried something like: if(isset($v) || @is_null($v)) (the @ is necessary to avoid the warning when $v is not set) but is_null() has a similar problem to isset(): it returns TRUE on unset variables! It also appears that: @($v === NULL) works exactly like @is_null($v), so that's out, too. How are we supposed to reliably check for the existence of a variable in PHP? Edit: there is clearly a difference in PHP between variables that are not set, and variables that are set to NULL: <?php $a = array('b' => NULL); var_dump($a); PHP shows that $a['b'] exists, and has a NULL value. If you add: var_dump(isset($a['b'])); var_dump(isset($a['c'])); you can see the ambiguity I'm talking about with the isset() function. Here's the output of all three of these var_dump()s: array(1) { ["b"]=> NULL } bool(false) bool(false) Further edit: two things. One, a use case. An array being turned into the data of an SQL UPDATE statement, where the array's keys are the table's columns, and the array's values are the values to be applied to each column. Any of the table's columns can hold a NULL value, signified by passing a NULL value in the array. You need a way to differentiate between an array key not existing, and an array's value being set to NULL; that's the difference between not updating the column's value and updating the column's value to NULL. Second, Zoredache's answer, array_key_exists() works correctly, for my above use case and for any global variables: <?php $a = NULL; var_dump(array_key_exists('a', $GLOBALS)); var_dump(array_key_exists('b', $GLOBALS)); outputs: bool(true) bool(false) Since that properly handles just about everywhere I can see there being any ambiguity between variables that don't exist and variables that are set to NULL, I'm calling array_key_exists() the official easiest way in PHP to truly check for the existence of a variable. (Only other case I can think of is for class properties, for which there's property_exists(), which, according to its docs, works similarly to array_key_exists() in that it properly distinguishes between not being set and being set to NULL.)

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  • Why does my Spring Controller direct me to the wrong page?

    - by kc2001
    I am writing my first Spring 3.0.5 MVC app and am confused about why my controller mappings aren't doing what I expect. I have a VerifyPasswordController that is called after a user tries to log in by entering his name and password. // Called upon clicking "submit" from /login @RequestMapping(value = "/verifyPassword", method = RequestMethod.POST) @ModelAttribute("user") public String verifyPassword(User user, BindingResult result) { String email = user.getEmail(); String nextPage = CHOOSE_OPERATION_PAGE; // success case if (result.hasErrors()) { nextPage = LOGIN_PAGE; } else if (!passwordMatches(email, user.getPassword())) { nextPage = LOGIN_FAILURE_PAGE; } else { // success } return nextPage; } I can verify in the debugger that this method is being called, but afterwards, the verifyPassword page is displayed rather than the chooseOperation page. The console output of WebLogic seems to show that my mapping are correct: INFO : org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping - Mapped URL path [/chooseOperation] onto handler 'chooseOperationController' INFO : org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping - Mapped URL path [/chooseOperation.*] onto handler 'chooseOperationController' INFO : org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping - Mapped URL path [/chooseOperation/] onto handler 'chooseOperationController' Here is the ChooseOperationController: @Controller @SessionAttributes("leaveRequestForm") public class ChooseOperationController implements PageIfc, AttributeIfc { @RequestMapping(value = "/chooseOperation") @ModelAttribute("leaveRequestForm") public LeaveRequest setUpLeaveRequestForm( @RequestParam(NAME_ATTRIBUTE) String name) { LeaveRequest form = populateFormFromDatabase(name); return form; } // helper methods omited } I welcome any advice, particularly "generic" techniques for debugging such mapping problems. BTW, I've also tried to "redirect" to the desired page, but got the same result. servlet-context.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans:beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:beans="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:context="http://www.springframework.org/schema/context" xsi:schemaLocation=" http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc/spring-mvc-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/context http://www.springframework.org/schema/context/spring-context-3.0.xsd"> <!-- DispatcherServlet Context: defines this servlet's request-processing infrastructure --> <!-- Enables the Spring MVC @Controller programming model --> <annotation-driven /> <!-- Handles HTTP GET requests for /resources/** by efficiently serving up static resources in the ${webappRoot}/resources directory --> <resources mapping="/resources/**" location="/resources/" /> <!-- Resolves views selected for rendering by @Controllers to .jsp resources in the /WEB-INF/views directory --> <beans:bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver"> <beans:property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/views/" /> <beans:property name="suffix" value=".jsp" /> </beans:bean> <context:component-scan base-package="com.engilitycorp.leavetracker" /> <beans:bean id="leaveRequestForm" class="com.engilitycorp.leavetracker.model.LeaveRequest" /> </beans:beans> The constants: String LOGIN_FAILURE_PAGE = "loginFailure"; String LOGIN_PAGE = "login"; String CHOOSE_OPERATION_PAGE = "chooseOperation";

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  • Rails has-and-belongs-to-many form question

    - by swilliams
    Sorry for the semi-generic title, but I'm still pretty new at rails and couldn't think of a succinct way to put the question. I have a basic habtm model setup: a Project has many Resources and a Resource can have many Projects. I have the database and models setup properly, and can do everything I need to via the console, but I'm having trouble translating it all into the view. On the show view for the Project, I want to be able to create a Resource and automatically assign it to the current Project. Here's my basic html: <p> <b>Name:</b> <%=h @project.name %> </p> <h2>Equipment</h2> <ul> <% @project.resources.each do |r| %> <li><%=h r.name %></li> <% end %> </ul> <h2>Add A Resource</h2> <% form_for(@project) do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages %> <p> Resource Name:<br /> <%= f.text_field :resources %> </p> <p> <%= f.submit 'Create' %> </p> <% end %> Obviously, that form won't work, but I'm at a loss for what to do next. I've searched around for various examples, but haven't found one for what I'm trying to do here. One thing I've thought of was to change the form to be form_for(Resource.new) and include a hidden input of the @project.id. And then when the resource_controller handles the form, check for that id and go from there. That seems like an ugly kludge though.

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  • GCC problem with raw double type comparisons

    - by Monomer
    I have the following bit of code, however when compiling it with GCC 4.4 with various optimization flags I get some unexpected results when its run. #include <iostream> int main() { const unsigned int cnt = 10; double lst[cnt] = { 0.0 }; const double v[4] = { 131.313, 737.373, 979.797, 731.137 }; for(unsigned int i = 0; i < cnt; ++i) { lst[i] = v[i % 4] * i; } for(unsigned int i = 0; i < cnt; ++i) { double d = v[i % 4] * i; if(lst[i] != d) { std::cout << "error @ : " << i << std::endl; return 1; } } return 0; } when compiled with: "g++ -pedantic -Wall -Werror -O1 -o test test.cpp" I get the following output: "error @ : 3" when compiled with: "g++ -pedantic -Wall -Werror -O2 -o test test.cpp" I get the following output: "error @ : 3" when compiled with: "g++ -pedantic -Wall -Werror -O3 -o test test.cpp" I get no errors when compiled with: "g++ -pedantic -Wall -Werror -o test test.cpp" I get no errors I do not believe this to be an issue related to rounding, or epsilon difference in the comparison. I've tried this with Intel v10 and MSVC 9.0 and they all seem to work as expected. I believe this should be nothing more than a bitwise compare. If I replace the if-statement with the following: if (static_cast<long long int>(lst[i]) != static_cast<long long int>(d)), and add "-Wno-long-long" I get no errors in any of the optimization modes when run. If I add std::cout << d << std::endl; before the "return 1", I get no errors in any of the optimization modes when run. Is this a bug in my code, or is there something wrong with GCC and the way it handles the double type?

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  • .Net Remote Log Querying

    - by jlafay
    I have a Win Service that I'm working on that consists of the service, WF Service (using WorkflowServiceHost), a Workflow (WorkflowApplication) that queries/processes data from a SQL Server DB, and a Comm Marshall class that handles data flow between the service and the WF. The WF does a lot of heavy data processing and the original app (early VB6) logged all the processing and displayed the results on the screen of the host machine. Critical events will be committed to eventlog because I strongly believe that should be common practice because admins naturally will look there and because it already has support for remote viewing. The workflow will also need to write logging events as it processes and iterates according to our business logic. Such as: records queried, records returned, processed records, etc. The data is very critical and we need to log actions as they occur. The logs are currently kept as text files on disk and I think that is ok. Ideally I would like to record log events in XML so it's easier to query and because it is less costly than a DB, especially since our DB servers do a lot of heavy processing anyways. Since we are replacing essentially a VB6 application with a robust windows service (taking advantage of WF 4.0), it has been requested that a remote client also be created. It receives callbacks from the service after subscribing to it and being added to a collection of subscribers. Basic statistics and summaries are updated client side after receiving basic monitoring data of what is going on with the service. We would like to also provide a way to provide details when we need to examine what is going on further because this is a long running data processing service and issues need to be addressed immediately. What is the best way to implement some type of query from the client that is sent to the service and returned to the client? Would it be efficient to implement another method to expose on the service and then have that pass that off to some querying class/object to examine the XML files by whichever specification and then return it to the client? That's the main concern. I don't want the service to processing to bottleneck much while this occurs. It seems that WF already auto-magically threads well for the most part but I want to make sure this is the right way to go about it. Any suggestions/recommendations on how to architect and implement a small log querying framework for a remote service would be awesome.

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  • Need help helping in converting jquery, ajax, json and asp.net

    - by Haja Mohaideen
    I am tying out this tutorial, http://www.ezzylearning.com/tutorial.aspx?tid=5869127. It works perfectly. What I am now trying to do is to host the aspx contents as html file. This html file is hosted on my wampserver which is on my laptop. The asp.net code hosted on my test server. When I try to access, I get the following error, Resource interpreted as Script but transferred with MIME type text/html: "http://201.x.x.x/testAjax/Default.aspx/AddProductToCart?callback=jQuery17103264484549872577_1346923699990&{%20pID:%20%226765%22,%20qty:%20%22100%22,%20lblType:%20%2220%22%20}&_=1346923704482". jquery.min.js:4 Uncaught SyntaxError: Unexpected token < I am not sure how to solve this problem. index.html code $(function () { $('#btnAddToCart').click(function () { var result = $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "http://202.161.45.124/testAjax/Default.aspx/AddProductToCart", crossDomain: true, data: '{ pID: "6765", qty: "100", lblType: "20" }', contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "jsonp", success: succeeded, failure: function (msg) { alert(msg); }, error: function (xhr, err) { alert(err); } }); }); }); function succeeded(msg) { alert(msg.d); } function btnAddToCart_onclick() { } </script> </head> <body> <form name="form1" method="post"> <div> <input type="button" id="btnAddToCart" onclick="return btnAddToCart_onclick()" value="Button" /> </div> </form> aspx.vb Imports System.Web.Services Imports System.Web.Script.Services <ScriptService()> Public Class WebForm1 Inherits Page Protected Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load Session("test") = "" End Sub <WebMethod()> <ScriptMethod(UseHttpGet:=False, ResponseFormat:=ResponseFormat.Json)> Public Shared Function AddProductToCart(pID As String, qty As String, lblType As String) As String Dim selectedProduct As String = String.Format("+ {0} - {1} - {2}", pID, qty, lblType) HttpContext.Current.Session("test") += selectedProduct Return HttpContext.Current.Session("test").ToString() End Function End Class

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  • C strange array behaviour

    - by LukeN
    After learning that both strncmp is not what it seems to be and strlcpy not being available on my operating system (Linux), I figured I could try and write it myself. I found a quote from Ulrich Drepper, the libc maintainer, who posted an alternative to strlcpy using mempcpy. I don't have mempcpy either, but it's behaviour was easy to replicate. First of, this is the testcase I have #include <stdio.h> #include <string.h> #define BSIZE 10 void insp(const char* s, int n) { int i; for (i = 0; i < n; i++) printf("%c ", s[i]); printf("\n"); for (i = 0; i < n; i++) printf("%02X ", s[i]); printf("\n"); return; } int copy_string(char *dest, const char *src, int n) { int r = strlen(memcpy(dest, src, n-1)); dest[r] = 0; return r; } int main() { char b[BSIZE]; memset(b, 0, BSIZE); printf("Buffer size is %d", BSIZE); insp(b, BSIZE); printf("\nFirst copy:\n"); copy_string(b, "First", BSIZE); insp(b, BSIZE); printf("b = '%s'\n", b); printf("\nSecond copy:\n"); copy_string(b, "Second", BSIZE); insp(b, BSIZE); printf("b = '%s'\n", b); return 0; } And this is its result: Buffer size is 10 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 First copy: F i r s t b = 46 69 72 73 74 00 62 20 3D 00 b = 'First' Second copy: S e c o n d 53 65 63 6F 6E 64 00 00 01 00 b = 'Second' You can see in the internal representation (the lines insp() created) that there's some noise mixed in, like the printf() format string in the inspection after the first copy, and a foreign 0x01 in the second copy. The strings are copied intact and it correctly handles too long source strings (let's ignore the possible issue with passing 0 as length to copy_string for now, I'll fix that later). But why are there foreign array contents (from the format string) inside my destination? It's as if the destination was actually RESIZED to match the new length.

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  • Paging & Sorting grids with ASP.Net MVC

    - by Scott Ivey
    I'm new to MVC, and am not following how you'd do paging and sorting on a grid. I'm used to using the asp.Net GridView control with an ObjectDataSource pointed at objects in our business layer - and in that case the ODS handles all of the paging & sorting using the methods that our ORM generates on the objects. I've looked at using the same ORM with MVC - and things work out fine there - i just loop thru the collections to build the table on the page - but without the ODS to handle the paging & sorting, i'm confused as to how I'd handle that. Would I have a separate controller for the paging and sorting? I'm not sure what the best practices are for this scenario, so if someone can point me in the right direction it would be much appreciated. Edit: Ok, so I understand that I need to roll my own - but where do I start? I've created a CustomerController, and a view that displays a table of customers that looks like below - and I want to sort on FirstName or LastName columns. My Model has a Sort() method on it that'll take a string sort expression in the format that would be used by a GridView/ODS pair. Would I create a new Action on my CustomerController called Sort, and put an ActionLink in my header? <table> <tr> <th> First Name </th> <th> Last Name </th> </tr> <% foreach (var item in Model) { %> <tr> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.FirstName) %> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.LastName) %> </td> </tr> <% } %> </table>

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  • How do I solve "405 Method Not Allowed" for our subversion setup?

    - by macke
    We're serving our source code using VisualSVN running on Windows Server 2003. Recently, we split a portion of a project into a new project in it's own repository, and then linked it back to the original project using svn:externals. Since then, we've been having issues when we try to commit files with Subclipse. The error we're getting is: svn: Commit failed (details follow): svn: PROPFIND of '/svn': 405 Method Not Allowed (https://svn.ourserver.com) Googling for a while didn't really help, our config seems to be correct. It should also be noted that we've been running this server for a while no without these problems and apart from splitting the project into two repositories, no changes have been made to the server (ie, config files are the same). It should also be noted that these errors only appear when we try to check in multiple files at once. If we check in one file at a time there are no errors. Also, it only appears in Subclipse as far as we know right now, Versions.app (OS X) seems to work fine so that is our current workaround. So, the questions is how do I analyze the error to find the cause and subsequently fix it? I'm by no means a svn guru and right now I'm clueless. EDIT: It seems we can check in multiple files in the same package, but not files from multiple packages. Also, when I "split" the project into two repositories, I imported the original repository with a new name. I did not do a dump and then import that dump. Could that be the source of our issues, and if so, how would I solve that? EDIT: After some jerking around it seems as though it is indeed related to when checking in files in different repositories. If I try to do a single commit in both Repo A and Repo B (referenced by svn:externals) at the same time, I get the error. Versions.app handles this correctly, but I guess it might just be doing two commits, not a single one. Subclipse fails miserably. For now, we simply do multiple commits, one for Repo A and one for Repo B, that works just fine. If anyone smarter than me could fill in the details why this is happening, whether or not this kind of setup is stupid etc, please go right ahead.

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  • Need to know how to properly create a new object in another cpp file

    - by karikari
    I have a class. The problem now is, after a few attempt, I'm still in huge error. My problem is I don't know how to properly declare a new object for this class, inside another cpp file. I wanted to call/trigger the functions from this RebarHandler class from my other cpp file. I keep on getting problems like, 'used without being initialized', 'debug assertion failed' and so on. In the other cpp file, I include the RebarHandler.h and did like this: CRebarHandler *test=NULL; test->setButtonMenu2(); When compile, I does not give any error. But, when run time, it gives error and my IE crash. I need help. Below is the class I meant: #pragma once class CIEWindow; class CRebarHandler : public CWindowImpl<CRebarHandler>{ public: CRebarHandler(HWND hWndToolbar, CIEWindow *ieWindow); CRebarHandler(){}; ~CRebarHandler(); BEGIN_MSG_MAP(CRebarHandler) NOTIFY_CODE_HANDLER(TBN_DROPDOWN, onNotifyDropDown) NOTIFY_CODE_HANDLER(TBN_TOOLBARCHANGE, onNotifyToolbarChange) NOTIFY_CODE_HANDLER(NM_CUSTOMDRAW, onNotifyCustomDraw) NOTIFY_CODE_HANDLER(TBN_ENDADJUST, onNotifyEndAdjust) MESSAGE_HANDLER(WM_SETREDRAW, onSetRedraw) END_MSG_MAP() // message handlers LRESULT onNotifyDropDown(WPARAM wParam, LPNMHDR pNMHDR, BOOL& bHandled); LRESULT onNotifyToolbarChange(WPARAM wParam, LPNMHDR pNMHDR, BOOL& bHandled); LRESULT onNotifyCustomDraw(WPARAM wParam, LPNMHDR pNMHDR, BOOL& bHandled); LRESULT onNotifyEndAdjust(WPARAM wParam, LPNMHDR pNMHDR, BOOL& bHandled); LRESULT onSetRedraw(UINT uMsg, WPARAM wParam, LPARAM lParam, BOOL& bHandled); // manage the subclassing of the IE rebar void subclass(); void unsubclass(); void handleSettings(); void setButtonMenu2(); bool findButton(HWND hWndToolbar); private: // handles to the various things HWND m_hWnd; HWND m_hWndToolbar, m_hWndRebar, m_hWndTooltip; HMENU m_hMenu; int m_buttonID; int m_ieVer; CIEWindow *m_ieWindow; // toolbar finding functions void scanForToolbarSlow(); void getRebarHWND(); void setButtonMenu(); };

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  • Creating multiple heads in remote repository

    - by Jab
    We are looking to move our team (~10 developers) from SVN to mercurial. We are trying to figure out how to manage our workflow. In particular, we are trying to see if creating remote heads is the right solution. We currently have a very large repository with multiple, related projects. They share a lot of code, but pieces of the project are deployed by different teams (3 teams) independent of other portions of the code-base. So each team is working on concurrent large features. The way we currently handles this in SVN are branches. Team1 has a branch for Feature1, same deal for the other teams. When Team1 finishes their change, it gets merged into the trunk and deployed out. The other teams follow suite when their project is complete, merging of course. So my initial thought are using Named Branches for these situations. Team1 makes a Feature1 branch off of the default branch in Hg. Now, here is the question. Should the team PUSH that branch, in it's current/half-state to the repository. This will create a second head in the core repo. My initial reaction was "NO!" as it seems like a bad idea. Handling multiple heads on our repository just sounds awful, but there are some advantages... First, the teams want to setup Continuous Integration to build this branch during their development cycle(months long). This will only work if the CI can pull this branch from the repo. This is something we do now with SVN, copy a CI build and change the branch. Easy. Second, it makes it easier for any team member to jump onto the branch and start working. Without pushing to the core repo, they would have to receive a push from a developer on that team with the changeset information. It is also possible to lose local commits to hardware failure. The chances increase a lot if it's a branch by a single developer who has followed the "don't push until finished" approach. And lastly is just for ease of use. The developers can easily just commit and push on their branch at any time without consequence(as they do today, in their SVN branches). Is there a better way to handle this scenario that I may be missing? I just want a veteran's opinion before moving forward with the strategy. For bug fixes we like the general workflow of mecurial, anonymous branches that only consist of 1-2 commits. The simplicity is great for those cases. By the way, I've read this , great article which seems to favor Named branches.

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  • match "//" comments with regex but not inside a quote

    - by Wireless102
    I need to match and replace some comments. for example: $test = "the url is http://www.google.com";// comment "<-- that quote needs to be matched I want to match the comments outside of the quotes, and replace any "'s in the comments with &quot;'s. I have tried a number of patterns and different ways of running them but with no luck. The regex will be run with javascript to match php "//" comments UPDATE: I took the regex from borkweb below and modified it. used a function from http://ejohn.org/blog/search-and-dont-replace/ and came up with this: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN"> <html> <head> <title></title> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> <script type="text/javascript"> function t_replace(data){ var q = {}, ret = ""; data.replace(/(?:((["'\/]*(("[^"]*")|('[^']*'))?[\s]*)?[\/\/|#][^"|^']*))/g, function(value){ q[key] = value; }); for ( var key in q ){ ret = q[key]; } var text = data.split(ret); var out = ret + text[1]; out = out.replace(/"/g,"&quot;"); out = out.replace(/'/g,"&apos;"); return text[0] + out; } </script> </head> <body> <script type="text/javascript"> document.write(t_replace("$test = \"the url is http://www.google.com\";// c'o\"mment \"\"\"<-- that quote needs to be matched")+"<br>"); document.write(t_replace("$test = 'the url is http://www.google.com';# c'o\"mment \"\"\"<-- that quote needs to be matched")); </script> </body> </html> it handles all the line comments outside of single or double quotes. Is there anyway I could optimize this function?

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  • How do I 'globally' catch exceptions thrown in object instances.

    - by SleepyBobos
    I am currently writing a winforms application (C#). I am making use of the Enterprise Library Exception Handling Block, following a fairly standard approach from what I can see. IE : In the Main method of Program.cs I have wired up event handler to Application.ThreadException event etc. This approach works well and handles the applications exceptional circumstances. In one of my business objects I throw various exceptions in the Set accessor of one of the objects properties set { if (value > MaximumTrim) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("The value of the minimum trim..."); if (!availableSubMasterWidthSatisfiesAllPatterns(value)) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("Another message..."); _minimumTrim = value; } My logic for this approach (without turning this into a 'when to throw exceptions' discussion) is simply that the business objects are responsible for checking business rule constraints and throwing an exception that can bubble up and be caught as required. It should be noted that in the UI of my application I do explictly check the values that the public property is being set to (and take action there displaying friendly dialog etc) but with throwing the exception I am also covering the situation where my business object may not be used by a UI eg : the Property is being set by another business object for example. Anyway I think you all get the idea. My issue is that these exceptions are not being caught by the handler wired up to Application.ThreadException and I don't understand why. From other reading I have done the Application.ThreadException event and it handler "... catches any exception that occurs on the main GUI thread". Are the exceptions being raised in my business object not in this thread? I have not created any new threads. I can get the approach to work if I update the code as follows, explicity calling the event handler that is wired to Application.ThreadException. This is the approach outlined in Enterprise Library samples. However this approach requires me to wrap any exceptions thrown in a try catch, something I was trying to avoid by using a 'global' handler to start with. try { if (value > MaximumTrim) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("The value of the minimum..."); if (!availableSubMasterWidthSatisfiesAllPatterns(value)) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("Another message"); _minimumTrim = value; } catch (Exception ex) { Program.ThreadExceptionHandler.ProcessUnhandledException(ex); } I have also investigated using wiring a handler up to AppDomain.UnhandledException event but this does not catch the exceptions either. I would be good if someone could explain to me why my exceptions are not being caught by my global exception handler in the first code sample. Is there another approach I am missing or am I stuck with wrapping code in try catch, shown above, as required?

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  • Can I make a LaTeX macro 'return' a filename?

    - by drfrogsplat
    I'm writing my thesis/dissertation and since its an on-going work I don't always have the actual images ready for the figures I put into my document, but for various reasons want to automatically have it substitute a dummy figure in place when the included graphics file doesn't exist. E.g. I can do something like \includegraphics[width=8cm]{\chapdir/figures/fluxcapacitor} (where \chapdir is a macro for my 'current' chapter directory, e.g. \def\chapdir{./ch_timetravel} and if there's no ./ch_timetravel/figures/fluxcapacitor.jpg it'll insert ./commands/dummy.jpg instead. I've structured my macros (perhaps naïvely?) so that I have a macro (\figFileOrDummy) that determines the appropriate file to include by checking if the argument provided to it exists, so that I can call \includegraphics[properties]{\figFileOrDummy{\chapdir/figures/fluxcapacitor}}. Except I'm getting various errors depending on how I try to call this, which seem to suggest that I'm approaching the problem in a fundamentally flawed way as far as 'good LaTeX programming' goes. Here's the macro to check if the file exists (and 'return' either filename or the dummy filename): \newcommand{\figFileOrDummy}[1]{% % Figure base name (no extension) to be used if the file exists \def\fodname{#1}% \def\dummyfig{commands/dummy}% % Check if output is PS (.EPS) or PDF (.JPG/.PDF/.PNG/...) figures \ifx\pdfoutput\undefined% % EPS figures only \IfFileExists{\fodname.eps}{}{\def\fodname{\dummyfig}}% \else% % Check existence of various extensions: PDF, TIF, TIFF, JPG, JPEG, PNG, MPS \def\figtest{0}% flag below compared to this value \IfFileExists{\fodname.pdf}{\def\figfilenamefound{1}}{\def\figfilenamefound{0}}% \IfFileExists{\fodname.jpg}{\def\figfilenamefound{1}}{}% \IfFileExists{\fodname.png}{\def\figfilenamefound{1}}{}% % and so on... % If no files found matching the filename (flag is 0) then use the dummy figure \ifx\figfilenamefound\figtest% \def\fodname{\dummyfig}% \fi% \fi% % 'return' the filename \fodname% }% Alternatively, here's a much simpler version which seems to have similar problems: \newcommand{\figFileOrDummy}[1]{% \def\dummyfig{commands/dummy}% \dummyfig% } The \def commands seems to be processed after the expansion of the macro they're trying to define, so it ends up being \def {commands/dummy}... (note the space after \def) and obviously complains. Also it seems to treat the literal contents of the macro as the filename for \includegraphics, rather than resolving/expanding it first, so complains that the file '\def {commands/dummy}... .png' doesn't exist.. I've tried also doing something like \edef\figfilename{\figFileOrDummy{\chapdir/figures/fluxcapacitor}} to try to force it to make \figfilename hold just the value rather than the full macro, but I get an Undefined control sequence error complaining the variables I'm trying to \def in the \figFileOrDummy macro are undefined. So my question is either How do I make this macro expand properly?; or If this is the wrong way of structuring my macros, how should I actually structure such a macro, in order to be able to insert dummy/real figures automatically?; or Is there a package that already handles this type of thing nicely that I've overlooked? I feel like I'm missing something pretty fundamental here...

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  • JSON datetime to SQL Server database via WCF

    - by moikey
    I have noticed a problem over the past couple of days where my dates submitted to an sql server database are wrong. I have a webpage, where users can book facilities. This webpage takes a name, a date, a start time and an end time(BookingID is required for transactions but generated by database), which I format as a JSON string as follows: {"BookingEnd":"\/Date(2012-26-03 09:00:00.000)\/","BookingID":1,"BookingName":"client test 1","BookingStart":"\/Date(2012-26-03 10:00:00.000)\/","RoomID":4} This is then passed to a WCF service, which handles the database insert as follows: [WebInvoke(Method = "POST", RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, UriTemplate = "createbooking")] void CreateBooking(Booking booking); [DataContract] public class Booking { [DataMember] public int BookingID { get; set; } [DataMember] public string BookingName { get; set; } [DataMember] public DateTime BookingStart { get; set; } [DataMember] public DateTime BookingEnd { get; set; } [DataMember] public int RoomID { get; set; } } Booking.svc public void CreateBooking(Booking booking) { BookingEntity bookingEntity = new BookingEntity() { BookingName = booking.BookingName, BookingStart = booking.BookingStart, BookingEnd = booking.BookingEnd, RoomID = booking.RoomID }; BookingsModel model = new BookingsModel(); model.CreateBooking(bookingEntity); } Booking Model: public void CreateBooking(BookingEntity booking) { using (var conn = new SqlConnection("Data Source=cpm;Initial Catalog=BookingDB;Integrated Security=True")) using (var cmd = conn.CreateCommand()) { conn.Open(); cmd.CommandText = @"IF NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM Bookings WHERE BookingStart = @BookingStart AND BookingEnd = @BookingEnd AND RoomID= @RoomID ) INSERT INTO Bookings ( BookingName, BookingStart, BookingEnd, RoomID ) VALUES ( @BookingName, @BookingStart, @BookingEnd, @RoomID )"; cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@BookingName", booking.BookingName); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@BookingStart", booking.BookingStart); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@BookingEnd", booking.BookingEnd); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@RoomID", booking.RoomID); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); conn.Close(); } } This updates the database but the time ends up "1970-01-01 00:00:02.013" each time I submit the date in the above json format. However, when I do a query in SQL server management studio with the above date format ("YYYY-MM-DD HH:MM:SS.mmm"), it inserts the correct values. Also, if I submit a millisecond datetime to the wcf, the correct date is being inserted. The problem seems to be with the format I am submitting. I am a little lost with this problem. I don't really see why it is doing this. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Effective Data Validation

    - by John Conde
    What's an effective way to handle data validation, say, from a form submission? Originally I had a bunch of if statements that checked each value and collected invalid values in an array for later retrieval (and listing). // Store errors here $errors = array(); // Hypothetical check if a string is alphanumeric if (!preg_match('/^[a-z\d]+$/i', $fieldvalue)) { $errors[$fieldname] = 'Please only use letters and numbers for your street address'; } // etc... What I did next was create a class that handles various data validation scenarios and store the results in an internal array. After data validation was complete I would check to see if any errors occurred and handle accordingly: class Validation { private $errorList = array(); public function isAlphaNumeric($string, $field, $msg = '') { if (!preg_match('/^[a-z\d]+$/i', $string)) { $this->errorList[$field] = $msg; } } // more methods here public function creditCard($cardNumber, $field, $msg = '') { // Validate credit card number } // more methods here public function hasErrors() { return count($this->errorList); } } /* Client code */ $validate = new Validation(); $validate->isAlphaNumeric($fieldvalue1, $fieldname1, 'Please only use letters and numbers for your street address'); $validate->creditCard($fieldvalue2, $fieldname2, 'Please enter a valid credit card number'); if ($validate->hasErrors()) { // Handle as appropriate } Naturally it didn't take long before this class became bloated with the virtually unlimited types of data to be validated. What I'm doing now is using decorators to separate the different types of data into their own classes and call them only when needed leaving generic validations (i.e. isAlphaNumeric()) in the base class: class Validation { private $errorList = array(); public function isAlphaNumeric($string, $field, $msg = '') { if (!preg_match('/^[a-z\d]+$/i', $string)) { $this->errorList[$field] = $msg; } } // more generic methods here public function setError($field, $msg = '') { $this->errorList[$field] = $msg; } public function hasErrors() { return count($this->errorList); } } class ValidationCreditCard { protected $validate; public function __construct(Validation $validate) { $this->validate = $validate; } public function creditCard($cardNumber, $field, $msg = '') { // Do validation // ... // if there is an error $this->validate->setError($field, $msg); } // more methods here } /* Client code */ $validate = new Validation(); $validate->isAlphaNumeric($fieldvalue, $fieldname, 'Please only use letters and numbers for your street address'); $validateCC = new ValidationCreditCard($validate); $validateCC->creditCard($fieldvalue2, $fieldname2, 'Please enter a valid credit card number'); if ($validate->hasErrors()) { // Handle as appropriate } Am I on the right track? Or did I just complicate data validation more then I needed to?

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  • When to delete newly deprecated code?

    - by John
    I spent a month writing an elaborate payment system that handles both credit card payments and electronic fund transfers. My work was used on production server for about a month. I was told recently by the client that he no longer wants to use the electronic fund transfer feature. Because the way I had to interface and communicate with the credit card gateway is drastically different from the electronic fund transfer api (eg. the cc company gives transaction responses immediately after an http request, while the eft company gives transaction responses 5 business days after an http request), I spent a lot of time writing my own API to abstract common function calls like function payment(amount, pay_method,pay_freq) function updateRecurringSchedule(user_id,new_schedule) etc.. Now that the client wants to abandon the EFT feature, all my work for this abstracted payments API is obsolete. I'm deliberating over whether I should scrap my work. Here's my pro vs. con for scrapping it now: PRO 1: Eliminate code bloat PRO 2: New developers do not need to learn MY API. They only need to read the CC company's API PRO 3: Because the EFT company did not handle recurring payment schedules, refunds, and validation, I wrote my own application to do it. Although the CC company's API permitted this functionality, I opted to use mine instead so that I could streamline my code. now that EFT is out of the picture, I can delete all this confusing code and just rely on the CC company's sytsem to manage recurring billing, payment schedules, refunds, validations etc... CON 1: Although I can just delete the EFT code, it still takes time to remove the entire framework consolidates different payment systems. CON 2: with regards to PRO 3, it takes time to build functionality that integrates the payment system more closely with the CC company. CON 3: I feel insecure deleting all this work. I don't think I'll ever use it again. But, for some inexplicable reason, I just don't feel comfortable deleting this work "right now". So my question is, should I delete one month's worth recent development? If yes, should I do it immediately or wait X amount of time before doing so?

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