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  • How do I create a new project in TFS from an existing project (breaking history)?

    - by Lindsay
    My team is taking over a project from a previous team. We use a different TFS server than the original team, and we are also not interested in keeping the history of the project because we are accepting the latest version of the code as the beginning of our history with the project. Branching is not an option since we want to start our history from the current version of the code. We just want a fresh project with the existing code. I have not been able to create the new project from the old code successfully. I keep getting an error: "Source control cannot add the solution: Solution would span multiple workspaces" My process for attempting the new project creation: Create a workspace for the previous team's version of the code. Get latest version of that code into local mapped workspace directory Open the solution. Unbind all projects and solution. Close solution. Create a workspace for the new version of the code on our TFS server. Copy the unbound code on my local box to the new local workspace mapped folder. Open the solution from the new directory. "Add to source control" from the new solution. Then I get the error. I have tried removing the TFS security files out of the code directories in the unbound version and tried changing source control instead of adding to source control (but it just binds back to the original instead of letting me bind to the new). Is there any other way to do this besides recreating the solution/projects and adding back all the files and references? It doesn't seem like it should be this difficult... Any advice much appreciated!

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  • Has form post behavior changed in modern browsers? (or How are double clicks handled by the browser)

    - by Alex Czarto
    Background: We are in the process of writing a registration/payment page, and our philosophy was to code all validation and error checking on the server side first, and then add client side validation as a second step (un-obstructive jQuery). We wanted to disable double clicks server side, so we wrote some locking, thread-safe code to handle simultaneous posts/race conditions. When we tried to test this, we realized that we could not cause a simultaneous post or race condition to occur. I thought that (in older browsers anyway) double clicking a submit button worked as follows: User double clicks submit button. Browser sends a post on the first click On the second click, browser cancels/ignores initial post, and initiates a second post (before the first post has returned with a response). Browser waits for second post to return, ignoring initial post response. I thought that from the server side it looked like this: Server gets two simultaneous post requests, executes and responds to them both (unaware that no one is listening to the first response). From our testing (FireFox 3.0, IE 8.0) this is what actually happens: User double clicks submit button Browser sends a post for the first click Browser queues up second click, but waits for the response from the first click. Response returns from first click (response is ignored?). Browser sends a post for the second click. So from a server side: Server receives a single post which it executes and responds to. Then, server receives a second request wich it executes and responds to. My question is, has this always worked this way (and I'm losing my mind)? Or is this a new feature in modern browsers that prevents simultaneous posts to be sent to the server? It seems that for server side double click prevention, we don't have to worry about simultaneous posts or race conditions. Only need to worry about queued up posts. Thanks in advance for any feedback / comments. Alex

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  • How to name multiple versioned ServiceContracts in the same WCF service?

    - by Tor Hovland
    When you have to introduce a breaking change in a ServiceContract, a best practice is to keep the old one and create a new one, and use some version identifier in the namespace. If I understand this correctly, I should be able to do the following: [ServiceContract(Namespace = "http://foo.com/2010/01/14")] public interface IVersionedService { [OperationContract] string WriteGreeting(Person person); } [ServiceContract(Name = "IVersionedService", Namespace = "http://foo.com/2010/02/21")] public interface IVersionedService2 { [OperationContract(Name = "WriteGreeting")] Greeting WriteGreeting2(Person2 person); } With this I can create a service that supports both versions. This actually works, and it looks fine when testing from soapUI. However, when I create a client in Visual Studio using "Add Service Reference", VS disregards the namespaces and simply sees two interfaces with the same name. In order to differentiate them, VS adds "1" to the name of one of them. I end up with proxies called ServiceReference.VersionedServiceClient and ServiceReference.VersionedService1Client Now it's not easy for anybody to see which is the newer version. Should I give the interfaces different names? E.g IVersionedService1 IVersionedService2 or IVersionedService/2010/01/14 IVersionedService/2010/02/21 Doesn't this defeat the purpose of the namespace? Should I put them in different service classes and get a unique URL for each version?

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  • Jquery UI Dialog - when opened IE7 Browser moves instantly to the bottom of the page

    - by Truegilly
    Hello, i have been working on a new .net MVC site and have integrated some of the awesome jquery UI components. ive been testing it in IE8, FF, opera and Chrome and all looks well. Once I test in IE7, surprisingly its the dialogs that are causing a problem. basically what’s happening is that one you user clicks to open a dialog the page will scroll immediately to the bottom of the page. This is especially bad if the page is quite long. this only happens in IE7 (and probably 6 but im not even going there!). I have spend a few hours reading forums and it seems im not the only one. I have created a dirty hack which im not keen on but it does work. onclick="SignIn(); <% if(ModelHelperClass.CheckForOldIEVersion() == true) Response.Write("window.scrollTo(0, 0);"); %> return false;"> has anyone else had this issue and resolved it without resorting to dirty hacks ? im using jquery-ui-1.8.custom.min.js and jquery-1.4.2.min.js any help is most appreciated Truegilly

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  • Destroy process-less console windows left by Visual Studio debug sessions

    - by jon hanson
    A known bug with security update KB978037 can occur with Visual Studio 2003 (and 2008) where sometimes if you restart a debugging session on a console app then the console window doesn't get closed even though the owner process no longer exists. The problem is discussed further here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2402875/visual-studio-debug-console-sometimes-stays-open-and-is-impossible-to-close These zombie windows then can not be closed via the Taskbar or via the TaskManager, and typically require a power off/on to get rid of them. Over the period of even a single day you can accumulate quite a few of them, which clog up your TaskBar and are generally annoying. I thought I would knock up a simple C++ Win32 utility to attempt to call DestroyWindow() on these windows by passing the windows handle as a cmd-line argument and converting it to a HWND. I'm converting the handle from a string by parsing it as a DWORD then casting the DWORD to a HWND. This appears to be working as if I call GetWindowInfo() on the handle it succeeds. However calling DestroyWindow() on the handle fails with error 5 (access denied), presumably because the caller process (i.e. my app) doesn't own the window in question. Any ideas as to how I might get rid of the zombie windows, either via the above approach or any other alternative short of rebooting? I'm in a corporate environment so installing/uninstalling updates/service-packs etc isn't an option.

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  • restrict script inside iframe to run only within pages of same top-level domain?

    - by Justin Grant
    I'd like to enforce a requirement that client script inside a page (which in turn is loaded inside an iframe of another page) will only run when the parent page is on the same top-level domain as the framed page (although it may be on another hostname in that domain). Is this do-able? I assume that the easy solution of looking at top.location.host won't be available due to cross-site scripting limitations, but I'm wondering if other javascript hackery could suffice. Constraints on any potential solution inculde: I need to be able to run XmlHttpRequest calls inside the child page, and I need to validate that the hostname is in the same domain before I make those calls. (this makes a document.domain solution challenging because AFAIK setting document.domain disables the ability to make XmlHttpRequest calls. I can control client-side script and HTML on both parent or child (and I can create new pages if needed), but I can't make any server-side code changes. I can't simulate the above via server-side calls or proxies, because the child page's hostname uses a forms auth system with hostname-scoped cookies that I can't get access to from the parent page since it's on a different hostname. I don't have enough control over the child-frame site to be able to put both sites behind the same reverse-proxy or load-balancer (which would enable me to put both sites on the same hostname). I don't actually need to access any UI inside the IFrame-- the iframe is invisible and I'm only using it to run javascript within the security context of a site on a different hostname from the parent page. So at this point I'm stumped. Got any ideas? I want to make sure I'm not overlooking an easy solution before giving up.

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  • Browser performance when combining image resizing with animated movement

    - by Steve Reichgut
    I have been tasked with the job of converting a Flash animation into HTML. The animation is rather complex and requires the need to move multiple images (9) from location (x,y) to location (x2,y2) while simultaneously increasing the image size from 215px wide to 930px wide. While doing some initial testing of this animation with just 1-2 images, I noticed a lot of choppiness in FF handling of this animation. To try and isolate the problem, I removed the dynamic resizing of the animation and just moved it from point A to point B. What was interesting was that I saw the same behavior when simply moving a 930px image that was resized down to 215px (via the CSS width or inline width properties). When I try the same animation with a different image that is actually 215px wide, it performed smoothly. I then tried the same animation with the original 930px wide image (with no resizing) and it performed well also. This makes me wonder if the browser is having to "resize" the image down to 215px each time it is moved which is causing the choppiness. Is this a correct assumption? If so, is there any other way to optimize the animation to allow for simultaneous image resizing and image movement? Notes: 1) One optimization I have done is to position the images absolutely in order to minimize the reflow process. 2) I have tested the animation using both jQuery and the fX animation framework.

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  • What is the best method for updating all changed data in EF 4?

    - by Soul_Master
    I try to create some method that can update any changed data from changed Data object (this object is generated by ASP.NET MVC) to old Data object (this object is retrieved from current data in DBMS) like the following code. public static bool UpdateSomeData(SomeEntities context, SomeModelType changedData) { var oldData = GetSomeModelTypeById(context, changedData.ID); UpdateModel(oldData, changedData); return context.SaveChanges() > 0; } I try to create method for saving any changed data without affects other unchanged data like the following source code. public static void UpdateModel<TModel>(TModel oldData, TModel changedData) { foreach (var pi in typeof(TModel).GetProperties() .Where ( // Ignore Change ID property for security reason x => x.Name.ToUpper() != "ID" && x.CanRead && x.CanWrite && ( // It must be primitive type or Guid x.PropertyType.FullName.StartsWith("System") && !x.PropertyType.FullName.StartsWith("System.Collection") && !x.PropertyType.FullName.StartsWith("System.Data.Entity.DynamicProxies") ) ) { var oldValue = pi.GetValue(oldData, null); var newValue = pi.GetValue(changedData, null); if (!oldValue.Equals(newValue)) { pi.SetValue(oldData, newValue, null); } } } I am not sure about the above method because it is so ugly method for updating data. From recent bug, it realizes me that if you update some property like Navigation Properties (related data from other table), it will remove current record from database. I don't understand why it happened. But it is very dangerous for me. So, do you have any idea for this question to ensure me about updating data from ASP.NET MVC? Thanks,

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  • PayPal IPN "FAIL"

    - by Rob
    Hey all... I'm trying to figure out how to use PayPal's IPN and I've run into a wall. I want a buyer to be forwarded to a success page after making a purchase, and I want that page to show the details of their transaction. I choose IPN instead of the PDT because I also want to do some other behind the scenes stuff with their data. Anyway, here's the code I'm using -- I'm testing in sandbox mode -- but it returns "FAIL" every time. $req = 'cmd=_notify-validate'; foreach ($_POST as $key => $value) { $value = urlencode(stripslashes($value)); $req .= "&$key=$value"; } // post back to PayPal system to validate $header = "POST /cgi-bin/webscr HTTP/1.0\r\n"; $header .= "Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded\r\n"; $header .= "Content-Length: " . strlen($req) . "\r\n\r\n"; $fp = fsockopen ('www.sandbox.paypal.com', 80, $errno, $errstr, 30); if (!$fp) { // HTTP ERROR } else { fputs ($fp, $header . $req); while (!feof($fp)) { $res = fgets ($fp, 1024); if (strcmp ($res, "VERIFIED") == 0) { // PAYMENT VALIDATED & VERIFIED! echo "Validated!"; } else if (strcmp ($res, "INVALID") == 0) { // PAYMENT INVALID & INVESTIGATE MANUALY! echo "Invalid!"; } } fclose ($fp); }

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  • PPR in tr:selectOneChoice does not work

    - by Nhut Le
    Hi, I have a simple testing page that test my PPR on a selectOneChoice component. when select a value from selectOnechoice 1, the selected value will display on a output label and also reset the selected value and the other selectOneChoice. However, it prints the selected values to the label correctly but it can't set the selected value for the other selectOneChoice. and Here are my page and my value change event method. <tr:form id="nhutForm"> <tr:selectOneChoice id="one" value="#{nhutTestBean.one}" autoSubmit="true" immediate="true" valueChangeListener="#{nhutTestBean.onMyValueChanged}"> <tr:selectItem label="0" value="0"/> <tr:selectItem label="1" value="1"/> <tr:selectItem label="2" value="2"/> <tr:selectItem label="3" value="3"/> </tr:selectOneChoice> <tr:selectOneChoice id="two" value="#{nhutTestBean.two}" partialTriggers="one"> <f:selectItems value="#{nhutTestBean.myList}"/> </tr:selectOneChoice> <tr:outputText id="nhutTextBox" value="hello: #{nhutTestBean.output}" partialTriggers="one"/></tr:form> and my valueChangeEvent method: public void onMyValueChanged(ValueChangeEvent event) { this.setOutput((String)event.getNewValue()); this.setTwo((String)event.getNewValue()); } One thing I realize is that it calls my setTwo twice, the first the set the correct values, but the second time set it to null so that nothing would be selected for the two drop down box. please help. thank you so much.

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  • Starting a process in one HTTP call and getting results in another

    - by KillianDS
    Hi, I'm writing a very simple testing framework for my application, the design isn't perfect, but I don't have time to write something more complex. Essentially, I have a client and server-application, on my server I want a small python web server to start the server application with given test sequences on a GET or POST call. Also, the application prints some testdata to stderr which I'd like to catch and return in another HTTP call. At the moment I have this: from subprocess import Popen, PIPE from BaseHTTPServer import BaseHTTPRequestHandler, HTTPServer p = None class MyHandler(BaseHTTPRequestHandler): def do_GET(self): global p if self.path.endswith("start/"): p = Popen(["./bin/Release/simplex264","BBB-360","127.0.0.1"], stderr=PIPE) print 'started' return elif self.path.endswith("getResults/"): self.wfile.write(p.stderr.read()) return self.send_error(404,'File Not Found: %s' % self.path) def main(): try: server = HTTPServer(('localhost', 9876), MyHandler) print 'Started server...' server.serve_forever() except KeyboardInterrupt: print 'Shutting down...' server.socket.close() if __name__ == '__main__': main() Which 'works', except for one part, when I try to open http://localhost:9876/start/, it does not return before the process ended. However, the 'started' appears in my shell immediately (I added this because I thought the Popen call would only return after execution). I do not know the perfect inner workings of Popen and BaseHTTPRequestHandler however and do not really know where it goes wrong. Is there any way to make this work asynchronously?

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  • Grails XOM linkageerror - SAXParserException

    - by Stefan Kendall
    Possibly related: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2762439/grails-attempting-to-include-htppbuilder-linkage-error I'm trying to include XOM in my grails project. How do I know which dependency library I need to exclude? I'm lost here. dependencies { build('xom:xom:1.1') { excludes "xml-apis" } } Error: java.lang.LinkageError: loader constraint violation: loader (instance of <bootloader>) previously initiated loading for a different type with name "org/xml/sax/SAXParseException" at java.lang.Class.getDeclaredMethods0(Native Method) at java.lang.Class.privateGetDeclaredMethods(Class.java:2427) at java.lang.Class.getDeclaredMethods(Class.java:1791) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at org.codehaus.groovy.util.LazyReference.getLocked(LazyReference.java:33) at org.codehaus.groovy.util.LazyReference.get(LazyReference.java:20) at grails.util.PluginBuildSettings.getPluginInfos(PluginBuildSettings.groovy:124) at grails.util.PluginBuildSettings.getPluginInfos(PluginBuildSettings.groovy) at grails.util.PluginBuildSettings$getPluginInfos.callCurrent(Unknown Source) at grails.util.PluginBuildSettings.getPluginInfo(PluginBuildSettings.groovy:160) at grails.util.PluginBuildSettings$getPluginInfo.callCurrent(Unknown Source) at grails.util.PluginBuildSettings.getPluginInfoForSource(PluginBuildSettings.groovy:195) at org.codehaus.groovy.transform.ASTTransformationVisitor$3.call(ASTTransformationVisitor.java:303) at org.codehaus.groovy.control.CompilationUnit.applyToSourceUnits(CompilationUnit.java:820) at org.codehaus.groovy.control.CompilationUnit.doPhaseOperation(CompilationUnit.java:513) at org.codehaus.groovy.control.CompilationUnit.processPhaseOperations(CompilationUnit.java:489) at org.codehaus.groovy.control.CompilationUnit.compile(CompilationUnit.java:466) at _GrailsEvents_groovy.run(_GrailsEvents_groovy:54) at _GrailsEvents_groovy$run.call(Unknown Source) at _GrailsArgParsing_groovy$run.call(Unknown Source) at _GrailsArgParsing_groovy.run(_GrailsArgParsing_groovy:29) at _GrailsArgParsing_groovy$run.call(Unknown Source) at _GrailsInit_groovy$run.call(Unknown Source) at _GrailsInit_groovy.run(_GrailsInit_groovy:38) at _GrailsInit_groovy$run.call(Unknown Source) at Help_.run(Help_.groovy:27) at Help_$run.call(Unknown Source) at gant.Gant.processTargets(Gant.groovy:494) at gant.Gant.processTargets(Gant.groovy:480)

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  • How Does One Make Scala Control Abstraction in Repeat Until?

    - by peter_pilgrim
    Hi I am Peter Pilgrim. I watched Martin Odersky create a control abstraction in Scala. However I can not yet seem to repeat it inside IntelliJ IDEA 9. Is it the IDE? package demo class Control { def repeatLoop ( body: = Unit ) = new Until( body ) class Until( body: = Unit ) { def until( cond: = Boolean ) { body; val value: Boolean = cond; println("value="+value) if ( value ) repeatLoop(body).until(cond) // if (cond) until(cond) } } def doTest2(): Unit = { var y: Int = 1 println("testing ... repeatUntil() control structure") repeatLoop { println("found y="+y) y = y + 1 } { until ( y < 10 ) } } } The error message reads: Information:Compilation completed with 1 error and 0 warnings Information:1 error Information:0 warnings C:\Users\Peter\IdeaProjects\HelloWord\src\demo\Control.scala Error:Error:line (57)error: Control.this.repeatLoop({ scala.this.Predef.println("found y=".+(y)); y = y.+(1) }) of type Control.this.Until does not take parameters repeatLoop { In the curried function the body can be thought to return an expression (the value of y+1) however the declaration body parameter of repeatUntil clearly says this can be ignored or not? What does the error mean?

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  • Access violations in strange places when using Windows file dialogs

    - by Robert Oschler
    A long time ago I found out that I was getting access violations in my code due to the use of the Delphi Open File and/or Save File dialogs, which encapsulate the Windows dialogs. I asked some questions on a few forums and I was told that it may have been due to the way some programs add hooks to the shell system that result in DLLs getting injected in every process, some of which can cause havoc with a program. For the record, the programming environment I use is Delphi 6 Professional running on Windows XP 32-bit. At the time I got around it by not using Delphi's Dialog components and instead calling straight into comdlg32.dll. This solved the problem wonderfully. Today I was working with memory mapped files for the first time and sure enough, access violations started cropping up in weird parts of the code. I tried my comdlg32.dll direct calls and this time it didn't help. To isolate the problem as a test I created a list box with the exact same files I was using during testing. These are the exact same test files I was selecting from an Open File dialog and then launching my memory mapped file with. I set things up so that by clicking on a file in the list box, I would use that file in my memory mapped file test instead of calling into a comdlg32.dll dialog function to select a test file. Again, the access violatons vanished. To show you how dramatic a fix it was I went from experiencing an access violation within 1 to 3 trials to none at all. Unfortunately, it's going to bite me later on of course when I do need to use file dialogs. Has anyone else dealt with this issue too and found the real culprit? Did any of you find a solution I could use to fix this problem instead of dancing around it like I am now? Thanks in advance.

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  • How do I setup Linq to SQL and WCF

    - by Jisaak
    So I'm venturing out into the world of Linq and WCF web services and I can't seem to make the magic happen. I have a VERY basic WCF web service going and I can get my old SqlConnection calls to work and return a DataSet. But I can't/don't know how to get the Linq to SQL queries to work. I'm guessing it might be a permissions problem since I need to connect to the SQL Database with a specific set of credentials but I don't know how I can test if that is the issue. I've tried using both of these connection strings and neither seem to give me a different result. <add name="GeoDataConnectionString" connectionString="Data Source=SQLSERVER;Initial Catalog=GeoData;Integrated Security=True" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> <add name="GeoDataConnectionString" connectionString="Data Source=SQLSERVER;Initial Catalog=GeoData;User ID=domain\userName; Password=blahblah; Trusted_Connection=true" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> Here is the function in my service that does the query and I have the interface add the [OperationContract] public string GetCity(int cityId) { GeoDataContext db = new GeoDataContext(); var city = from c in db.Cities where c.CITY_ID == 30429 select c.DESCRIPTION; return city.ToString(); } The GeoData.dbml only has one simple table in it with a list of city id's and city names. I have also changed the "Serialization Mode" on the DataContext to "Unidirectional" which from what I've read needs to be done for WCF. When I run the service I get this as the return: SELECT [t0].[DESCRIPTION] FROM [dbo].[Cities] AS [t0] WHERE [t0].[CITY_ID] = @p0 Dang, so as I'm writing this I realize that maybe my query is all messed up?

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  • Yet another "What is this code doing"-type of Perl code

    - by Mike
    I have inherited some code from a guy whose favorite past time was to shorten every line to its absolute minimum (and sometimes only to make it look cool). His code is hard to understand but I managed to understand (and rewrite) most of it. Now I have stumbled on a piece of code which, no matter how hard I try, I cannot understand. my @heads = grep {s/\.txt$//} OSA::Fast::IO::Ls->ls($SysKey,'fo','osr/tiparlo',qr{^\d+\.txt$}) || (); my @selected_heads = (); for my $i (0..1) { $selected_heads[$i] = int rand scalar @heads; for my $j (0..@heads-1) { last if (!grep $j eq $_, @selected_heads[0..$i-1]); $selected_heads[$i] = ($selected_heads[$i] + 1) % @heads; #WTF? } my $head_nr = sprintf "%04d", $i; OSA::Fast::IO::Cp->cp($SysKey,'',"osr/tiparlo/$heads[$selected_heads[$i]].txt","$recdir/heads/$head_nr.txt"); OSA::Fast::IO::Cp->cp($SysKey,'',"osr/tiparlo/$heads[$selected_heads[$i]].cache","$recdir/heads/$head_nr.cache"); } From what I can understand, this is supposed to be some kind of randomizer, but I never saw a more complex way to achieve randomness. Or are my assumptions wrong? At least, that's what this code is supposed to do. Select 2 random files and copy them. === NOTES === The OSA Framework is a Framework of our own. They are named after their UNIX counterparts and do some basic testing so that the application does not need to bother with that.

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  • MANIFEST.MF issue

    - by dhananjay
    hi I have created a jar inside this folder: '/usr/local/bin/niidle.jar' in eclipse. And I have another jar inside /usr/local/bin/niidle.jar. In my niidle.jar file,there is one 'lib' folder and in that 'lib' folder,there is another jar file 'hector-0.6.0-17.jar'. I have added this 'hector-0.6.0-17.jar' file in MANIFEST.MF as follows: Manifest-Version: 1.0 Main-Class: com.ensarm.niidle.web.scraper.NiidleScrapeManager Class-Path: hector-0.6.0-17.jar But when I run this using command: >>java -jar /usr/local/bin/niidle.jar arguments... It is not working.. It is showing error message:- Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: me/prettyprint/hector/api/Serializer at com.ensarm.niidle.web.scraper.NiidleScrapeManager.main(NiidleScrapeManager.java:21) Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: me.prettyprint.hector.api.Serializer at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:200) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:188) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:307) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:301) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:252) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(ClassLoader.java:320) ... 1 more What is the problem,Please tell me solution for this Exception...

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  • Having issue Deserializing array from an XML string

    - by LeeHull
    I'm having issues trying to deserializing my xml string that was from a dataset.. Here is the XML layout.. <DataSet> <User> <UserName>Test</UserName> <Email>[email protected]</Email> <Details> <ID>1</ID> <Name>TestDetails</Name> <Value>1</Value> </Details <Details> <ID>2</ID> <Name>Testing</Name> <Value>3</Value> </Details </User> </DataSet> Now I am able to deserialize the "UserName" and "Email" when doing public class User { public string UserName {get;set;} public string Email {get;set;} public Details[] Details {get;set;} } public class Details { public int ID {get;set;} public string Name {get;set;} public string Value {get;set;} } This deserializes fine when I just get the user node, the Details isnt null but has no items in it.. i know I am suppose to have between all the details but I rather not modify the XML, anyways to get this to deserialize properly without recreating the XML after I get it?

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  • Get instance of type inheriting from base class, implementing interface, using StructureMap

    - by Ben
    Continuing on my quest for a good plugin implementation I have been testing the StructureMap assembly scanning features. All plugins will inherit from abstract class PluginBase. This will provide access to common application services such as logging. Depending on it's function, each plugin may then implement additional interfaces, for example, IStartUpTask. I am initializing my plugins like so: Scan(x => { x.AssembliesFromPath(HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("~/Plugins"), assembly => assembly.GetName().Name.Contains("Extension")); x.AddAllTypesOf<PluginBase>(); }); The difficulty I am then having is how to work against the interface (not the PluginBase) in code. It's easy enough to work with PluginBase: var plugins = ObjectFactory.GetAllInstances<PluginBase>(); foreach (var plugin in plugins) { } But specific functionality (e.g. IStartUpTask.RunTask) is tied to the interface, not the base class. I appreciate this may not be specific to structuremap (perhaps more a question of reflection). Thanks, Ben

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  • document.write Not working when loading external Javascript source

    - by jadent
    I'm trying to load an external JavaScript file dynamically into an HTML element to preview an ad tag. The script loads and executes but the script contains "document.write" which has an issue executing properly but there are no errors. <html> <head> <script src="//ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/2.0.3/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { source = 'http://ib.adnxs.com/ttj?id=555281'; // DOM Insert Approach // ----------------------------------- var script = document.createElement('script'); script.setAttribute('type', 'text/javascript'); script.setAttribute('src', source); document.body.appendChild(script); }); </script> </head> <body> </body> </html> I can get it to work if If i move the the source to the same domain for testing If the script was modified to use document.createElement and appendChild instead of document.write like the code above. I don't have the ability to modify the script since it being generated and hosted by a 3rd party. Does anyone know why the document.write will not work correctly? And is there a way to get around this? Thanks for the help!

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  • Java problem: Could not find main class HelloWorld

    - by Newbie
    I am new to java(a real novice). I installed Java 1.7.0 in the following folder C:\Program Files\Java The environment variable which I set are CLASSPATH : C:\Program Files\Java\jdk1.7.0\jre\lib\rt.jar; Path : C:\Program Files\Java\jdk1.7.0\bin; JAVA_HOME : C:\Program Files\Java; I have presented here the class names which are in my system. Next I wrote a program(HelloWorld.java) import java.io.*; class HelloWorld { public static void main(String[] args) { System.out.println("Hello World!"); } } When I am compiling using javac HelloWorld.java it is compiling fine. But after I issue java HelloWorld I am encountering the below error Error: Could not find main class HelloWorld Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: HelloWorld at sun.launcher.LauncherHelper.checkAndLoadMain(LauncherHelper.java:198) Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: HelloWorld at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:299) at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:288) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:287) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:422) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:325) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:355) at sun.launcher.LauncherHelper.checkAndLoadMain(LauncherHelper.java:195) After a bit of google search I found that may be something wrong in the environment variable. I tried to play with that but no luck. I know that it may be a very simple thing for the real java developers(actually basic) but for me as of now no luck! I even RESTARTED the machine and then again I tried to run but with same fate. OS: Windows XP(Version 2002) with Service pack 3 Help needed . Thanks .

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  • Blackberry application works in simulator but not device

    - by Kai
    I read some of the similar posts on this site that deal with what seems to be the same issue and the responses didn't really seem to clarify things for me. My application works fine in the simulator. I believe I'm on Bold 9000 with OS 4.6. The app is signed. My app makes an HTTP call via 3G to fetch an XML result. type is application/xhtml+xml. In the device, it gives no error. it makes no visual sign of error. I tell the try catch to print the results to the screen and I get nothing. HttpConnection was taken right out of the demos and works fine in sim. Since it gives no error, I begin to reflect back on things I recall reading back when the project began. deviceside=true? Something like that? My request is simply HttpConnection connection = (HttpConnection)Connector.open(url); where url is just a standard url, no get vars. Based on the amount of time I see the connection arrows in the corner of the screen, I assume the app is launching the initial communication to my server, then either getting a bad result, or it gets results and the persistent store is not functioning as expected. I have no idea where to begin with this. Posting code would be ridiculous since it would be basically my whole app. I guess my question is if anyone knows of any major differences with device versus simulator that could cause something like http connection or persistent store to fail? A build setting? An OS restriction? Any standard procedure I may have just not known about that everyone should do before beginning device testing? Thanks

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  • Dumping an ADODB recordset to XML, then back to a recordset, then saving to the db

    - by Mark Biek
    I've created an XML file using the .Save() method of an ADODB recordset in the following manner. dim res dim objXML: Set objXML = Server.CreateObject("MSXML2.DOMDocument") 'This returns an ADODB recordset set res = ExecuteReader("SELECT * from some_table) With res Call .Save(objXML, 1) Call .Close() End With Set res = nothing Let's assume that the XML generated above then gets saved to a file. I'm able to read the XML back into a recordset like this: dim res : set res = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.recordset") res.open server.mappath("/admin/tbl_some_table.xml") And I can loop over the records without any problem. However what I really want to do is save all of the data in res to a table in a completely different database. We can assume that some_table already exists in this other database and has the exact same structure as the table I originally queried to make the XML. I started by creating a new recordset and using AddNew to add all of the rows from res to the new recordset dim outRes : set outRes = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.recordset") dim outConn : set outConn = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") dim testConnStr : testConnStr = "DRIVER={SQL Server};SERVER=dev-windows\sql2000;UID=myuser;PWD=mypass;DATABASE=Testing" outConn.open testConnStr outRes.activeconnection = outConn outRes.cursortype = adOpenDynamic outRes.locktype = adLockOptimistic outRes.source = "product_accessories" outRes.open while not res.eof outRes.addnew for i=0 to res.fields.count-1 outRes(res.fields(i).name) = res(res.fields(i).name) next outRes.movefirst res.movenext wend outRes.updatebatch But this bombs the first time I try to assign the value from res to outRes. Microsoft OLE DB Provider for ODBC Drivers error '80040e21' Multiple-step OLE DB operation generated errors. Check each OLE DB status value, if available. No work was done. Can someone tell me what I'm doing wrong or suggest a better way for me to copy the data loaded from XML to a different database?

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  • NoClassDefFoundError without any class name

    - by Safder
    Hello, I am trying to run a java task from ant. I am trying to run the "org.apache.tools.ant.launch.Launcher" class. I keep on getting the "NoClassDefFoundError" without any class name being specified. I am also getting a "ClassNotFoundException" along with that displaying a message "Could not find the main class: . Program will exit". Here's a snippet of the error [java] Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: [java] Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: [java] at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:200) [java] at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) [java] at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:188) [java] at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:307) [java] at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:301) [java] at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:252) [java] at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(ClassLoader.java:320) [java] Could not find the main class: . Program will exit. [java] Java Result: 1 Now I am trying to run an ant class from an ant jar and i specifiy the classpath where this class file resides using the "classpathref" attribute, however I still get this message. I checked the ant jar to check the Manifest and the "main" class is specified properly (it's "org.apache.tools.ant.launch.Launcher") . I have exhausted all my resources. Please help ! ! ! ps: My environment is Eclipse on Ubuntu 9.04

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  • Python - Why use anything other than uuid4() for unique strings?

    - by orokusaki
    I see quit a few implementations of unique string generation for things like uploaded image names, session IDs, et al, and many of them employ the usage of hashes like SHA1, or others. I'm not questioning the legitimacy of using custom methods like this, but rather just the reason. If I want a unique string, I just say this: >>> import uuid >>> uuid.uuid4() 07033084-5cfd-4812-90a4-e4d24ffb6e3d And I'm done with it. I wasn't very trusting before I read up on uuid, so I did this: >>> import uuid >>> s = set() >>> for i in range(5000000): # That's 5 million! >>> s.add(uuid.uuid4()) ... ... >>> len(s) 5000000 Not one repeater (I didn't expect one considering the odds are like 1.108e+50, but it's comforting to see it in action). You could even half the odds by just making your string by combining 2 uuid4()s. So, with that said, why do people spend time on random() and other stuff for unique strings, etc? Is there an important security issue or other regarding uuid?

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