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• Android listing design problem with cursors

  - by Priyank

  Hi. I have a following situation in my android app. I have an app that fetches messages from inbox, sent items and drafts based on search keywords. I use to accomplish this by fetching cursors for each manually based on selection by user and then populating them in a custom data holder object. Filter those results based on given keywords and then manually render view with respective data. Someone suggested that I should use a custom Cursor adapter to bind view and my cursor data. So I tried doing that. Now what I am doing is this: Fetch individual cursors for inbox, sent items and drafts. Merge them into one using Merge cursor and then pass that back to my CursorAdapter implmentation. Now where or how do I filter my cursor data based on keywords; because now binding will ensure that they are directly rendered to view on list. Also, some post fetching operation like fetching sender's contact pic and all will be something that I do not want to move to adapter. If I do all this processing in adapter; it'll be heavy and ugly. How could I have designed it better such that it performs and the responsibilities are shared and distributed. Any ideas will be helpful.

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• Laravel4: Call to a member function on a non-object

  - by s0hno

  The following code will throw an error Call to a member function `links()` on a non-object routes.php: Route::get('videos', function(){ $data = DB::table('video_data_r')->paginate(5); return View::make('video',$data); }); Corresponding video view: <?php foreach($data as $item): ?> <div class="video_entry"> <a href="<?php echo $item -> url; ?>" target="_blank"><img src="<?php echo $item -> thumb; ?>" /></a> <a href="<?php echo $item -> url; ?>" target="_blank"><?php echo $item -> title; ?>"</a> </div> <?php endforeach; ?> <?php echo $data->links();?> Could you give me a good hint on what looks like a trivial error?

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• A dynamic array of a class, inside another separate class?

  - by pinnacler

  I'm working on a robot localization simulator and I created a class called "landmark". The end result is going to be a robot that is always centered and always faces the top of the screen. As it turns, the birds eye view map will rotate around the robot. To accomplish this, I'm assuming I can rotate one class and have all elements inside rotate as well. So, the landmark class has properties x,y, label, and radius. This is suppose to simulate a tree location in a forest. To test everything, I need "forest data," and I wrote a script to generate 100 trees in a 100m x 100m area. The script automatically generates values within an acceptable range for x,y, radius. The generated data is stored in an object called tempForest and is 100x3. Ideally, I want to create a class called "landmarks" (plural) that has 100 landmark instances inside. How would I instantiate 100 instances of landmark in one instance of landmarks using that randomly generated data? Ideally, I'd just type treeBeacons = landmarks(); and it would randomly populate 100 (user definable, set in config file) instances with x, y, radius data. I'm not sure how to deal with a dynamic array of class "Landmark", inside another single class "landmarks." Any ideas?

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• PHP weirdness extending IMagick class

  - by Jamie Carl

  This is a really weird one. I have some code that is happily working on version 2.1.1RC1 of the php5-imagick module. It's basically just a class I wrote that extends the Imagick class and manages images stored in a database. Since upgrading to version 3.0.0RC1 (thankfully only on my dev box) things have gone to hell. It seems that object members are writeable but are NOT readable. Take the following sample code: class db_image extends IMagick { private $data; function __construct( $id = null ){ parent::__construct(); $this->data = 'some plain text'; echo $this->data; } This will output absolutely NOTHING. My debugger indicates that the contents of $this-data are the correct string value, but I am unable to read the value back out of the member variable. Seriously. WTF? Does anyone know what is causing this or has seen it before? I don't even know how to replicate this behaviour in my own classes.

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• Django: How can I identify the calling view from a template?

  - by bryan

  Short version: Is there a simple, built-in way to identify the calling view in a Django template, without passing extra context variables? Long (original) version: One of my Django apps has several different views, each with its own named URL pattern, that all render the same template. There's a very small amount of template code that needs to change depending on the called view, too small to be worth the overhead of setting up separate templates for each view, so ideally I need to find a way to identify the calling view in the template. I've tried setting up the views to pass in extra context variables (e.g. "view_name") to identify the calling view, and I've also tried using {% ifequal request.path "/some/path/" %} comparisons, but neither of these solutions seems particularly elegant. Is there a better way to identify the calling view from the template? Is there a way to access to the view's name, or the name of the URL pattern? Update 1: Regarding the comment that this is simply a case of me misunderstanding MVC, I understand MVC, but Django's not really an MVC framework. I believe the way my app is set up is consistent with Django's take on MVC: the views describe which data is presented, and the templates describe how the data is presented. It just happens that I have a number of views that prepare different data, but that all use the same template because the data is presented the same way for all the views. I'm just looking for a simple way to identify the calling view from the template, if this exists. Update 2: Thanks for all the answers. I think the question is being overthought -- as mentioned in my original question, I've already considered and tried all of the suggested solutions -- so I've distilled it down to a "short version" now at the top of the question. And right now it seems that if someone were to simply post "No", it'd be the most correct answer :) Update 3: Carl Meyer posted "No" :) Thanks again, everyone.

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• Blackberry Asynchronous HTTP Requests - How?

  - by Kai

  The app I'm working on has a self contained database. The only time I need HTTP request is when the user first loads the app. I do this by calling a class that verifies whether or not a local DB exists and, if not, create one with the following request: HttpRequest data = new HttpRequest("http://www.somedomain.com/xml", "GET", this); data.start(); This xml returns a list of content, all of which have images that I want to fetch AFTER the original request is complete and stored. So something like this won't work: HttpRequest data = new HttpRequest("http://www.somedomain.com/xml", "GET", this); data.start(); HttpRequest images = new HttpRequest("http://www.somedomain.com/xmlImages", "GET", this); images.start(); Since it will not treat this like an asynchronous request. I have not found much information on adding callbacks to httpRequest, or any other method I could use to ensure operation 2 does not execute until operation 1 is complete. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks

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• Selenium RC: Selecting elements using the CSS :contains pseudo-class

  - by Andrew

  I would like to assert that a table row contains the data that I expect in two different tables. Using the following HTML as an example: <table> <tr> <th>Table 1</th> </tr> <tr> <td>Row 1 Col 1</td> <td>Row 1 Col 2</td> </tr> </table> <table> <tr> <th>Table 2</th> </tr> <tr> <td>Row 1 Col 1</td> <td>different data</td> </tr> </table> The following assertion passes: $this->assertElementPresent('css=table:contains(Table 1)'); However, this one doesn't: $this->assertElementPresent('css=table:contains(Table 1) tr:contains(Row 1 Col 1)'); And ultimately, I need to be able to test that both columns within the table row contain the data that I expect: $this->assertElementPresent('css=table:contains(Table 1) tr:contains(Row 1 Col 1):contains(Row 1 Col 2)'); $this->assertElementPresent('css=table:contains(Table 2) tr:contains(Row 1 Col 1):contains(different data)'); What am I doing wrong? How can I achieve this? Update: Sounds like the problem is a bug in Selenium when trying to select descendants. The only way I was able to get this to work was to add an extra identifier on the table so I could tell which one I was working with: /* HTML */ <table id="table-1"> /* PHP */ $this->assertElementPresent("css=#table-1 tr:contains(Row 1 Col 1):contains(Row 1 Col 2)");

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• How do I tweak columns in a Flat File Destination in SSIS?

  - by theog

  I have an OLE DB Data source and a Flat File Destination in the Data Flow of my SSIS Project. The goal is simply to pump data into a text file, and it does that. Where I'm having problems is with the formatting. I need to be able to rtrim() a couple of columns to remove trailing spaces, and I have a couple more that need their leading zeros preserved. The current process is losing all the leading zeros. The rtrim() can be done by simple truncation and ignoring the truncation errors, but that's very inelegant and error prone. I'd like to find a better way, like actually doing the rtrim() function where needed. Exploring similar SSIS questions & answers on SO, the thing to do seems to be "Use a Script Task", but that's ususally just thrown out there with no details, and it's not at all an intuitive thing to set up. I don't see how to use scripting to do what I need. Do I use a Script Task on the Control Flow, or a Script Component in the Data Flow? Can I do rtrim() and pad strings where needed in a script? Anybody got an example of doing this or similar things? Many thanks in advance.

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• Zend_Auth and database session SaveHandler

  - by takeshin

  I have created Zend_Auth adapter implementing Zend_Auth_Adapter_Interface (similar to Pádraic's adapter) and created simple ACL plugin. Everything works fine with default session handler. So far, so good. As a next step I have created custom Session SaveHandler to persist session data in the database. My implementation is very similar to this one from parables-demo. Seems that everything is working fine. Session data are properly saved to the database, session objects are serialized, but authentication does not work when I enable this custom SaveHandler. I have debugged the authentication and all works fine up till the next request, when the authentication data are lost. I suspected, that is has something to do with the fact, that I use $adapter->write($object) instead $adapter->write($string), but the same happens with strings. I'm bootstrapping Zend_Application_Resource_Session in the first Bootstrap method, as early as possible. Does Zend_Auth need any extra configuration to persist data in the database? Why the authentity is being lost?

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• jquery function

  - by kevin

  Hello id like to get the current element firing this event inside the event, Ideally I need the id, selected value and class, Thanks in advance $(document).ready(function () { $("#positions select").live("change", function () { var id = $("#category_id").val(); //var id = this.val(); alert(id); $.getJSON("/Category/GetSubCategories/" + id, function (data) { if (data.length > 0) { alert(data.length); var position = document.getElementById('positions'); var tr = position.insertRow(7); var td1 = tr.insertCell(-1); var td = tr.insertCell(-1); var sel = document.createElement("select"); sel.name = 'sel'; sel.id = 'sel'; sel.setAttribute('class', 'category'); // $("positions select").live("change", function () { //}); td.appendChild(sel); $.each(data, function (GetSubCatergories, category) { $('#sel').append($("<option></option>"). attr("value", category.category_id). text(category.name)); }); } }); }); });

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• SQL Server INSERT, Scope_Identity() and physical writing to disc

  - by TheBlueSky

  Hello everyone, I have a stored procedure that does, among other stuff, some inserts in different table inside a loop. See the example below for clearer understanding: INSERT INTO T1 VALUES ('something') SET @MyID = Scope_Identity() ... some stuff go here INSERT INTO T2 VALUES (@MyID, 'something else') ... The rest of the procedure These two tables (T1 and T2) have an IDENTITY(1, 1) column in each one of them, let's call them ID1 and ID2; however, after running the procedure in our production database (very busy database) and having more than 6250 records in each table, I have noticed one incident where ID1 does not match ID2! Although normally for each record inserted in T1, there is record inserted in T2 and the identity column in both is incremented consistently. The "wrong" records were something like that: ID1 Col1 ---- --------- 4709 data-4709 4710 data-4710 ID2 ID1 Col1 ---- ---- --------- 4709 4710 data-4709 4710 4709 data-4710 Note the "inverted", ID1 in the second table. Knowing not that much about SQL Server underneath operations, I have put the following "theory", maybe someone can correct me on this. What I think is that because the loop is faster than physically writing to the table, and/or maybe some other thing delayed the writing process, the records were buffered. When it comes the time to write them, they were wrote in no particular order. Is that even possible if no, how to explain the above mentioned scenario? If yes, then I have another question to rise. What if the first insert (from the code above) got delayed? Doesn't that mean I won't get the correct IDENTITY to insert into the second table? If the answer of this is also yes, what can I do to insure the insertion in the two tables will happen in sequence with the correct IDENTITY? I appreciate any comment and information that help me understand this. Thanks in advance.

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• Why doesn't my dataset.AcceptChanges update some new rows i've added? C#

  - by user280139

  I have a dataset in a datagrid with some data in it. Recently I've been asked to add some data to that dataset along with some controls to save the data from. I've added a few textboxes, 1 combobox and 3 textboxes that function as viewing of some datetimepickers that I have to use for dates. I've chosen to use textboxes in combination with datetimepicker because I also need to get and set the value NULL to the database. The problem is that when i call dataset.AcceptChanges() on that dataset that is binded using databinding to those controls it doesn't update the data that's contained in those three textboxes and the combobox. All the new stuff i've added works just fine. txtDataAcordare.DataBindings.Clear(); txtDataAcordare.DataBindings.Add("Text",dtPersonal,"d_DataAcordare"); txtDataInceput.DataBindings.Clear(); txtDataInceput.DataBindings.Add("Text", dtPersonal, "d_DataInceput"); txtDataSfarsit.DataBindings.Clear(); txtDataSfarsit.DataBindings.Add("Text", dtPersonal, "d_DataSfarsit"); this is the code i use to add the databinding. I am then using the datetime picker event CloseUp() to add the date into the textbox: txtDataAcordare.Text = dtpDataAcordare.Text; txtDataAcordare.Visible = true; txtDataAcordare.BringToFront(); After all my fields are completed i call: dtPersonal.AcceptChanges(); and these three textboxes don't get saved! Help, please! dtpDataAcordare.SendToBack();

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• Parsing multiple files at a time in Perl

  - by sfactor

  I have a large data set (around 90GB) to work with. There are data files (tab delimited) for each hour of each day and I need to perform operations in the entire data set. For example, get the share of OSes which are given in one of the columns. I tried merging all the files into one huge file and performing the simple count operation but it was simply too huge for the server memory. So, I guess I need to perform the operation each file at a time and then add up in the end. I am new to perl and am especially naive about the performance issues. How do I do such operations in a case like this. As an example two columns of the file are. ID OS 1 Windows 2 Linux 3 Windows 4 Windows Lets do something simple, counting the share of the OSes in the data set. So, each .txt file has millions of these lines and there are many such files. What would be the most efficient way to operate on the entire files.

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• Is there a generic way of dealing with varying connection strings in C#?

  - by James Wiseman

  I have an application that needs to connect to a SQL database, and execute a SQL Agent Job. The connection string I am trying to access is stored in the registry, which is easily enough pulled out. This appliction is to be run on multiple computers, and I cannot guarantee the format of this connection string being consistent across these computers. Two that I have pulled out for example are: Data Source=Server1;Initial Catalog=DB1;Integrated Security=SSPI; Data Source=Server2;Initial Catalog=DB1;Provider=SQLNCLI.1;Integrated Security=SSPI;Auto Translate=False; I can use an object of type System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection to connect to the database with the first connection string, howevever, I get the following error when I pass the second to it: keyword not supported: 'provider' Similarly, I can use the an object of type System.Data.OleDb.OleDbConnection to connect to the database with the second connection string, howevever, I get the following error when I pass the first to it: An OLEDB Provider was not specified in the ConnectionString' I can solve this by scanning the string for 'Provider' and doing the connect conditionally, however I can't help but feel that there is a better way of doing this, and handle the connection strings in a more generic fashion. Does anyone have any suggestions?

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• Strange Sql Server 2005 behavior

  - by Justin C

  Background: I have a site built in ASP.NET with Sql Server 2005 as it's database. The site is the only site on a Windows Server 2003 box sitting in my clients server room. The client is a local school district, so for data security reasons there is no remote desktop access and no remote Sql Server connection, so if I have to service the database I have to be at the terminal. I do have FTP access to update ASP code. Problem: I was contacted yesterday about an issue with the system. When I looked in to it, it seems a bug that I had solved nearly a year ago had returned. I have a stored procedure that used to take an int as a parameter but a year ago we changed the structure of the system and updated the stored procedure to take an nvarchar(10). The stored procedure somehow changed back to taking an int instead of an nvarchar. There is an external hard drive connected to the server that copies data periodically and has the ability to restore the server in case of failure. I would have assumed that somehow an older version of the database had been restored, but data that I know was inserted 7 days and 1 day before the bug occurred is still in the database. Question: Is there anyway that the structure of a Sql Server 2005 database can revert to a previous version or be restored to a previous version without touching the actual data? No one else should have access to the server so I'm going a little insane trying to figure out how this even happened. Any ideas?

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• using jquery selector to change attribute in variable returned from ajax request

  - by Blake

  I'm trying to pull in a filename.txt (contains html) using ajax and change the src path in the data variable before I load it into the target div. If I first load it into the div the browser first requests the broken image and I don't want this so I would like to do my processing before I load anything onto the page. I can pull the src values fine but I can't change them. In this example the src values aren't changed. Is there a way to do this with selectors or can they only modify DOM elements? Otherwise I may have to do some regex replace but using a selector will be more convenient if possible. $.ajax( { url: getDate+'/'+name+'.txt', success: function(data) { $('img', data).attr('src', 'new_test_src'); $('#'+target).fadeOut('slow', function(){ $('#'+target).html(data); $('#'+target).fadeIn('slow'); }); } }); My reason is I'm building a fully standalone javascript template system for a newsletter and since images and other things are upload via a drupal web file manager I want the content creators to keep their paths very short and simple and I can then modify them before I load in the content. This will also be distributed on a CD so I can need to change the paths for that so they still work.

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• pushing view controller inside a tab bar from app delegate, after a notification.

  - by shani

  hi i have an app with tab bar and a navigation controller inside every tab. i have set a notification that when it lunches the user can get lunch the app by pressing the action on the alert. i want to redirect the user to one of the views inside one of the controllers. i have tried this: (void)application:(UIApplication *)app didReceiveLocalNotification:(UILocalNotification *)notif { NSArray *data = [notif.userInfo objectForKey:@"todoDate"]; NSInteger ind = [[data objectAtIndex:2] integerValue]; QuickViewController *detailViewController ; detailViewController = [[QuickViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"QuickViewController" bundle:nil]; detailViewController.title = @"Edit"; detailViewController.personName = [data objectAtIndex:0]; detailViewController.DelitionDate=[data objectAtIndex:1]; detailViewController.personCategory=@"NO Category"; detailViewController.personID = ind r ; rootControler.selectedIndex = 1; [rootControler.tabBarController.selectedViewController.navigationController pushViewController:detailViewController animated:YES]; } but nothing is happening (no crashing) except of the :rootControler.selectedIndex = 1; when i tried : presentModalViewController i got the view perfectly but without the navigation controller. thanks shani

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• Wnat is the preferred method of building extremely lightweight business object / DAL now that I have

  - by Seth Spearman

  Hello, I have completed a simple database for a project. Only 6tables. Of the 6, one is a "lookup" table. There is one "master" table that is the driver for the system. It is referenced as a foreign key by the other four tables. Give that this step is completed. What is the FASTEST, EASIEST way to create POCOs/BizObjects that can load load the data and the child data. Here are my CAVEATS. *I don't want to spend more than 30-60 minutes learning how? *There is very little biz logic needed in the POCOs. They will pretty much load data. Don't even really need to write back data. *I already know CSLA (up to version 3) but I feel that is overkill for this little project. *Nevertheless, I would love it if it ROOT objects could have collection classes that contain the CHILD objects as in CSLA...but again, without using CSLA. *Please give the answer for .NET 35 but also if I was restricted to only use .NET 20. *Ideally I could just point a tool at the database and the POCOs would be genn'ed. *FREE Just curious what you guys use for this kind of scenario. I understand that this question is subjective but I want to hear a variety of answers. Seth

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• jquery ajaxstart ajaxstop show hide

  - by user1630583

  As usually seemingly simple things take days to resolve, maybe someone could point me to a solution but after 2 days I give up on the following problem; In html, in a form I have a button that is supposed to trigger loading of data through ajax call: <button type="" class="btn" onclick="getData(); return false;">Show Data</button> in javascript: $(document).ajaxStart(function() { $("#qloader").show(); }).ajaxStop(function() { $("#qloader").hide('slow'); });? and in html div with id qloader is defined with 100% width and height and spinner centered as the background, z-index above other: <div id="qloader" class="myLoader" >&nbsp;</div> Now, when page loads, ajax call is executed to get initial data, qloader div is brought up and it shows the spinner - animated, after ajax call finishes, qloader is hidden by ajaxStop. Next, when I click on a button (show data) to initiate another ajax call, ajaxStart is triggered, but it does not show qloader, it waits until ajaxStop is triggered and then in a blink of eye it shows qloader and hides it. I suspected that ajaxStart is not executed, so I put alert before $("#qloader").show(), then alert would be displayed and after that qloader WOULD be displayed BUT spinner animation would be suspended - no spinning, and after ajaxStop it would get hidden. Without alert in ajaxStart trigger, in subsequent ajax calls div is not shown until just before ajaxStop is triggered. It works fine for the first ajax call, but for subsequent ajax call triggered by click on form button it does not work. Any idea what is wrong with this setup?

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• jQuery ajax form submit - how to ensure dynamically loaded form's action is used

  - by kenny99

  Hi, i'm having a problem with dynamically loaded forms - instead of using the action attribute of the newly loaded form, my jquery code is still using the action attribute of the first form loaded. I have the following code: //generic ajax form handler - calls next page load on success $('input.next:not(#eligibility)').live("click", function(){ $(".form_container form").validationEngine({ ajaxSubmit: true, ajaxSubmitFile: $(this).attr('action'), success : function() { var url = $('input.next').attr('rel'); ajaxFormStage(url); }, failure : function() { } }); }); But when the next form is loaded, the above code does not pick up the new action attribute. I have tried adding the above code to my callback on successful ajax load (shown below), but this doesn't make any difference. Can anyone help? Many thanks function ajaxFormStage(url) { var $data = $('#main_body #content'); $.validationEngine.closePrompt('body'); //close any validation messages $data.fadeOut('fast', function(){ $data.load(url, function(){ $data.animate({ opacity: 'show' }, 'fast'); '); //generic ajax form handler - calls next page load on success $('input.next:not(#eligibility)').live("click", function(){ $(".form_container form").validationEngine({ ajaxSubmit: true, ajaxSubmitFile: $(this).attr('action'), success : function() { var url = $('input.next').attr('rel'); ajaxFormStage(url); }, failure : function() { } }); }); }); });

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• Wrapping an additional element around an existing XDocument

  - by user1382827

  Let's say I have a converted HTML document, and I wanted to wrap an extra tag around the parent, so that I could read the head and body. How would I do that with C#? The file is used as an XDocument. change <html> <head> <!-- data --> </head> <body> <!-- data --> </body> </html> to <open> <html> <head> <!-- data --> </head> <body> <!-- data --> </body> </html> </open>

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• Index an array expression directly in PostgreSQL

  - by wich

  I'm trying to insert data into a table from a template table. I need to rewrite one of the columns for which I wanted to use a directly indexed array expression, but I can't seem to find how to do this, if it is even possible. The scenario: create table template ( id integer, index integer, foo integer); insert into template values (0, 1, 23), (0, 2, 18), (0, 3, 16), (0, 4, 7), (1, 1, 17), (1, 2, 26), (1, 3, 11), (1, 4, 3); create table data ( data_id integer, foo integer); Now what I'd like to do is the following: insert into data select (array[3,7,5,2])[index], foo from template where id = 1; But this doesn't work, the (array[3,7,5,2])[index] syntax isn't valid. I tried a few variants, but was unable to get anything working and wasn't able to find the correct syntax in the docs, nor even whether this is at all possible or not. As a current workaround I've devised the following, but it is less than ideal, from an elegance perspective at least, but it may also be a performance hit, I haven't looked into that yet. insert into data select arr[index], foo from template, (select array[3,7,5,2] as arr) as q where id = 1; If anyone could suggest a (better) alternative to accomplish this I'd like to hear that as well.

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• Filp route value in asp.net mvc routes

  - by Herman

  Hi all, I am new to asp.net mvc, so please bear with me. We have the following route dictionary setup. routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{language}/{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { language = "en", controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); for any given page in our app, we to render a link to the a french version of the same page. For example, the page: http://www.example.com/en/home should have link on that page that points to http://www.example.com/fr/home Now I have the following UrlHelper extension method public static string FilpLanguage(this UrlHelper urlHelper) { var data = urlHelper.RequestContext.RouteData; if (System.Threading.Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture == CultureInfo.GetCultureInfoByIetfLanguageTag("en-CA")) data.Values["language"] = "fr"; else data.Values["language"] = "en"; return urlHelper.RouteUrl(data.Values.Where(item => item.Value != null)); } However, calling FilpLanguage on www.example.com/en/home will return the following URL: www.example.com/en/home?current=[,] Am I missing something here? where did the current parameter come from? Thanks in advance.

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• How to update GUI thread/class from worker thread/class?

  - by user315182

  First question here so hello everyone. The requirement I'm working on is a small test application that communicates with an external device over a serial port. The communication can take a long time, and the device can return all sorts of errors. The device is nicely abstracted in its own class that the GUI thread starts to run in its own thread and has the usual open/close/read data/write data basic functions. The GUI is also pretty simple - choose COM port, open, close, show data read or errors from device, allow modification and write back etc. The question is simply how to update the GUI from the device class? There are several distinct types of data the device deals with so I need a relatively generic bridge between the GUI form/thread class and the working device class/thread. In the GUI to device direction everything works fine with [Begin]Invoke calls for open/close/read/write etc. on various GUI generated events. I've read the thread here (How to update GUI from another thread in C#?) where the assumption is made that the GUI and worker thread are in the same class. Google searches throw up how to create a delegate or how to create the classic background worker but that's not at all what I need, although they may be part of the solution. So, is there a simple but generic structure that can be used? My level of C# is moderate and I've been programming all my working life, given a clue I'll figure it out (and post back)... Thanks in advance for any help.

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• Solaris MySQL Unable to start successfully

  - by Iscariot

  Environment: Solaris 10 This mysql server has been up and running for 6 months now. Today all of a sudden it crashed. When typing 'mysql' as user it gives the error MYSQL" Error 2002 (HY000): Can't Connect to Local MySQL server though socket '/tmp/mysql.sock' when typing mysql as root it says mysql: not found. The server try to open mysql, it stays open for 9-10 seconds and restarts the process. Below are the application logs. Application-database-mysql_mysql-csk.log [ May 30 22:37:52 Enabled. ] [ May 30 22:37:58 Rereading configuration. ] [ May 30 22:37:59 Executing start method ("/opt/coolstack/lib/svc/method/svc-cskmysql start") ] /opt/coolstack/mysql/bin/mysqld_safe --user=mysql --datadir=/dbpool1/data --pid-file=/dbpool1/data/database.soliaonline.com.pid [ May 30 22:37:59 Method "start" exited with status 0 ] [ May 30 22:38:13 Stopping because all processes in service exited. ] [ May 30 22:38:13 Executing stop method ("/opt/coolstack/lib/svc/method/svc-cskmysql stop") ] [ May 30 22:38:13 Method "stop" exited with status 0 ] [ May 30 22:38:13 Executing start method ("/opt/coolstack/lib/svc/method/svc-cskmysql start") ] /opt/coolstack/mysql/bin/mysqld_safe --user=mysql --datadir=/dbpool1/data --pid-file=/dbpool1/data/database.soliaonline.com.pid [ May 30 22:38:13 Method "start" exited with status 0 ] [ May 30 22:38:25 Stopping because all processes in service exited. ] [ May 30 22:38:25 Executing stop method ("/opt/coolstack/lib/svc/method/svc-cskmysql stop") ] [ May 30 22:38:25 Method "stop" exited with status 0 ] I am hoping someone might have run into this before and might know how to fix it.

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