Search Results

Search found 41147 results on 1646 pages for 'database security'.

Page 762/1646 | < Previous Page | 758 759 760 761 762 763 764 765 766 767 768 769  | Next Page >

  • Is it possible to convert a 40-character SHA1 hash to a 20-character SHA1 hash?

    - by ewitch
    My problem is a bit hairy, and I may be asking the wrong questions, so please bear with me... I have a legacy MySQL database which stores the user passwords & salts for a membership system. Both of these values have been hashed using the Ruby framework - roughly like this: hashedsalt = Digest::SHA1.hexdigest("--#{Time.now.to_s}--#{login}--") hashedpassword = Digest::SHA1.hexdigest("#{hashedsalt}:#{password}") So both values are stored as 40-character strings (varchar(40)) in MySQL. Now I need to import all of these users into the ASP.NET membership framework for a new web site, which uses a SQL Server database. It is my understanding that the the way I have ASP.NET membership configured, the user passwords and salts are also stored in the membership database (in table aspnet_Membership) as SHA1 hashes, which are then Base64 encoded (see here for details) and stored as nvarchar(128) data. But from the length of the Base64 encoded strings that are stored (28 characters) it seems that the SHA1 hashes that ASP.NET membership generates are only 20 characters long, rather than 40. From some other reading I have been doing I am thinking this has to do with the number of bits per character/character set/encoding or something related. So is there some way to convert the 40-character SHA1 hashes to 20-character hashes which I can then transfer to the new ASP.NET membership data table? I'm pretty familiar with ASP.NET membership by now but I feel like I'm just missing this one piece. However, it may also be known that SHA1 in Ruby and SHA1 in .NET are incompatible, so I'm fighting a losing battle... Thanks in advance for any insight.

    Read the article

  • Subscription website architecture questions + SQL Server & .NET

    - by chopps
    Hey Guys, I have a few questions about the architecture of a subscription service I am about to embark on and I am looking for some feedback on how best to set it up. I won’t have a large amount of customers as Basecamp, maybe a few hundred and was wondering what would be a solid architecture for setting up the customer sites. I’m running SQL Server and .NET on a dedicated machine. Should create a new database for each customer as to have control and isolation of data or keep them all in one database? I am also thinking of creating a sub-domain for each customer as well so modifications can be made to each site as needed. The customer URLs would look like this: https://customer1.foobar.com https://customer2.foobar.com I am going to have the ability to ‘plug-in’ reports that will be uploaded to the site so each customer can customize as needed. Off the top of my head this necessitates having each sub domain on its own code-base for the uploading of these reports. So on the main site the customer would sign up for their new subscription and I would programmatically create a new directory for the customer from the main code base and then create a sub domain pointing to the new directory for the customer and then finally their database. Does this sound about right? Am I on the right track? How do other such sites accomplish the same thing? Thanks for letting me bend your ear for a bit on this.

    Read the article

  • What are the reasons to store documents into DBMS when using Alfresco CMS

    - by Julia
    Hello guys! I have interview for an internship with company that wants to implement document management system and they are considering on the first place open source solutions, their top choice being Alfresco, but decision is still not final, part of my work there would be to investigate is Alfresco the best solution. What I have seen from project description, is that they would implement Alfresco with MySQL database, and not to use DBMS just for document metadata and indexing, but they actually want to store documents inside. By company profile, type of documents would be mostly PDF and .doc, not images. I have researched a bit, and I have read all the topics here related to storing files into the database, not to duplicate a question. So from what I understand, storing BLOBS is generally not recomendable, and by the profile of the company and their legal obligations with archiving, I see they will have to store larger amount of docs. I would like to be ready as much as I can for the interview and that is why I would like your opinion on these questions: What will be your reasons for deciding to store documents into the DBMS, (especially having in mind that you are installing Alfresco, which stores files in the FS)??? Do you have any experiences with storing documents into the MySQL database specifically??? All the help is very much appreciated, I am really excited about interview and really want this internship, so this is one of things i really want to understand before!! Thank you!!!!

    Read the article

  • Asp.net web forms, Asp Identity - how to store claims from Facebook, Twitter, etc

    - by user2959352
    This request is based upon the new Visual Studio 2013 integration of Asp.net Identity stuff. I have seen some of the posts regarding this question for MVC, but for the life of me cannot get it to work for standard Web Forms. What I'm trying to do is populate the AspNetUserClaims table from the claims that I get back from Facebook (or other service). I actually can see the values coming back in the OnAuthenticated below, but cannot for the life of me figure out how to add these claims to the context of the currently logged in user? There are literally hundreds of MVC examples surrounding this, but alas no Web Forms examples. This should be completely straightforward, but for some reason I cannot match up the context of the currently logged in user to the claims and credentials coming back from Facebook. Currently after the OnAuthenticated fires, it obviously returns me to the page (RegisterExternalLogin.aspx) as the built-in example provides. However, the claims are gone, the context of the login to Facebook is gone, and I can't do anything else at this point. So the ultimate question is, HOW does one populate the claims FROM Facebook into the AspNetUserClaims table based upon the context of the currently logged in user WITHOUT using MVC? var fboptions = new FacebookAuthenticationOptions(); fboptions.AppId = "xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx"; fboptions.AppSecret = "yyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyy"; fboptions.Scope.Add("email"); fboptions.Scope.Add("friends_about_me"); fboptions.Scope.Add("friends_photos"); fboptions.Provider = new FacebookAuthenticationProvider() { OnAuthenticated = (context) => { foreach (var v in context.User) { context.Identity.AddClaim(new System.Security.Claims.Claim(v.Key, v.Value.ToString())); } context.Identity.AddClaim(new System.Security.Claims.Claim("FacebookAccessToken", context.AccessToken)); return Task.FromResult(0); }, }; app.UseFacebookAuthentication(fboptions);

    Read the article

  • Perl - MySQL connection problem in windows

    - by dexter
    I have two folders php and perl they contain index.php and index.pl respectivly in index.pl my perl code looks like: #!/usr/bin/perl use Mysql; print "Content-type: text/html\n\n"; print "<h2>PERL-mySQL Connect</h2>"; print "page info"; $host = "localhost"; $database = "cdcol"; $user = "root"; $password = ""; $db = Mysql->connect($host, $database, $user, $password); $db->selectdb($database); when i run above code (ie type: http://localhost:88/perl/ in browser) following error comes Error message: Can't locate Mysql.pm in @INC (@INC contains: C:/xampp/perl/site/lib/ C:/xampp/perl/lib C:/xampp/perl/site/lib C:/xampp/apache) at C:/xampp/htdocs/perl/index.pl line 2. BEGIN failed--compilation aborted at C:/xampp/htdocs/perl/index.pl line 2. while this works: in browser http://localhost:88/php/ where index.php has: <?php $con = mysql_connect("localhost","root",""); if($con) { if(mysql_select_db("cdcol", $con)) { $sql="SELECT Id From products"; if(mysql_query($sql)) { $result = mysql_query($sql); if ($result)............

    Read the article

  • CLR Stored Procedures

    - by Paul Hatcherian
    In an ASP.NET application, I have a small number of fairly complex, frequently used operations to execute against a database. In these operations, one or more of several tables needs updates or inserts based a logical evaluation of both input parameters and values of certain tables. I've maintained a separation of logic and data access, so the operation currently looks like this: Request received from client Business layer invokes data layer to retrieve data from database Business layer processes result and determines which operation to execute Business layer invokes appropriate data operation Response sent to client As you can see, the client is kept waiting while two separate requests are made to the database. In searching for a solution to this, I've found CLR Stored Procedures, but I'm not sure if I have the right idea about what they are useful for. I have written a replacement for the code above which especially places steps 2-4 in a CLR SP. My understanding is that the SP will be executed locally by SQL Server and result in only one call being made to the server. My initial benchmark tests show this is actually orders of magnitude slower than my original code, but I attribute that recompilation of the code I have not worked out yet and/or some flaw in my environment. My question is basically, is this the intended use of CLR SPs or am I missing something? I realize this is a bit of a compromise structurally, so if there's a better way to do it I'd love to hear it.

    Read the article

  • Avoid the problem with BigDecimal when migrating to Java 1.4 to Java 1.5+

    - by romaintaz
    Hello, I've recently migrated a Java 1.4 application to a Java 6 environment. Unfortunately, I encountered a problem with the BigDecimal storage in a Oracle database. To summarize, when I try to store a "7.65E+7" BigDecimal value (76,500,000.00) in the database, Oracle stores in reality the value of 7,650,000.00. This defect is due to the rewritting of the BigDecimal class in Java 1.5 (see here). In my code, the BigDecimal was created from a double using this kind of code: BigDecimal myBD = new BigDecimal("" + someDoubleValue); someObject.setAmount(myBD); // Now let Hibernate persists my object in DB... In more than 99% of the cases, everything works fine. Except that in really few case, the bug mentioned above occurs. And that's quite annoying. If I change the previous code to avoid the use of the String constructor of BigDecimal, then I do not encounter the bug in my uses cases: BigDecimal myBD = new BigDecimal(someDoubleValue); someObject.setAmount(myBD); // Now let Hibernate persists my object in DB... However, how can I be sure that this solution is the correct way to handle the use of BigDecimal? So my question is to know how I have to manage my BigDecimal values to avoid this issue: Do not use the new BigDecimal(String) constructor and use directly the new BigDecimal(double)? Force Oracle to use toPlainString() instead of toString() method when dealing with BigDecimal (and in this case how to do that)? Any other solution? Environment information: Java 1.6.0_14 Hibernate 2.1.8 (yes, it is a quite old version) Oracle JDBC 9.0.2.0 and also tested with 10.2.0.3.0 Oracle database 10.2.0.3.0

    Read the article

  • Inserting new <TD> elements into a table row.

    - by Hunter S. Smythe
    I have created a small application written in XHTML, JavaScript/JQuery and PHP. The PHP reads and writes to a small SQLite database. How would i go about inserting cells into a pre-scripted table. The cells would need to be configured using some information from my database. For example, below are two cells with their data retrieved from my database: Cell One Starts: 120px; Finishes: 180px; Background: Blue; Cell Two Starts: 240px; Finishes: 300px; Background: Green; On my table row, it is 500px in width. How would I insert the cells above into the row. In this example, the first cell would start 120px into the row and have a width of 180px. The second cell would start 240px into the row and have a width of 300px. I just cant seem to work out a way of doing this, any ideas would be very helpful. Thank you for any input, all is appreciated. Hunter.

    Read the article

  • Java to JavaScript (Encryption related)

    - by balexandre
    Hi guys, I'm having difficulties to get the same string in Javascript and I'm thinking that I'm doing something wrong... Java code: import java.io.UnsupportedEncodingException; import java.security.MessageDigest; import java.security.NoSuchAlgorithmException; import java.util.Date; import java.util.GregorianCalendar; import sun.misc.BASE64Encoder; private static String getBase64Code(String input) throws UnsupportedEncodingException, NoSuchAlgorithmException { String base64 = ""; byte[] txt = input.getBytes("UTF8"); byte[] text = new byte[txt.length+3]; text[0] = (byte)239; text[1] = (byte)187; text[2] = (byte)191; for(int i=0; i<txt.length; i++) text[i+3] = txt[i]; MessageDigest md = MessageDigest.getInstance("MD5"); md.update(text); byte digest[] = md.digest(); BASE64Encoder encoder = new BASE64Encoder(); base64 = encoder.encode(digest); return base64; } I'm trying this using Paj's MD5 script as well Farhadi Base 64 Encode script but my tests fail completely :( my code: function CalculateCredentialsSecret(type, user, pwd) { var days = days_between(new Date(), new Date(2000, 1, 1)); var str = type.toUpperCase() + user.toUpperCase() + pwd.toUpperCase() + days; var md5 = hex_md5(str); var b64 = base64Encode(md5); return encodeURIComponent(b64); } Does anyone know how can I convert this Java method into a Javascript one? Thank you Tests (for today, 3740 days after January 1st, 2000 var secret = CalculateCredentialsSecret('AAA', 'BBB', 'CCC'); // secret SHOULD be: S3GYAfGWlmrhuoNsIJF94w==

    Read the article

  • Problems referencing build output from TFS Build and Visual Studio

    - by pmdarrow
    Here's what I'm trying to do: I have two solutions - one for my main application and its associated projects and another for my database (VS .dbproj) and its associated projects. What I'd like to do is include the output from the database project (a .dbschema and some SQL scripts) in my WiX installer (which exists in the main application solution.) This involves having TFS build the DB solution immediately before the main application solution. I've got that part working properly, but I'm having trouble referencing the output of the DB solution from my installer. I'm using relative paths to reference the DB project output in my WiX installer (e.g. <?define DBProjectOutputDir = "..\..\MyDatabaseSolution\MyDatabaseProject\sql\"?>) which works fine locally, but fails when building via TFS build. This is because TFS Build apparently changes the output dir of each project to one common location. Instead of the path to my database project being ..\..\MyDatabaseSolution\MyDatabaseProject\sql\ like it is when building locally, it gets set to something like ..\..\..\Binaries\Release\. How can I get around this and have a consistent output location to reference from my installer project? I'm using TFS 2005 and VS 2008.

    Read the article

  • JAAS and WebLogic 10.3: Granting specific codebase permissions to a JAR bundled within an EAR

    - by Jason
    Here's my scenario: I have a JAR within the APP-INF/lib of my EAR, to be deployed within WebLogic 10g Release 3 against which I wish to grant specific permissions. e.g., grant codebase "file:/c:/somedir/my.jar" { permission java.net.SocketPermission "*:-","accept,connect,listen, resolve"; permission java.net.SocketPermission "localhost:-","accept,connect,listen,resolve"; permission java.net.SocketPermission "127.0.0.1:-","accept,connect,listen,resolve"; permission java.net.SocketPermission "230.0.0.1:-","accept,connect,listen,resolve"; permission java.util.PropertyPermission "*", "read,write"; permission java.lang.RuntimePermission "*"; permission java.io.FilePermission "<<ALL FILES>>","read,write,delete"; permission javax.security.auth.AuthPermission "*"; permission java.security.SecurityPermission "*"; }; Questions: Where is the best place to define this grant - in the java.policy of the JRE, WL server's weblogic.policy, or within a XML packaged within the EAR How do I define the codebase URL to the JAR? The examples I have seen have an explicit reference to the JAR on the file system, however I am deploying the JAR packaged up within an EAR. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Dropping all user tables/sequences in Oracle

    - by Ambience
    As part of our build process and evolving database, I'm trying to create a script which will remove all of the tables and sequences for a user. I don't want to do recreate the user as this will require more permissions than allowed. My script creates a procedure to drop the tables/sequences, executes the procedure, and then drops the procedure. I'm executing the file from sqlplus: drop.sql: create or replace procedure drop_all_cdi_tables is cur integer; begin cur:= dbms_sql.OPEN_CURSOR(); for t in (select table_name from user_tables) loop execute immediate 'drop table ' ||t.table_name|| ' cascade constraints'; end loop; dbms_sql.close_cursor(cur); cur:= dbms_sql.OPEN_CURSOR(); for t in (select sequence_name from user_sequences) loop execute immediate 'drop sequence ' ||t.sequence_name; end loop; dbms_sql.close_cursor(cur); end; / execute drop_all_cdi_tables; / drop procedure drop_all_cdi_tables; / Unfortunately, dropping the procedure causes a problem. There seems to cause a race condition and the procedure is dropped before it executes. E.g.: SQL*Plus: Release 11.1.0.7.0 - Production on Tue Mar 30 18:45:42 2010 Copyright (c) 1982, 2008, Oracle. All rights reserved. Connected to: Oracle Database 11g Enterprise Edition Release 11.1.0.7.0 - 64bit Production With the Partitioning, OLAP, Data Mining and Real Application Testing options Procedure created. PL/SQL procedure successfully completed. Procedure created. Procedure dropped. drop procedure drop_all_user_tables * ERROR at line 1: ORA-04043: object DROP_ALL_USER_TABLES does not exist SQL Disconnected from Oracle Database 11g Enterprise Edition Release 11.1.0.7.0 - 64 With the Partitioning, OLAP, Data Mining and Real Application Testing options Any ideas on how to get this working?

    Read the article

  • ASP.Net Forms authentication provider issue

    - by George2
    Hello everyone, I am using VSTS 2008 + .Net 3.5 + ASP.Net to develop a simple web application. And I am using Forms authentication for my web site (I use command aspnet_regsql.exe to create a new database in SQL Server 2008 Enterprise to host database for Forms Authentication. I am not using SQL Server Express.). I am learning Forms authentication from here, http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff648345.aspx#paght000022_usingthesqlmembershipprovider my question is for the name of membership defaultProvider, the value must be "SqlProvider"? Or I can use any arbitrary name, for example like this (I replace the value "SqlProvider" to "MyTestSqlProvider")? <connectionStrings> <add name="MySqlConnection" connectionString="Data Source=MySqlServer;Initial Catalog=aspnetdb;Integrated Security=SSPI;" /> </connectionStrings> <system.web> ... <membership defaultProvider="MyTestSqlProvider" userIsOnlineTimeWindow="15"> <providers> <clear /> <add name="MyTestSqlProvider" type="System.Web.Security.SqlMembershipProvider" connectionStringName="MySqlConnection" applicationName="MyApplication" enablePasswordRetrieval="false" enablePasswordReset="true" requiresQuestionAndAnswer="true" requiresUniqueEmail="true" passwordFormat="Hashed" /> </providers> </membership> thanks in advance, George

    Read the article

  • Why do I have to unserialize this serialized value twice? (wordpress/bbpress maybe_serialize)

    - by 55skidoo
    What am I doing wrong here? I'm serializing a value, storing it in a database (table bb_meta), retrieving it... OK so far... but then I have to unserialize it twice. Shouldn't I be able to just unserialize once? This seems to work, but I'm wondering what point about serialization I'm missing here. //check database to see if user has ever visited before. $querystring = $bbdb->prepare( "SELECT `meta_value` FROM `$bbdb->meta` WHERE `object_type` = %s AND `object_id` = %s AND `meta_key` = %s LIMIT 1", $bbtype, $bb_this_thread, $bbuser ); $bb_last_visits = $bbdb->get_row($querystring, OBJECT); //if $bb_last_visits is empty, add time() as the metavalue using bb_update_meta if (empty($bb_last_visits)) { $first_visit = time(); echo 'serialized first visit: ' . $bb_this_visit_time_serialized = serialize(array($bb_this_thread => $first_visit)); bb_update_meta( $bb_this_thread, $bbuser, $bb_this_visit_time_serialized, $bbtype ); //add to database, bb_meta table echo '$bb_last_visits was empty. Setting first visit time as ' . $bb_this_visit_time_serialized . '<br>'; } else { //else, test by unserializing the data for use. echo 'last visit time already set: '; echo $bb_last_visits->meta_value; echo '<br>'; //fatal error - echo 'unserialized: ' . $bb_last_visits_unserialized = unserialize($bb_last_visits[0]->meta_value); echo '<br>'; echo 'unserialize: ' . $unserialized_visits = unserialize($bb_last_visits->meta_value); echo '<br>'; echo 'hmm, need to unserialize again??: '; echo $unserialized_unserialized_visits = unserialize($unserialized_visits); echo '<br>'; echo 'hey look, it\'s an array value I can finally use now. phew: ' . $unserialized_unserialized_visits[$bb_this_thread]; }

    Read the article

  • Why do I have to unserialize this serialized value twice?

    - by 55skidoo
    What am I doing wrong here? I'm serializing a value, storing it in a database (table bb_meta), retrieving it... OK so far... but then I have to unserialize it twice. Shouldn't I be able to just unserialize once? This seems to work, but I'm wondering what point about serialization I'm missing here. //check database to see if user has ever visited before. $querystring = $bbdb->prepare( "SELECT `meta_value` FROM `$bbdb->meta` WHERE `object_type` = %s AND `object_id` = %s AND `meta_key` = %s LIMIT 1", $bbtype, $bb_this_thread, $bbuser ); $bb_last_visits = $bbdb->get_row($querystring, OBJECT); //if $bb_last_visits is empty, add time() as the metavalue using bb_update_meta if (empty($bb_last_visits)) { $first_visit = time(); echo 'serialized first visit: ' . $bb_this_visit_time_serialized = serialize(array($bb_this_thread => $first_visit)); bb_update_meta( $bb_this_thread, $bbuser, $bb_this_visit_time_serialized, $bbtype ); //add to database, bb_meta table echo '$bb_last_visits was empty. Setting first visit time as ' . $bb_this_visit_time_serialized . '<br>'; } else { //else, test by unserializing the data for use. echo 'last visit time already set: '; echo $bb_last_visits->meta_value; echo '<br>'; //fatal error - echo 'unserialized: ' . $bb_last_visits_unserialized = unserialize($bb_last_visits[0]->meta_value); echo '<br>'; echo 'unserialize: ' . $unserialized_visits = unserialize($bb_last_visits->meta_value); echo '<br>'; echo 'hmm, need to unserialize again??: '; echo $unserialized_unserialized_visits = unserialize($unserialized_visits); echo '<br>'; echo 'hey look, it\'s an array value I can finally use now. phew: ' . $unserialized_unserialized_visits[$bb_this_thread]; }

    Read the article

  • Find actual value of PHP variable

    - by Simon S
    Hi all. I am having a real headache with reading in a tab delimited text file and inserting it into a MySQL Database. The tab delimited text file was generated (I think) from a MS SQL Database, and I have written a simple script to read in the file and insert it into an existing table in my MySQL database. However, there seems to be some problem with the data in the txt file. When my PHP script parses the file and I output the INSERT statements, the values in each of the fields are longer than they should be. For example, the first field should be a simple two character alphanumeric value. If I echo out the INSERT statements, using Firebug (in Firefox), between each of the characters is a question mark in a black diamond. If I var_dump the values, I get the following: string(5) "A1" Now, this clearly shows a two character string, but var_dump tells me it is five characters long!! If I trim() the value, all I get is the first character (in this case "A"). How can I get at the other characters, even if it is only to remove them? Additionally, this appears to be forcing MySQL to insert the value as a BLOB, not as a varchar as it should. Simon

    Read the article

  • Slow MySQL Query not using filesort

    - by Canadaka
    I have a query on my homepage that is getting slower and slower as my database table grows larger. tablename = tweets_cache rows = 572,327 this is the query I'm currently using that is slow, over 5 seconds. SELECT * FROM tweets_cache t WHERE t.province='' AND t.mp='0' ORDER BY t.published DESC LIMIT 50; If I take out either the WHERE or the ORDER BY, then the query is super fast 0.016 seconds. I have the following indexes on the tweets_cache table. PRIMARY published mp category province author So i'm not sure why its not using the indexes since mp, provice and published all have indexes? Doing a profile of the query shows that its not using an index to sort the query and is using filesort which is really slow. possible_keys = mp,province Extra = Using where; Using filesort I tried adding a new multie-colum index with "profiles & mp". The explain shows that this new index listed under "possible_keys" and "key", but the query time is unchanged, still over 5 seconds. Here is a screenshot of the profiler info on the query. http://i355.photobucket.com/albums/r469/canadaka_bucket/slow_query_profile.png Something weird, I made a dump of my database to test on my local desktop so i don't screw up the live site. The same query on my local runs super fast, milliseconds. So I copied all the same mysql startup variables from the server to my local to make sure there wasn't some setting that might be causing this. But even after that the local query runs super fast, but the one on the live server is over 5 seconds. My database server is only using around 800MB of the 4GB it has available. here are the related my.ini settings i'm using default-storage-engine = MYISAM max_connections = 800 skip-locking key_buffer = 512M max_allowed_packet = 1M table_cache = 512 sort_buffer_size = 4M read_buffer_size = 4M read_rnd_buffer_size = 16M myisam_sort_buffer_size = 64M thread_cache_size = 8 query_cache_size = 128M # Try number of CPU's*2 for thread_concurrency thread_concurrency = 8 # Disable Federated by default skip-federated key_buffer = 512M sort_buffer_size = 256M read_buffer = 2M write_buffer = 2M key_buffer = 512M sort_buffer_size = 256M read_buffer = 2M write_buffer = 2M

    Read the article

  • Internal bug tracking tickets - Redmine, Trac, or JIRA

    - by Tai Squared
    I've been looking at setting up Redmine, Trac, or JIRA to track issues. I want to be able to have my development team create internal tickets that are never seen by clients, while clients can create/edit tickets that are seen by the internal team. From the Trac documentation, you can set permissions to create or view tickets, but it doesn't seem to allow for viewing only certain tickets. It may be possible with Trac Fine Grained Permissions, but doesn't appear so. The Redmine documentation mentions: Define your own roles and set their permissions in a click but doesn't appear to have the level of granularity. From the JIRA documentation: At the moment JIRA is only able to support security at a project level or issue level. Currently there is no field level security available. According to this question, Redmine doesn't support internal tickets, so you would have to use multiple projects. I don't want a situation where I would have to create multiple projects - one internal, one external and have the external tickets brought into the internal repository. It seems as this would lead to unnecessary overhead and inevitably, the projects wouldn't be in sync. Is there any way with any of these products (possibly through a plug-in if not in the core product itself) to specify these permissions, or simplify having two projects with different users and permissions that must still share information?

    Read the article

  • Debugging Django project problem.

    - by Wasim
    Hi all, I asked this question before, but had no replies, maybe I wasn't so clear. I'm trying to debug a django project using MySQL database. If I run the admin or trying to use the shell to communicate to the data base every thing is well and I can do every thing. I installed MySQLdb for Python 2.6. I installed PyDev on my Apatana studio. Configured the Debugging with runserver 8001 --noreload. When I start debugging , When I arrive to the following code in C:\Python26\Lib\site-packages\django\db\backends\mysql\base.py try: import MySQLdb as Database except ImportError, e: from django.core.exceptions import ImproperlyConfigured raise ImproperlyConfigured("Error loading MySQLdb module: %s" % e) I get an import error : django.core.exceptions.ImproperlyConfigured: Error loading MySQLdb module: DLL load failed: The specified module could not be found. I trying to ge more deeply with the import MySQLdb as Database line , it goes to the C:\Python26\Lib\site-packages\MySQLdb__init__.py and fail in the line import _mysql. I can't understand the problem. When running the Django admin every thing is ok, but with debugging it fails to work. Any help please. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • using jquery growl with php/mysql

    - by jeansymolanza
    on my database i am planning to create a table storing messages to alert users of anything they need to do. i am looking at using a jQuery growl like notification method but im confused at how i would begin building it. the data would be added into the database using the standard MYSQL insert method from a form but how would i select messages from the database to display using the jQuery growl. would this require the use of ajax? this is the javascript code i have so far, i was wondering how i would implement the php code alongside it so that i can pull out data from my tables to display as notifications: <script type="text/javascript"> // In case you don't have firebug... if (!window.console || !console.firebug) { var names = ["log", "debug", "info", "warn", "error", "assert", "dir", "dirxml", "group", "groupEnd", "time", "timeEnd", "count", "trace", "profile", "profileEnd"]; window.console = {}; for (var i = 0; i < names.length; ++i) window.console[names[i]] = function() {}; } (function($){ $(document).ready(function(){ // This specifies how many messages can be pooled out at any given time. // If there are more notifications raised then the pool, the others are // placed into queue and rendered after the other have disapeared. $.jGrowl.defaults.pool = 5; var i = 1; var y = 1; setInterval( function() { if ( i < 3 ) { $.jGrowl("Message " + i, { sticky: true, log: function() { console.log("Creating message " + i + "..."); }, beforeOpen: function() { console.log("Rendering message " + y + "..."); y++; } }); } i++; } , 1000 ); }); })(jQuery); </script> <p> thanking you in advance and God bless

    Read the article

  • Getting the first result from a LINQ query - why does ElementAt<T>(0) fails when First<T>() succeeds

    - by Mr Roys
    I have a method AddStudent() which looks for a student with the same name and returns an existing student from the database if there is a student with the same name, otherwise it creates a new student and adds it to the database. I'm curious why se = students.First<StudentEntity>(); succeeds when se = students.ElementAt<StudentEntity>(0); fails when I try to get the first result from the LINQ query. Aren't the two methods the same? The full code for the method is shown below. public Student AddStudent(string name) { using (SchoolEntities db = new SchoolEntities()) { // find student with same name via LINQ var students = from s in db.StudentEntitySet where s.name == name select s; StudentEntity se = default(StudentEntity); // if student with the same name is already present, return // that student if (students.Count<StudentEntity>() > 0) { // if i use ElementAt, if fails with a "LINQ to Entities does not // recognize the method 'StudentEntity ElementAt[StudentEntity] // (System.Linq.IQueryable`1[StudentEntity], Int32)' method, // and this method cannot be translated into a store expression.", // but not when I use First. Why? // se = students.ElementAt<StudentEntity>(0); se = students.First<StudentEntity>(); } else { // passing 0 for first parameter (id) since it's represented by // a BigInt IDENTITY field in the database so any value // doesn't matter. se = StudentEntity.CreateStudentEntity(0, name); db.AddToStudentEntitySet(se); db.SaveChanges(); } // create a Student object from the Entity object return new Student(se); } } Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Help me understand entity framework 4 caching for lazy loading

    - by Chris
    I am getting some unexpected behaviour with entity framework 4.0 and I am hoping someone can help me understand this. I am using the northwind database for the purposes of this question. I am also using the default code generator (not poco or self tracking). I am expecting that anytime I query the context for the framework to only make a round trip if I have not already fetched those objects. I do get this behaviour if I turn off lazy loading. Currently in my application I am breifly turning on lazy loading and then turning it back off so I can get the desired behaviour. That pretty much sucks, so please help. Here is a good code example that can demonstrate my problem. Public Sub ManyRoundTrips() context.ContextOptions.LazyLoadingEnabled = True Dim employees As List(Of Employee) = context.Employees.Execute(System.Data.Objects.MergeOption.AppendOnly).ToList() 'makes unnessesary round trip to the database, I just loaded the employees' MessageBox.Show(context.Employees.Where(Function(x) x.EmployeeID < 10).ToList().Count) context.Orders.Execute(System.Data.Objects.MergeOption.AppendOnly) For Each emp As Employee In employees 'makes unnessesary trip to database every time despite orders being pre loaded.' Dim i As Integer = emp.Orders.Count Next End Sub Public Sub OneRoundTrip() context.ContextOptions.LazyLoadingEnabled = True Dim employees As List(Of Employee) = context.Employees.Include("Orders").Execute(System.Data.Objects.MergeOption.AppendOnly).ToList() MessageBox.Show(employees.Where(Function(x) x.EmployeeID < 10).ToList().Count) For Each emp As Employee In employees Dim i As Integer = emp.Orders.Count Next End Sub Why is the first block of code making unnessesary round trips?

    Read the article

  • having trouble disabling textbox in vb.net

    - by user225269
    How do I disable a textbox the second time? here is my code, In form load the textbox is disabled, unless the user will input an idnumber that is in the database. But what if the user will input an idnumber that is in the database then, input again another that is not, That is where this code comes in, but it has problems, it doesnt disable the textbox in the event of a mouse click, what would be the proper way of doing this? Private Sub Button12_MouseClick(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.MouseEventArgs) Handles Button12.MouseClick Dim NoAcc As String Dim NoAccmod2 As String Dim NoPas As String Dim sqlcon As New MySqlConnection("Server=localhost; Database=school;Uid=root;Pwd=nitoryolai123$%^;") Dim sqlcom As MySqlCommand = New MySqlCommand("Select * from student where IDNO= '" & TextBox14.Text & "' ", sqlcon) sqlcon.Open() Dim rdr As MySqlDataReader rdr = sqlcom.ExecuteReader If rdr.HasRows Then rdr.Read() NoAcc = rdr("IDNO") If (TextBox14.Text <> NoAcc) Then MsgBox("ID Number is not yet registered!, please register first in the general information before trying to register parents information", MsgBoxStyle.Information) TextBox7.Enabled = False TextBox8.Enabled = False TextBox9.Enabled = False TextBox10.Enabled = False TextBox11.Enabled = False TextBox12.Enabled = False TextBox13.Enabled = False End If End If

    Read the article

  • Can't bind string containing @ char with mysqli_stmt_bind_param

    - by Tirithen
    I have a problem with my database class. I have a method that takes one prepared statement and any number of parameters, binds them to the statement, executes the statement and formats the result into a multidimentional array. Everthing works fine until I try to include an email adress in one of the parameters. The email contains an @ character and that one seems to break everything. When I supply with parameters: $types = "ss" and $parameters = array("[email protected]", "testtest") I get the error: Warning: Parameter 3 to mysqli_stmt_bind_param() expected to be a reference, value given in ...db/Database.class.php on line 63 Here is the method: private function bindAndExecutePreparedStatement(&$statement, $parameters, $types) { if(!empty($parameters)) { call_user_func_array('mysqli_stmt_bind_param', array_merge(array($statement, $types), &$parameters)); /*foreach($parameters as $key => $value) { mysqli_stmt_bind_param($statement, 's', $value); }*/ } $result = array(); $statement->execute() or debugLog("Database error: ".$statement->error); $rows = array(); if($this->stmt_bind_assoc($statement, $row)) { while($statement->fetch()) { $copied_row = array(); foreach($row as $key => $value) { if($value !== null && mb_substr($value, 0, 1, "UTF-8") == NESTED) { // If value has a nested result inside $value = mb_substr($value, 1, mb_strlen($value, "UTF-8") - 1, "UTF-8"); $value = $this->parse_nested_result_value($value); } $copied_row[$ke<y] = $value; } $rows[] = $copied_row; } } // Generate result $result['rows'] = $rows; $result['insert_id'] = $statement->insert_id; $result['affected_rows'] = $statement->affected_rows; $result['error'] = $statement->error; return $result; } I have gotten one suggestion that: the array_merge is casting parameter to string in the merge change it to &$parameters so it remains a reference So I tried that (3rd line of the method), but it did not do any difference. How should I do? Is there a better way to do this without call_user_func_array?

    Read the article

  • What is the difference between using MD5.Create and MD5CryptoServiceProvider?

    - by byte
    In the .NET framework there are a couple of ways to calculate an MD5 hash it seems, however there is something I don't understand; What is the distinction between the following? What sets them apart from eachother? They seem to product identical results: public static string GetMD5Hash(string str) { MD5CryptoServiceProvider md5 = new MD5CryptoServiceProvider(); byte[] bytes = ASCIIEncoding.Default.GetBytes(str); byte[] encoded = md5.ComputeHash(bytes); StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); for (int i = 0; i < encoded.Length; i++) sb.Append(encoded[i].ToString("x2")); return sb.ToString(); } public static string GetMD5Hash2(string str) { System.Security.Cryptography.MD5 md5 = System.Security.Cryptography.MD5.Create(); byte[] bytes = Encoding.Default.GetBytes(str); byte[] encoded = md5.ComputeHash(bytes); StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); for (int i = 0; i < encoded.Length; i++) sb.Append(encoded[i].ToString("x2")); return sb.ToString(); }

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 758 759 760 761 762 763 764 765 766 767 768 769  | Next Page >