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  • f# pattern matching with types

    - by philbrowndotcom
    I'm trying to recursively print out all an objects properties and sub-type properties etc. My object model is as follows... type suggestedFooWidget = { value: float ; hasIncreasedSinceLastPeriod: bool ; } type firmIdentifier = { firmId: int ; firmName: string ; } type authorIdentifier = { authorId: int ; authorName: string ; firm: firmIdentifier ; } type denormalizedSuggestedFooWidgets = { id: int ; ticker: string ; direction: string ; author: authorIdentifier ; totalAbsoluteWidget: suggestedFooWidget ; totalSectorWidget: suggestedFooWidget ; totalExchangeWidget: suggestedFooWidget ; todaysAbsoluteWidget: suggestedFooWidget ; msdAbsoluteWidget: suggestedFooWidget ; msdSectorWidget: suggestedFooWidget ; msdExchangeWidget: suggestedFooWidget ; } And my recursion is based on the following pattern matching... let rec printObj (o : obj) (sb : StringBuilder) (depth : int) let props = o.GetType().GetProperties() let enumer = props.GetEnumerator() while enumer.MoveNext() do let currObj = (enumer.Current : obj) ignore <| match currObj with | :? string as s -> sb.Append(s.ToString()) | :? bool as c -> sb.Append(c.ToString()) | :? int as i -> sb.Append(i.ToString()) | :? float as i -> sb.Append(i.ToString()) | _ -> printObj currObj sb (depth + 1) sb In the debugger I see that currObj is of type string, int, float, etc but it always jumps to the defualt case at the bottom. Any idea why this is happening?

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  • IE ignores added onclick attribute

    - by user357034
    The Jquery code below works ok with firefox, Safari, Opera but not with IE. I kinda know why this isn't working in IE after reading a lot about it but I do not know how to fix it. My understanding (I think) is that this method will assign a attribute of "onclick" in IE rather than an event method. Therefore it will not fire in IE and the href fires instead which in this case is "#" which is exactly what is happening. What is the correct way of adding the onclick event. <a id="product_photo_zoom_url" href="/PhotoGallery.asp?ProductCode=9857%2D116%2D003" title="9857-116-003 Ignition box"><img id="product_photo" src="/v/vspfiles/photos/9857-116-003-2T.jpg" border="0" alt="9857-116-003 Ignition box" /></a> <br /><a id="product_photo_zoom_url2" href="/PhotoGallery.asp?ProductCode=9857%2D116%2D003" title="9857-116-003 Ignition box"> <img src="/v/vspfiles/templates/100/images/buttons/btn_largerphoto.gif" border="0"></a> var global_URL_Encode_Current_ProductCode; var global_Config_ProductPhotosFolder; var global_Current_ProductCode; var titleattr = $("a#product_photo_zoom_url").attr("title"); var picurl='tb_show(titleattr, \'/PhotoDetails.asp?ShowDESC=N&ProductCode=\' + global_URL_Encode_Current_ProductCode + \'&TB_iframe=true&height=600&width=520\');return false;' $("a#product_photo_zoom_url").attr('onclick', picurl); $("a#product_photo_zoom_url").attr('href', '#'); $("a#product_photo_zoom_url2").attr('onclick', picurl); $("a#product_photo_zoom_url2").attr('href', '#');

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  • Open closed prinicple, problem

    - by Marcus
    Hi, I'm trying to apply OCP to a code snippet I have that in it's current state is really smelly, but I feel I'm not getting all the way to the end. Current code: public abstract class SomeObject {} public class SpecificObject1 : SomeObject {} public class SpecificObject2 : SomeObject {} // Smelly code public class Model { public void Store(SomeObject someObject) { if (someObject is SpecificObject1) {} else if (someObject is SpecificObject2) {} } } That is really ugly, my new approach looks like this: // No so smelly code public class Model { public void Store(SomeObject someObject) { throw new Expception("Not allowed!"); } public void Store(SpecificObject1 someObject) {} public void Store(SpecificObject2 someObject) {} } When a new SomeObject type comes along I must implement how that specific object is stored, this will break OCP cause I need to alter the Model-class. To move the store logic to SomeObject also feels wrong cause then I will violate SRP (?), becuase in this case the SomeObject is almost like a DTO, it's resposibility it not how to know to store itself. If a new implementation to SomeObject comes along who's store implementation is missing I will get a runtime error due to exception in Store method in Model class, it also feels like a code smell. This is because calling code will in the form of IEnumerable<SomeObject> sequence; I will not know the specific types of the sequence objects. I can't seem to grasp the OCP-concept. Anyone has any concrete examples or links that is a bit more than just some Car/Fruit example?

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  • trouble calculating offset index into 3D array

    - by Derek
    Hello, I am writing a CUDA kernel to create a 3x3 covariance matrix for each location in the rows*cols main matrix. So that 3D matrix is rows*cols*9 in size, which i allocated in a single malloc accordingly. I need to access this in a single index value the 9 values of the 3x3 covariance matrix get their values set according to the appropriate row r and column c from some other 2D arrays. In other words - I need to calculate the appropriate index to access the 9 elements of the 3x3 covariance matrix, as well as the row and column offset of the 2D matrices that are inputs to the value, as well as the appropriate index for the storage array. i have tried to simplify it down to the following: //I am calling this kernel with 1D blocks who are 512 cols x 1row. TILE_WIDTH=512 int bx = blockIdx.x; int by = blockIdx.y; int tx = threadIdx.x; int ty = threadIdx.y; int r = by + ty; int c = bx*TILE_WIDTH + tx; int offset = r*cols+c; int ndx = r*cols*rows + c*cols; if((r < rows) && (c < cols)){ //this IF statement is trying to avoid the case where a threadblock went bigger than my original array..not sure if correct d_cov[ndx + 0] = otherArray[offset]; d_cov[ndx + 1] = otherArray[offset] d_cov[ndx + 2] = otherArray[offset] d_cov[ndx + 3] = otherArray[offset] d_cov[ndx + 4] = otherArray[offset] d_cov[ndx + 5] = otherArray[offset] d_cov[ndx + 6] = otherArray[offset] d_cov[ndx + 7] = otherArray[offset] d_cov[ndx + 8] = otherArray[offset] } When I check this array with the values calculated on the CPU, which loops over i=rows, j=cols, k = 1..9 The results do not match up. in other words d_cov[i*rows*cols + j*cols + k] != correctAnswer[i][j][k] Can anyone give me any tips on how to sovle this problem? Is it an indexing problem, or some other logic error?

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  • Program freezing when syncing a ldap database (100+ entries added)

    - by djerry
    Hey guys, I'm updating a ldap database. I need to add a list of users to the db. I've written a simple foreach loop. There are about 180 users i need to add, but at the 128th user, the program freezes. I know ldap is really used for querying (fast), and that adding and modifying entries will not go as smooth as a search query, but is it normal that the program freezes while doing this? I'll post some code just in case. public static void SyncLDAPWithMySql(Novell.Directory.Ldap.LdapConnection _conn) { List<User> users = GetUsers(); int iteller = 0; foreach (User user in users) { if (!UserAlreadyInLdap(user, _conn)) { TelUser teluser = new TelUser(); teluser.Telephone = user.E164; teluser.Uid = user.E164; teluser.Company = "/"; teluser.Dn = ""; teluser.Name = "/"; teluser.DisplayName = "/"; teluser.FirstName = "/"; TelephoneDA.InsertUser(_conn, teluser ); } Console.WriteLine(iteller + " : " + user.E164); iteller++; } } private static bool UserAlreadyInLdap(User user, Novell.Directory.Ldap.LdapConnection _conn) { List<TelUser> users = TelephoneDA.GetAllEntries(_conn); foreach (TelUser teluser in users) { if (teluser.Telephone.Equals(user.E164)) return true; } return false; } public static int InsertUser(LdapConnection conn, TelUser user) { int iResponse = IsTelNumberUnique(conn, user.Dn, user.Telephone); if (iResponse == 0) { LdapAttributeSet attrSet = MakeAttSet(user); string dnForPhonebook = configurationManager.AppSettings.Get("phonebookDn"); LdapEntry ent = new LdapEntry("uid=" + user.Uid + "," + dnforPhonebook, attrSet); try { conn.Add(ent); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex.Message); } } return iResponse; } Am i adding too many entries at a time??? Thanks in advance.

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  • Getting empty update rectangle in OnPaint after calling InvalidateRect on a layered window

    - by Shawn
    I'm trying to figure out why I've been getting an empty update rectangle when I call InvalidateRect on a transparent window. The idea is that I've drawn something on the window (it gets temporarily switched to have an alpha of 1/255 for the drawing), and then I switch it to full transparent mode (i.e. alpha of 0) in order to interact with the desktop & to be able to move the drawing around the screen on top of the desktop. When I try to move the drawing, I get its bounding rectangle & use it to call InvalidateRect, as such: InvalidateRect(m_hTarget, &winRect, FALSE); I've confirmed that the winRect is indeed correct, and that m_hTarget is the correct window & that its rectangle fully encompasses winRect. I get into the OnPaint handler in the class corresponding to m_hTarget, which is derived from a CWnd. In there, I create a CPaintDC, but when I try to access the update rectangle (dcPaint.m_ps.rcPaint) it's always empty. This rectangle gets passed to a function that determines if we need to update the screen (by using UpdateLayeredWindow in the case of a transparent window). If I hard-code a non-empty rectangle in here, the remaining code works correctly & I am able to move the drawing around the screen. I tried changing the 'FALSE' parameter to 'TRUE' in InvalidateRect, with no effect. I also tried using a standard CDC, and then using BeginPaint/EndPaint method in my OnPaint handler, just to ensure that CPaintDC wasn't doing something odd ... but I got the same results. The code that I'm using was originally designed for opaque windows. If m_hTarget corresponds to an opaque window, the same set of function calls results in the correct (i.e. non-empty) rectangle being passed to OnPaint. Once the window is layered, though, it doesn't seem to work right.

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  • Modules vs. Classes and their influence on descendants of ActiveRecord::Base

    - by Chris
    Here's a Ruby OO head scratcher for ya, brought about by this Rails scenario: class Product < ActiveRecord::Base has_many(:prices) # define private helper methods end module PrintProduct attr_accessor(:isbn) # override methods in ActiveRecord::Base end class Book < Product include PrintProduct end Product is the base class of all products. Books are kept in the products table via STI. The PrintProduct module brings some common behavior and state to descendants of Product. Book is used inside fields_for blocks in views. This works for me, but I found some odd behavior: After form submission, inside my controller, if I call a method on a book that is defined in PrintProduct, and that method calls a helper method defined in Product, which in turn calls the prices method defined by has_many, I'll get an error complaining that Book#prices is not found. Why is that? Book is a direct descendant of Product! More interesting is the following.. As I developed this hierarchy PrintProduct started to become more of an abstract ActiveRecord::Base, so I thought it prudent to redefine everything as such: class Product < ActiveRecord::Base end class PrintProduct < Product end class Book < PrintProduct end All method definitions, etc. are the same. In this case, however, my web form won't load because the attributes defined by attr_accessor (which are "virtual attributes" referenced by the form but not persisted in the DB) aren't found. I'll get an error saying that there is no method Book#isbn. Why is that?? I can't see a reason why the attr_accessor attributes are not found inside my form's fields_for block when PrintProduct is a class, but they are found when PrintProduct is a Module. Any insight would be appreciated. I'm dying to know why these errors are occurring!

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  • Difference between two PHP times as years, months and days for PHP version 5.2

    - by Dominor Novus
    Forward: I've scanned through the existing questions/answers on this matter. This is not a duplicitous question; I cannot find a working solution from the accepted answers. The main questions/answers I've reviewed can be found here: How to calculate the difference between two dates using PHP? What I need: A calucalation of the difference between two dates expressed as years, months and days that works with PHP version: 5.2. <?php $current_date = date('d-M-Y'); $future_date = '2012-11-01'; ?> What I've tried: Most answers I find online don't seem to exact in that they don't factor in leap years. This highly rated answer won't work because DateTime-diff() is php 5.3+. This accepted answer results in (i.e. the second block of code aimed at PHP 5.2) results in the following being parsed: Array ( [y] = 25 [m] = 11 [d] = 7 [h] = 3 [i] = 15 [s] = 19 [invert] = 0 [days] = 9473 ) Array ( [y] = 25 [m] = 11 [d] = 7 [h] = 3 [i] = 15 [s] = 19 [invert] = 1 [days] = 9473 ) I can't tell if I've incorrectly applied the code or it's simply a case of me not knowing how to manipulate the array.

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  • OnClickListener onClick=true and selector

    - by azerto00
    I have not found any answer for my problem, so I need your help ... I have an LinearLayout which I want to be clickable in order to lunch another activity. So I implement an onClickListener to it. I created an selector for this LinearLayout in order that what someone click on it, the background change. I just don't understand that : If my LinearLayout doesn't have android:clickable="true" in the xml, I'm able to click on it and get what I want but the selector doesn't work. If I remove this line, it is the opposite .. the selector work but not the onClick event. So, can anyone can explain me why ? Just in case, here is my the content of my selector file : <selector xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <item android:drawable="@drawable/btn_restaurants_background_state_pressed" android:state_pressed="true"></item> <item android:drawable="@drawable/btn_restaurants_background_state_pressed" android:state_focused="true"></item> <item android:drawable="@drawable/btn_restaurants_background_state_pressed" android:state_selected="true"></item> <item android:drawable="@drawable/btn_restaurants_background_state_normal"></item> </selector> Thanks you in advance

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  • Making two Windows using CreateWindowsEx()

    - by Jamie Keeling
    Hello, I have a windows form that has a simple menu and performs a simple operation, I want to be able to create another windows form with all the functionality of a menu bar, message pump etc.. as a separate thread so I can then share the results of the operation to the second window. I.E. 1) Form A opens Form B opens as a separate thread 2)Form A performs operation 3)Form A passes results via memory to Form B 4)Form B display results I'm confused as to how to go about it, the main app runs fine but i'm not sure how to add a second window if the first one already exists. I think that using CreateWindow will allow me to make another window but again i'm not sure how to access the message pump so I can respond to certain events like WM_CREATE on the second window. I hope it makes sense. Thanks! Edit: I've attempted to make a second window and although this does compile, no windows show atall on build. ////////////////////// // WINDOWS FUNCTION // ////////////////////// LRESULT CALLBACK WindowFunc(HWND hMainWindow, UINT message, WPARAM wParam, LPARAM lParam) { //Fields WCHAR buffer[256]; struct DiceData storage; HWND hwnd; // Act on current message switch(message) { case WM_CREATE: AddMenus(hMainWindow); hwnd = CreateWindowEx( 0, "ChildWClass", (LPCTSTR) NULL, WS_CHILD | WS_BORDER | WS_VISIBLE, 0, 0, 0, 0, hMainWindow, NULL, NULL, NULL); ShowWindow(hwnd, SW_SHOW); break; Any suggestions as to why this happens?

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  • ColdFusion Session issue - multiple users behind one proxy IP -- cftoken and cfid seems to be shared

    - by smoothoperator
    Hi Everyone, I have an application that uses coldfusion's session management (instead of the J2EE) session management. We have one client, who has recently switched their company's traffic to us to come viaa proxy server in their network. So, to our Coldfusion server, it appears that all traffic is coming from this one IP Address, for all of the accounts of this one company.. Of the session variables, Part 1 is kept in a cflock, and Part 2 is kept in editable session variables. I may be misundestanding, but we have done it this way as we modify some values as needed throughout the application's usage. We are now running into an issue of this client having their session variables mixed up (?). We have one case where we set a timestamp.. and when it comes time to look it up, it's empty. From the looks of it this is happening because of another user on the same token. My initial thoughts are to look into modifying our existing session management to somehow generate a unique cftoken/cfid, or to start using jsession_ID, if this solves the problem at all. I have done some basic research on this issue and couldn't find anything similar, so I thought I'd ask here. Thanks!

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  • Protecting my apps security from deassembling

    - by sandis
    So I recently tested deassembling one of my android apps, and to my horror I discovered that the code was quite readable. Even worse, all my variable names where intact! I thought that those would be compressed to something unreadable at compile time. The app is triggered to expire after a certain time. However, now it was trivial for me to find my function named checkIfExpired() and find the variable "expired". Is there any good way of making it harder for a potential hacker messing with my app? Before someone states the obvious: Yes, it is security through obscurity. But obviously this is my only option since the user always will have access to all my code. This is the same for all apps. The details of my deactivation-thingy is unimportant, the point is that I dont want deassembler to understand some of the things I do. side questions: Why are the variable names not compressed? Could it be the case that my program would run faster if I stopped using really long variable names, as are my habit?

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  • Atomic operations on several transactionless external systems

    - by simendsjo
    Say you have an application connecting 3 different external systems. You need to update something in all 3. In case of a failure, you need to roll back the operations. This is not a hard thing to implement, but say operation 3 fails, and when rolling back, the rollback for operation 1 fails! Now the first external system is in an invalid state... I'm thinking a possible solution is to shut down the application and forcing a manual fix of the external system, but then again... It might already have used this information (and perhaps that's why it failed), or we might not have sufficient access. Or it might not even be a good way to rollback the action! Are there some good ways of handling such cases? EDIT: Some application details.. It's a multi user web application. Most of the work is done with scheduled jobs (through Quartz.Net), so most operations is run in it's own thread. Some user actions should trigger jobs that update several systems though. The external systems are somewhat unstable. I Was thinking of changing the application to use the Command and Unit Of Work pattern

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  • android widget unresponsive

    - by John
    I have a widget that you press and it then it will update the text on the widget. I have set an on click listener to launch another activity to perform the text update, But for some reason it only works temporarily and then it will become unresponsive and not do anything when pressed. Does anyone know why it might be doing that? i have posted my widget code below in case it is helpful. @Override public void onUpdate(Context context, AppWidgetManager appWidgetManager,int[] appWidgetIds) { thisWidget = new ComponentName(context, MemWidget.class); Intent intent = new Intent(context, updatewidget.class); PendingIntent pendingIntent = PendingIntent.getActivity(context, 0, intent, 0); // Get the layout for the App Widget and attach an on-click listener to the button RemoteViews views = new RemoteViews(context.getPackageName(), R.layout.widget); views.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.ImageButton01, pendingIntent); // Tell the AppWidgetManager to perform an update on the current App Widget appWidgetManager.updateAppWidget(thisWidget, views); } @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { appWidgetManager = AppWidgetManager.getInstance(context); remoteViews = new RemoteViews(context.getPackageName(), R.layout.widget); thisWidget = new ComponentName(context, MemWidget.class); // v1.5 fix that doesn't call onDelete Action final String action = intent.getAction(); if (AppWidgetManager.ACTION_APPWIDGET_DELETED.equals(action)) { final int appWidgetId = intent.getExtras().getInt( AppWidgetManager.EXTRA_APPWIDGET_ID, AppWidgetManager.INVALID_APPWIDGET_ID); if (appWidgetId != AppWidgetManager.INVALID_APPWIDGET_ID) { this.onDeleted(context, new int[] { appWidgetId }); } } else { super.onReceive(context, intent); } }

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  • JDBC programms running long time performance issue

    - by phyerbarte
    My program has an issue with Oracle query performance, I believe the SQL have good performance, because it returns quickly in SQLPlus. But when my program has been running for a long time, like 1 week, the SQL query (using JDBC) becomes slower (In my logs, the query time is much longer than when I originally started the program). When I restart my program, the query performance comes back to normal. I think it is could be something wrong with the way I use the preparedStatement, because the SQL I'm using does not use placeholders "?" at all. Just a complex select query. The query process is done by a util class. Here is the pertinent code building the query: public List<String[]> query(String sql, String[] args) { Connection conn = null; conn = openConnection(); conn.setAutocommit(true); .... PreparedStatement preStatm = null; ResultSet rs = null; ....//set preparedstatment arg code rs = preStatm.executeQuery(); .... finally{ //close rs //close prestatm //close connection } } In my case, the args is always null, so it just passes a query sql to this query method. Is that possible this way could slow down the DB query after program long time running? Or I should use statement instead, or just pass args with "?" in the SQL? How can I find out the root cause for my issue? Thanks.

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  • C#; On casting to the SAME class that came from another assembly

    - by G. Stoynev
    For complete separation/decoupling, I've implemented a DAL in an assebly that is simply being copied over via post-build event to the website BIN folder. The website then on Application Start loads that assembly via System.Reflection.Assembly.LoadFile. Again, using reflection, I construct a couple of instances from classes in that assembly. I then store a reference to these instances in the session (HttpContext.Current.Items) Later, when I try to get the object stored in the session, I am not able to cast them to their own types (was trying interfaces initially, but for debugging tried to cast to THEIR OWN TYPES), getting this error: [A]DAL_QSYSCamper.NHibernateSessionBuilder cannot be cast to [B] DAL_QSYSCamper.NHibernateSessionBuilder. Type A originates from 'DAL_QSYSCamper, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' in the context 'Default' at location 'C:\Users\dull.anomal\AppData\Local\Temp\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\ad6e8bff\70fa2384\assembly\dl3\aaf7a5b0\84f01b09_b10acb01\DAL_QSYSCamper.DLL'. Type B originates from 'DAL_QSYSCamper, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' in the context 'LoadNeither' at location 'C:\Users\dull.anomal\Documents\Projects\QSYS\Deleteme\UI\MVCClient\bin\DAL_QSYSCa mper.DLL'. This is happening while debugging in VS - VS manages to stop into the source DAL project even though I've loaded from assembly and the project is not refferenced by the website project (they're both in the solution). I do understand the error, but I don't understand how and why the assembly is being used/loaded from two locations - I only load it once from the file and there's no referrence to the project. Should mention that I also use Windsor for DI. The object that tries to extract the object from the session is A) from a class from that DAL assembly; B) is injected into a website class by Windsor. I will work on adding some sample code to this question, but wanted to put it out in case it's obvious what I do wrong.

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  • How do I stop a page from unloading (navigating away) in JS?

    - by Natalie Downe
    Does anyone know how to stop a page from reloading or navigating away? jQuery(function($) { /* global on unload notification */ warning = true; if(warning) { $(window).bind("unload", function() { if (confirm("Do you want to leave this page") == true) { //they pressed OK alert('ok'); } else { // they pressed Cancel alert('cancel'); return false; } }); } }); I am working on an e-commerce site at the moment, the page that displays your future orders has the ability to alter the quantities of items ordered using +/- buttons. Changing the quantities this way this doesn't actually change the order itself, they have to press confirm and therefore committing a positive action to change the order. However if they have changed the quantities and navigate away from the page I would like to warn them they are doing so in case this is an accident, as the changed quantities will be lost if they navigate away or refresh the page. In the code above I am using a global variable which will be false by default (its only true for testing), when a quantity is changed I will update this variable to be true, and when they confirm the changes I will set it to false. If warning is true and the page is unloaded, I offer them a confirmation box, if they say no they would like to stay on this page I need to stop it from unloading. return false isn't working, it still lets the user navigate away (the alerts are there for debugging only) Any ideas?

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  • Convincing why testing is good

    - by FireAphis
    Hello, In my team of real-time-embedded C/C++ developers, most people don't have any culture of testing their code beyond the casual manual sanity checks. I personally strongly believe in advantages of autonomous automatic tests, but when I try to convince I get some reappearing arguments like: We will spend more time on writing the tests than writing the code. It takes a lot of effort to maintain the tests. Our code is spaghetti; no way we can unit-test it. Our requirement are not sealed – we’ll have to rewrite all the tests every time the requirements are changed. Now, I'd gladly hear any convincing tips and advises, but what I am really looking for are references to researches, articles, books or serious surveys that show (preferably in numbers) how testing is worth the effort. Something like "We in IBM/Microsoft/Google, surveying 3475 active projects, found out that putting 50% more development time into testing decreased by 75% the time spent on fixing bugs" or "after half a year, the time needed to write code with test was only marginally longer than what used to take without tests". Any ideas? P.S.: I'm adding C++ tag too in case someone has a specific experience with convincing this, usually elitist, type of developers :-)

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  • If attacker has original data, and encrypted data, can they determine the passphrase?

    - by Brad Cupit
    If an attacker has several distinct items (for example: e-mail addresses) and knows the encrypted value of each item, can the attacker more easily determine the secret passphrase used to encrypt those items? Meaning, can they determine the passphrase without resorting to brute force? This question may sound strange, so let me provide a use-case: User signs up to a site with their e-mail address Server sends that e-mail address a confirmation URL (for example: https://my.app.com/confirmEmailAddress/bill%40yahoo.com) Attacker can guess the confirmation URL and therefore can sign up with someone else's e-mail address, and 'confirm' it without ever having to sign in to that person's e-mail account and see the confirmation URL. This is a problem. Instead of sending the e-mail address plain text in the URL, we'll send it encrypted by a secret passphrase. (I know the attacker could still intercept the e-mail sent by the server, since e-mail are plain text, but bear with me here.) If an attacker then signs up with multiple free e-mail accounts and sees multiple URLs, each with the corresponding encrypted e-mail address, could the attacker more easily determine the passphrase used for encryption? Alternative Solution I could instead send a random number or one-way hash of their e-mail address (plus random salt). This eliminates storing the secret passphrase, but it means I need to store that random number/hash in the database. The original approach above does not require this extra table. I'm leaning towards the the one-way hash + extra table solution, but I still would like to know the answer: does having multiple unencrypted e-mail addresses and their encrypted counterparts make it easier to determine the passphrase used?

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  • EF4 + STE: Reattaching via a WCF Service? Using a new objectcontext each and every time?

    - by Martin
    Hi there, I am planning to use WCF (not ria) in conjunction with Entity Framework 4 and STE (Self tracking entitites). If i understnad this correctly my WCF should return an entity or collection of entities (using LIST for example and not IQueryable) to the client (in my case silverlight) The client then can change the entity or update it. At this point i believe it is self tracking???? This is where i sort of get a bit confused as there are a lot of reported problems with STEs not tracking.. Anyway... Then to update i just need to send back the entity to my WCF service on another method to do the update. I should be creating a new OBJECTCONTEXT everytime? In every method? If i am creaitng a new objectcontext everytime in everymethod on my WCF then don't i need to re-attach the STE to the objectcontext? So basically this alone wouldn't work?? using(var ctx = new MyContext()) { ctx.Orders.ApplyChanges(order); ctx.SaveChanges(); } Or should i be creating the object context once in the constructor of the WCF service so that 1 call and every additional call using the same wcf instance uses the same objectcontext? I could create and destroy the wcf service in each method call from the client - hence creating in effect a new objectcontext each time. I understand that it isn't a good idea to keep the objectcontext alive for very long. Any insight or information would be gratefully appreciated thanks

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  • How to get Amazon s3 PHP SDK working?

    - by JakeRow123
    I'm trying to set up s3 for the first time and trying to run the sample file that comes with the PHP sdk that creates a bucket and attempts to upload some demo files to it. But this is the error I am getting: The difference between the request time and the current time is too large. I read on another question on SO that this is because Amazon determines a valid request by comparing the times between the server and the client, that the 2 must be within a 15 min span of one another. Now here is the problem. My laptop's time is 12:30AM June 8, 2012 at the moment. On my server I created a file called servertime.php and placed this code in that file: <?php print strftime('%c'); ?> and the output is: Fri Jun 8 00:31:22 2012 It looks like the day is correct but I don't know what to make of 00:31:22. In any case, how is it possible to always make sure the time between the client and server is within a 15 minute window of one another. What if I have a user in China who wishes to upload a file on my site which uses s3 for the cdn. Then the time difference would be over a day. How can I make sure all my user's times are within 15 minutes of my server time? What if the user is in the U.S. but the time on their machine is misconfigured. Basically how to get s3 bucket creation and upload to work?

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  • GUID or int entity key with SQL Compact/EF4?

    - by David Veeneman
    This is a follow-up to an earlier question I posted on EF4 entity keys with SQL Compact. SQL Compact doesn't allow server-generated identity keys, so I am left with creating my own keys as objects are added to the ObjectContext. My first choice would be an integer key, and the previous answer linked to a blog post that shows an extension method that uses the Max operator with a selector expression to find the next available key: public static TResult NextId<TSource, TResult>(this ObjectSet<TSource> table, Expression<Func<TSource, TResult>> selector) where TSource : class { TResult lastId = table.Any() ? table.Max(selector) : default(TResult); if (lastId is int) { lastId = (TResult)(object)(((int)(object)lastId) + 1); } return lastId; } Here's my take on the extension method: It will work fine if the ObjectContext that I am working with has an unfiltered entity set. In that case, the ObjectContext will contain all rows from the data table, and I will get an accurate result. But if the entity set is the result of a query filter, the method will return the last entity key in the filtered entity set, which will not necessarily be the last key in the data table. So I think the extension method won't really work. At this point, the obvious solution seems to be to simply use a GUID as the entity key. That way, I only need to call Guid.NewGuid() method to set the ID property before I add a new entity to my ObjectContext. Here is my question: Is there a simple way of getting the last primary key in the data store from EF4 (without having to create a second ObjectContext for that purpose)? Any other reason not to take the easy way out and simply use a GUID? Thanks for your help.

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  • How do I get Firefox to launch Visio when I click on a linked .vsd file?

    - by Dean
    On our intranet site, we have various MS Office documents linked. When I click on a Word, Excel or PowerPoint file, Firefox gives me the option to Open, Save or Cancel. When I click on Open, the appropriate app is launched and the file is loaded. This is perfect. But for some reason, when I click on a linked Visio file, I only get the option to Save, which is inconvenient. I know that Firefox knows the linked file is a Visio file because it tells me so in the dialog box: "You have chosen to open example.vsd which is a: Microsoft Visio Drawing". How can I make Firefox launch Visio when I click on a linked Visio file? Update: Firefox is not launching Visio when I click on a linked Visio file because the web server does not identify the content-type correctly. It identifies the Visio file as application/octet-stream instead of application/x-visio. (Thanks Grant Wagner.) This explains why it doesn't work. And in my case, I may be able to get the Apache config file changed, but this is not certain. However, I would love to know if there is a way to configure Firefox itself to launch Visio based on some other criteria, like file name extension. This way I can open Visio files even if I don't have access to the Apache configuration.

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  • Hibernate Transient Extends problem

    - by mrvreddy
    @MappedSuperclass public abstract class BaseAbstract implements Serializable{ private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; protected String test = //some random value; public String getTest() { return test; } public void setTest(String test){ this.test = test; } } @Entity public class Artist extends BaseAbstract { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; private Integer id; @override @Transient public String getTest() { return test; } ..... } My question is... when i am trying to do any operation on the artist, along with id and name, test is also getting saved which should not be the case... if i add the same transient on the baseabstract class getTest() method, i see test column NOT getting created(ideally what it should happen) but if i try to override the method with adding annotaion in the sub class it creates the test column... I dont know why this is happening since when hibernate is creating the artist object and checks for annotations, it should see the transient annotation present on the getTest() of artist method...and should not create a column in the database... Let me know if you need any clarification.... Any response on this is greatly appreciated.... Thank you

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  • IndexOutOfRangeException when a stream is a multiple of the buffer size

    - by dnord
    I don't have a lot of experience with streams and buffers, but I'm having to do it for a project, and I'm stuck on an exception being thrown when the stream I'm reading is a multiple of the buffer size I've chosen. Let me show you: My code starts by reading bufferSize (100, let's say) bytes from the stream: numberOfBytesRead = DataReader.GetBytes(0, index, output, 0, bufferSize); Then, I loop through a while loop: while (numberOfBytesRead == bufferSize) { BufferWriter.Write(output); BufferWriter.Flush(); index += bufferSize; numberOfBytesRead = DataReader.GetBytes(0, index, output, 0, bufferSize); } ... and, once we get to a non-bufferSize read, we know we've hit the end of the stream and can move on. But if the bufferSize is 100, and the stream is 200, we'll read positions 0-99, 100-199, and then the attempt to read 200-299 errors out. I'd like it if it returned 0, but it throws an error. What I'm doing to handle that is, well, a try-catch: catch (System.IndexOutOfRangeException) numberOfBytesRead = 0; ...which ends the loop, and successfully finishes the thing, but we all know I don't want to control code flow with error handling. Is there a better (more standard?) way to handle stream reading when the stream length is unknown? This seems like a small wrinkle in a fairly reasonable strategy for reading streams, but I just don't know if I've got it wrong or what. The specifics of this (which I've cleaned up a little bit for posting) are a MySqlDataReader hitting a LARGEBLOB column. It's working whenever the buffer is larger than the number of returned bytes, or when the number of returned bytes is not a multiple of bufferSize. Because we don't, in that case, throw an IndexOutOfRangeException.

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