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  • why is a minus sign prepended to my biginteger?

    - by kyrogue
    package ewa; import java.io.UnsupportedEncodingException; import java.security.MessageDigest; import java.security.NoSuchAlgorithmException; import java.util.logging.Level; import java.util.logging.Logger; import java.math.BigInteger; /** * * @author Lotus */ public class md5Hash { public static void main(String[] args) throws NoSuchAlgorithmException { String test = "abc"; MessageDigest md = MessageDigest.getInstance("MD5"); try { md.update(test.getBytes("UTF-8")); byte[] result = md.digest(); BigInteger bi = new BigInteger(result); String hex = bi.toString(16); System.out.println("Pringting result"); System.out.println(hex); } catch (UnsupportedEncodingException ex) { Logger.getLogger(md5Hash.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } } } i am testing conversion of byte to hex and when done, the end result has a minus sign on the beginning of the string, why does this happen? i have read the docs and it says it will add a minus sign, however i do not understand it. And will the minus sign affect the hash result? because i am going to implement it to hash password stored on my database

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  • Formating Date in Freemarker to say "Today", "Yesterday", etc.

    - by egervari
    Is there a way in freemarker to compare dates to test if the date is today or yesterday... or do I have to write code in Java to do these tests? I basically want to do this: <#------------------------------------------------------------------------------ formatDate -------------------------------------------------------------------------------> <#macro formatDate date showTime=true> <#if date??> <span class="Date"> <#if date?is_today> Today <#elseif date?is_yesterday> Yesterday <#else> ${date?date} </#if> </span> <#if showTime> <span class="Time">${date?time}</span> </#if> </#if> </#macro> EDIT: My best guess to implement this is to pass "today" and "yesterday" into the model for the pages that use this function and then compare the date values against these 2 objects in the model. I am out of out of options, but I'd rather not have to do this for every page that uses this macro. Any other options that are nicer? <#if date??> <span class="Date"> <#if date?date?string.short == today?date?string.short> Today <#elseif date?date?string.short == yesterday?date?string.short> Yesterday <#else> ${date?date} </#if> </span> <#if showTime> <span class="Time">${date?time}</span> </#if> </#if>

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  • How to determine one to many column name from entity type

    - by snicker
    I need a way to determine the name of the column used by NHibernate to join one-to-many collections from the collected entity's type. I need to be able to determine this at runtime. Here is an example: I have some entities: namespace Entities { public class Stable { public virtual int Id {get; set;} public virtual string StableName {get; set;} public virtual IList<Pony> Ponies { get; set; } } public class Dude { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string DudesName { get; set; } public virtual IList<Pony> PoniesThatBelongToDude { get; set; } } public class Pony { public virtual int Id {get; set;} public virtual string Name {get; set;} public virtual string Color { get; set; } } } I am using NHibernate to generate the database schema, which comes out looking like this: create table "Stable" (Id integer, StableName TEXT, primary key (Id)) create table "Dude" (Id integer, DudesName TEXT, primary key (Id)) create table "Pony" (Id integer, Name TEXT, Color TEXT, Stable_id INTEGER, Dude_id INTEGER, primary key (Id)) Given that I have a Pony entity in my code, I need to be able to find out: A. Does Pony even belong to a collection in the mapping? B. If it does, what are the column names in the database table that pertain to collections In the above instance, I would like to see that Pony has two collection columns, Stable_id and Dude_id.

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  • safe placement new & explicit destructor call

    - by uray
    this is an example of my codes: ` template <typename T> struct MyStruct { T object; } template <typename T> class MyClass { MyStruct<T>* structPool; size_t structCount; MyClass(size_t count) { this->structCount = count; this->structPool = new MyStruct<T>[count]; for( size_t i=0 ; i<count ; i++ ) { //placement new to call constructor new (&this->structPool[i].object) T(); } } ~MyClass() { for( size_t i=0 ; i<this->structCount ; i++ ) { //explicit destructor call this->structPool[i].object.~T(); } delete[] this->structPool; } } ` my question is, is this a safe way to do? do I make some hidden mistake at some condition? will it work for every type of object (POD and non-POD) ?

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  • JDBC call not executing

    - by dbyrne
    I am working on one of the DAOs for a medium sized web application. Unfortunately, it contains very convoluted logic, and makes hundreds of JDBC stored proc calls in loops. This is out of my control. I am working on a method inside the DAO which makes a single JDBC call. The simplified version of what this method looks like is this: DriverManager.registerDriver(new com.sybase.jdbc2.jdbc.SybDriver()); Connection con = DriverManager.getConnection((String)connectionDetails.get("DATABASE_URL") (String)connectionDetails.get("USERID"), (String)connectionDetails.get("PASSWORD")); String sqlToExecute = "{call " + STORED_PROC + "(?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?)}"; CallableStatement stmt = con.prepareCall(sqlToExecute); //Maybe I should try calling clearParameters here? stmt.setString(1,someData); //....Set of parameters.... if (!stmt.execute()) { //execute method never returns false } stmt.close(); Its pretty much a textbook JDBC call. All this stored proc does is insert a single row. Here is where things get crazy: This code works when you run it through a debugger line by line, but fails when you run it "full speed". Not only does it fail, but it doesn't throw any exception! The execute method always returns true. It just breezes right through the JDBC call without inserting a row to the database. If you go through the log files, copy the stored proc call and run it manually, it works (just like it does in debug mode). Whats strange is that the rest of the DAO, with all its hundreds of looped stored proc calls, works fine. My thinking is that Connection or CallableStatement is caching some value behind the scenes that is screwing things up. Has anyone ever seen anything like this before? A JDBC call failing with no exceptions? I know it will be impossible to provide a complete solution to this without seeing the whole application, I am just looking for suggestions on possible issues to investigate.

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  • WF -- how do I use a custom activity without creating it in a separate Workflow Activity Library?

    - by Kevin Craft
    I am trying to accomplish something that seems like it should be very simple. I have a State Machine Workflow Console Application with a workflow in it. I have created a custom activity for it. This activity will NEVER be used ANYWHERE ELSE. I just want to use this activity on my workflow, but: It does not appear in the toolbox. I cannot drag it from the Solution Explorer onto the workflow designer. I absolutely do not want to create a separate State Machine Workflow Activity Library, since that will just clutter my solution. Like I said, I will never use this activity in any other project, so I would like to keep it confined to this one...but I just can't figure out how to get it onto the designer! Am I going crazy!? Here is the code for the activity: public partial class GameSearchActivity: Activity { public GameSearchActivity() { InitializeComponent(); } public static DependencyProperty QueryProperty = System.Workflow.ComponentModel.DependencyProperty.Register("Query", typeof(string), typeof(GameSearchActivity)); [Description("Query")] [Category("Dependency Properties")] [Browsable(true)] [DesignerSerializationVisibility(DesignerSerializationVisibility.Visible)] public string Query { get { return ((string)(base.GetValue(GameSearchActivity.QueryProperty))); } set { base.SetValue(GameSearchActivity.QueryProperty, value); } } public static DependencyProperty ResultsProperty = System.Workflow.ComponentModel.DependencyProperty.Register("Results", typeof(string), typeof(GameSearchActivity)); [Description("Results")] [Category("Dependency Properties")] [Browsable(true)] [DesignerSerializationVisibility(DesignerSerializationVisibility.Visible)] public IEnumerable<Game_GamePlatform> Results { get { return ((IEnumerable<Game_GamePlatform>)(base.GetValue(GameSearchActivity.ResultsProperty))); } set { base.SetValue(GameSearchActivity.ResultsProperty, value); } } protected override ActivityExecutionStatus Execute(ActivityExecutionContext executionContext) { IDataService ds = executionContext.GetService<IDataService>(); Results = ds.SearchGames(Query); return ActivityExecutionStatus.Closed; } } Thanks. EDIT: OK, so I've discovered that if I change the project type from Console Application to Class Library, the custom activity appears in the toolbox. However, this is not acceptable. It needs to be a Console/Windows Application. Anyone know a way around this?

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  • Can't get KnownType to work with WCF

    - by Kelly Cline
    I have an interface and a class defined in separate assemblies, like this: namespace DataInterfaces { public interface IPerson { string Name { get; set; } } } namespace DataObjects { [DataContract] [KnownType( typeof( IPerson ) ) ] public class Person : IPerson { [DataMember] public string Name { get; set; } } } This is my Service Interface: public interface ICalculator { [OperationContract] IPerson GetPerson ( ); } When I update my Service Reference for my Client, I get this in the Reference.cs: public object GetPerson() { return base.Channel.GetPerson(); I was hoping that KnownType would give me IPerson instead of "object" here. I have also tried [KnownType( typeof( Person ) ) ] with the same result. I have control of both client and server, so I have my DataObjects (where Person is defined) and DataInterfaces (where IPerson is defined) assemblies in both places. Is there something obvious I am missing? I thought KnownType was the answer to being able to use interfaces with WCF. ----- FURTHER INFORMATION ----- I removed the KnownType from the Person class and added [ServiceKnownType( typeof( Person ) ) ] to my service interface, as suggested by Richard. The client-side proxy still looks the same, public object GetPerson() { return base.Channel.GetPerson(); , but now it doesn't blow up. The client just has an "object", though, so it has to cast it to IPerson before it is useful. var person = client.GetPerson ( ); Console.WriteLine ( ( ( IPerson ) person ).Name );

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  • MVC JsonResult not working with chrome?

    - by Karsten Detmold
    i want jquery to take a JsonResult from my MVC controller but it does'nt receive any data! If I put the output into a textfile and enter its link its working so I think my jQuery is fine. Then I was testing with other browsers like chrome and I saw NOTHING. The requested page was just emtpy.. no errors. Also IE seems to have problems receiving my string.. only firefox displays the string but why? public JsonResult jsonLastRequests() { List<Request> requests = new List<Request>(); while (r.Read()) { requests.Add(new Models.Request() { ID = (int)r[0], SiteID = r[1].ToString(), Lat = r[2].ToString(), City = r[4].ToString(), CreationTime = (DateTime)r[5] }); } r.Close(); return Json(requests); } I found out that also if I want to return the JSON as string its not working! Its working with a string in all browsers now.. but jQuery is still not loading anything var url = "http://../jsonLastRequests"; var source = { datatype: "json", datafields: [ { name: 'ID' }, { name: 'SiteID' }, { name: 'Lat' }, { name: 'CreationTime' }, { name: 'City' }, ], id: 'id', url: url }; var dataAdapter = new $.jqx.dataAdapter(source, { downloadComplete: function (data, status, xhr) { }, loadComplete: function (data) { }, loadError: function (xhr, status, error) { } }); I fixed my problem by adding: access-control-allow-origin:*

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  • Nhibernate - getting single column from other table

    - by Muhammad Akhtar
    I have following tables Employee: ID,CompanyID,Name //CompanyID is foriegn key of Company Table Company: CompanyID, Name I want to map this to the following class: public class Employee { public virtual Int ID { get; set; } public virtual Int CompanyID { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual string CompanyName { get; set; } protected Employee() { } } here is my xml class <class name="Employee" table="Employee" lazy="true"> <id name="Id" type="Int32" column="Id"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="CompanyID" column="CompanyID" type="Int32" not-null="false"/> <property name="Name" column="Name" type="String" length="100" not-null="false"/> What I need to add in xml class to map CompanyName in my result? here is my code... public ArrayList getTest() { ISession session = NHibernateHelper.GetCurrentSession(); string query = "select Employee.*,(Company.Name)CompanyName from Employee inner join Employee on Employee.CompanyID = Company.CompanyID"; ArrayList document = (ArrayList)session.CreateSQLQuery(query, "Employee", typeof(Document)).List(); return document; } but in the returned result, I am getting CompanyName is null is result set and other columns are fine. Note:In DB, tables don't physical relation Please suggest my solution ------ Thanks

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  • Diffrernce between BackgroundWorker.ReportProgress() and Control.Invoke()

    - by ohadsc
    What is the difference between options 1 and 2 in the following? private void BGW_DoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { for (int i=1; i<=100; i++) { string txt = i.ToString(); if (Test_Check.Checked) //OPTION 1 Test_BackgroundWorker.ReportProgress(i, txt); else //OPTION 2 this.Invoke((Action<int, string>)UpdateGUI, new object[] {i, txt}); } } private void BGW_ProgressChanged(object sender, ProgressChangedEventArgs e) { UpdateGUI(e.ProgressPercentage, (string)e.UserState); } private void UpdateGUI(int percent, string txt) { Test_ProgressBar.Value = percent; Test_RichTextBox.AppendText(txt + Environment.NewLine); } Looking at reflector, the Control.Invoke() appears to use: this.FindMarshalingControl().MarshaledInvoke(this, method, args, 1); whereas BackgroundWorker.Invoke() appears to use: this.asyncOperation.Post(this.progressReporter, args); (I'm just guessing these are the relevant function calls.) If I understand correctly, BGW Posts to the WinForms window its progress report request, whereas Control.Invoke uses a CLR mechanism to invoke on the right thread. Am I close? And if so, what are the repercussions of using either ? Thanks

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  • What is the difference between Unidirectional and Bidirectional associations?

    - by hguser
    Hi: What is the difference between Unidirectional and Bidirectional associations? Since the table generated in the db are all the same,so the only difference I found is that each side of the bidiretional assocations will have a refer to the other,and the unidirectional not. /////////// This is a Unidirectional association public class User { private int id; private String name; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn( name = "groupId") private Group group; } public class Group { private int id; private String name; } ////////////// The Bidirectional association public class User { private int id; private String name; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn( name = "groupId") private Group group; } public class Group { private int id; private String name; @OneToMany(mappedBy="group") private List<User> users; } The difference is wheather the group hold a refer of the user. So I wonder if this is the only difference? which is recommended?

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  • NHibernate query against the key field of a dictionary (map)

    - by Carl Raymond
    I have an object model where a Calendar object has an IDictionary<MembershipUser, Perms> called UserPermissions, where MembershipUser is an object, and Perms is a simple enumeration. This is in the mapping file for Calendar as <map name="UserPermissions" table="CalendarUserPermissions" lazy="true" cascade="all"> <key column="CalendarID"/> <index-many-to-many class="MembershipUser" column="UserGUID" /> <element column="Permissions" type="CalendarPermission" not-null="true" /> </map> Now I want to execute a query to find all calendars for which a given user has some permission defined. The permission is irrelevant; I just want a list of the calendars where a given user is present as a key in the UserPermissions dictionary. I have the username property, not a MembershipUser object. How do I build that using QBC (or HQL)? Here's what I've tried: ISession session = SessionManager.CurrentSession; ICriteria calCrit = session.CreateCriteria<Calendar>(); ICriteria userCrit = calCrit.CreateCriteria("UserPermissions.indices"); userCrit.Add(Expression.Eq("Username", username)); return calCrit.List<Calendar>(); This constructed invalid SQL -- the WHERE clause contained WHERE membership1_.Username = @p0 as expected, but the FROM clause didn't include the MemberhipUsers table. Also, I really had to struggle to learn about the .indices notation. I found it by digging through the NHibernate source code, and saw that there's also .elements and some other dotted notations. Where's a reference to the allowed syntax of an association path? I feel like what's above is very close, and just missing something simple.

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  • How to implement conditional render in JS?

    - by mare
    Below is the JS (jQuery) code of autocomplete's result function. You can see there's some lines where I print out <li>s containing some data properties (that come in as a result of automcomplete's AJAX call). How could I rewrite this so that <li> would be conditionally rendered based on whether the property contains any value being either int or string (not empty string or whitespace) or something else that can be represented as string? $(".clients-dropdown").result(function (event, data, formatted) { if (data) { // set the hidden input that we need for Client entity rematerialize $(".client-id").val(data.client_id); if (data.ClientName && data.Address1 && data.postalcode && data.postname) { $(".client-address").html( "<li>" + data.ClientName + "</li>" + "<li>" + data.Address1 + "</li>" + "<li>" + data.postalcode + " " + data.postname + "</li>" ); $(".client-details").html( "<li>" + data.PrettyId + "</li>" + "<li>" + data.VatNo + "</li>" + "<li>" + data.Phone + "</li>" + "<li>" + data.Mobile + "</li>" + "<li>" + data.Email1 + "</li>" + "<li>" + data.Contact + "</li>" ); } } Also, for the AJAX call, should my server side action return null when there's a null for a property in the database or empty string?

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  • Why the HelloWorld of opennlp library works fine on Java but doesn't work with Jruby?

    - by 0x90
    I am getting this error: SyntaxError: hello.rb:13: syntax error, unexpected tIDENTIFIER public HelloWorld( InputStream data ) throws IOException { The HelloWorld.rb is: require "java" import java.io.FileInputStream; import java.io.InputStream; import java.io.IOException; import opennlp.tools.postag.POSModel; import opennlp.tools.postag.POSTaggerME; public class HelloWorld { private POSModel model; public HelloWorld( InputStream data ) throws IOException { setModel( new POSModel( data ) ); } public void run( String sentence ) { POSTaggerME tagger = new POSTaggerME( getModel() ); String[] words = sentence.split( "\\s+" ); String[] tags = tagger.tag( words ); double[] probs = tagger.probs(); for( int i = 0; i < tags.length; i++ ) { System.out.println( words[i] + " => " + tags[i] + " @ " + probs[i] ); } } private void setModel( POSModel model ) { this.model = model; } private POSModel getModel() { return this.model; } public static void main( String args[] ) throws IOException { if( args.length < 2 ) { System.out.println( "HelloWord <file> \"sentence to tag\"" ); return; } InputStream is = new FileInputStream( args[0] ); HelloWorld hw = new HelloWorld( is ); is.close(); hw.run( args[1] ); } } when running ruby HelloWorld.rb "I am trying to make it work" when I run the HelloWorld.java "I am trying to make it work" it works perfectly, of course the .java doesn't contain the require java statement. EDIT: I followed the following steps. The output for jruby -v : jruby 1.6.7.2 (ruby-1.8.7-p357) (2012-05-01 26e08ba) (Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM 1.6.0_35) [darwin-x86_64-java]

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  • Why are compilers so stupid?

    - by martinus
    I always wonder why compilers can't figure out simple things that are obvious to the human eye. They do lots of simple optimizations, but never something even a little bit complex. For example, this code takes about 6 seconds on my computer to print the value zero (using java 1.6): int x = 0; for (int i = 0; i < 100 * 1000 * 1000 * 1000; ++i) { x += x + x + x + x + x; } System.out.println(x); It is totally obvious that x is never changed so no matter how often you add 0 to itself it stays zero. So the compiler could in theory replace this with System.out.println(0). Or even better, this takes 23 seconds: public int slow() { String s = "x"; for (int i = 0; i < 100000; ++i) { s += "x"; } return 10; } First the compiler could notice that I am actually creating a string s of 100000 "x" so it could automatically use s StringBuilder instead, or even better directly replace it with the resulting string as it is always the same. Second, It does not recognize that I do not actually use the string at all, so the whole loop could be discarded! Why, after so much manpower is going into fast compilers, are they still so relatively dumb? EDIT: Of course these are stupid examples that should never be used anywhere. But whenever I have to rewrite a beautiful and very readable code into something unreadable so that the compiler is happy and produces fast code, I wonder why compilers or some other automated tool can't do this work for me.

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  • using STI and ActiveRecordBase<> with full FindAll

    - by oillio
    Is it possible to use generic support with single table inheritance, and still be able to FindAll of the base class? As a bonus question, will I be able to use ActiveRecordLinqBase< as well? I do love those queries. More detail: Say I have the following classes defined: public interface ICompany { int ID { get; set; } string Name { get; set; } } [ActiveRecord("companies", DiscriminatorColumn="type", DiscriminatorType="String", DiscriminatorValue="NA")] public abstract class Company<T> : ActiveRecordBase<T>, ICompany { [PrimaryKey] private int Id { get; set; } [Property] public String Name { get; set; } } [ActiveRecord(DiscriminatorValue="firm")] public class Firm : Company<Firm> { [Property] public string Description { get; set; } } [ActiveRecord(DiscriminatorValue="client")] public class Client : Company<Client> { [Property] public int ChargeRate { get; set; } } This works fine for most cases. I can do things like: var x = Client.FindAll(); But sometimes I want all of the companies. If I was not using generics I could do: var x = (Company[]) FindAll(Company); Client a = (Client)x[0]; Firm b = (Firm)x[1]; Is there a way to write a FindAll that returns an array of ICompany's that can then be typecast into their respective types? Something like: var x = (ICompany[]) FindAll(Company<ICompany>); Client a = (Client)x[0]; Or maybe I am going about implementing the generic support all wrong?

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  • php class scope when calling a non-method function not accessing all class members

    - by Aglystas
    So I'm using a stand alone function from within a class that that uses the class it's being called from. Here's the function function catalogProductLink($product_id,$product_name,$categories=true) { //This is the class that the function is called from global $STATE; if ($categories) { //The $STATE->category_id is the property I want to access, which I can't if (is_array($STATE->category_id)) { foreach($STATE->category_id as $cat_id) { if ($cat_id == 0) continue; $str .= "c$cat_id/"; } } } $str .= catalogUrlKeywords($product_name).'-p'.$product_id.'.html'; return $str; } And here's the function call, which is being made from within the $STATE class. $redirect = catalogProductLink($this->product_id, $tempProd->product_name, true, false); The object that I need access to is the $STATE object that has been declared global. Prior to this function call there are lots of public properties populated, but when I look at the $STATE object within the function scope it loses all the properties but one, product_id. The property that matters for this function is the category_id property, which is an array of category id's. I'm wondering why I don't have access to all the public properties of the $STATE object and how I can get access to them.

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2.0 + Implementation of a IRouteHandler goes not fire

    - by Peter
    Can anybody please help me with this as I have no idea why public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) is not executing. In my Global.asax.cs I have public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); routes.Add("ImageRoutes", new Route("Images/{filename}", new CustomRouteHandler())); } protected void Application_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } } //CustomRouteHandler implementation is below public class CustomRouteHandler : IRouteHandler { public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) { // IF I SET A BREAK POINT HERE IT DOES NOT HIT FOR SOME REASON. string filename = requestContext.RouteData.Values["filename"] as string; if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(filename)) { // return a 404 HttpHandler here } else { requestContext.HttpContext.Response.Clear(); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.ContentType = GetContentType(requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Url.ToString()); // find physical path to image here. string filepath = requestContext.HttpContext.Server.MapPath("~/logo.jpg"); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.WriteFile(filepath); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.End(); } return null; } } Can any body tell me what I'm missing here. Simply public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) does not fire. I havn't change anything in the web.config either. What I'm missing here? Please help.

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  • Can someone please clarify my understanding of a mock's Verify concept?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I'm playing around with some unit tests and mocking. I'm trying to verify that some code, in my method, has been called. I don't think I understand the Verify part of mocking right, because I can only ever Verify main method .. which is silly because that is what I Act upon anyways. I'm trying to test that my logic is working - so I thought I use Verify to see that certain steps in the method have been reached and enacted upon. Lets use this example to highlight what I am doing wrong. public interface IAuthenticationService { bool Authenticate(string username, string password); SignOut(); } public class FormsAuthenticationService : IAuthenticationService { public bool Authenticate(string username, string password) { var user = _userService.FindSingle(x => x.UserName == username); if (user == null) return false; // Hash their password. var hashedPassword = EncodePassword(password, user.PasswordSalt); if (!hashedPassword.Equals(password, StringComparison.InvariantCulture)) return false; FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(userName, true); return true; } } So now, I wish to verify that EncodePassword was called. FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(..) was called. Now, I don't care about the implimentations of both of those. And more importantly, I do not want to test those methods. That has to be handled elsewhere. What I though I should do is Verify that those methods were called and .. if possible ... an expected result was returned. Is this the correct understanding of what 'Verify' means with mocking? If so, can someone show me how I can do this. Preferable with moq but i'm happy with anything. Cheers :)

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  • Intermittent Issue Writing to Google Appengine Datastore

    - by user242153
    Hi, I have a functioning app and recently have had intermittent problems writing to the datastore. I did not make any relevant code changes, however in the last few days my attempts to write to the datastore sometimes work and sometimes don't. I am trying to save an object that is in a many to one relationship with an existing persisted parent. So, the logic works like this: 1) Parent pulled from the datastore 2) Child created / instantiated using constructor 3) Parent.addSingleChild(child); // the "addSingleChild" method just adds the object argument to the collection of children 4) child.setParent(Parent); // sets the Parent object to the parent field I am using transactions as explained in the documentation ending with "finally {if (tx.isActive()) {tx.rollback(); } }" When the servlet is called, the parent is called from the datastore and the child object is created and added to the many to one mapping to the pre-existing parent. The child should automatically be persisted, since the parent is already persistent, and the child is added to the collection of children that map to the parent. And it worked this way in the past. However, to be sure, i did add a pm.makePersistent(child). Doesn't seem to help, still have the intermittent problem. Any suggestions would be appreciated, and if you need to see the actual code I can post. Thanks

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  • Cocoa document-based app: Notification not always received by observer

    - by roysolay
    Hi, I hope somebody can help with my notification problem. I have a notification which looks to be set up correctly but it isn’t delivered as expected. I am developing a document based app. The delegate/ document class posts the notification when it reads from a saved file: [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] postNotificationName:notifyBsplinePolyOpened object:self]; Logging tells me that this line is reached whenever I open a saved document. In the DrawView class, I have observers for the windowOpen notification and the bsplinePoly file open notification: [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(mainWindowOpen:) name:NSWindowDidBecomeMainNotification object:nil]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(savedBspline:) name:notifyBsplinePolyOpened object:nil]; - (void) mainWindowOpen:(NSNotification*) note { NSLog(@"Window opened"); _mainWindow = [note object]; } - (void) savedBspline:(NSNotification*) note { NSLog(@"savedBspline called"); NSLog(@"note is %@", [note name]); } The behavior is odd. When I save and close the main window and reopen it, I get the “Window opened” message but not the “savedBspline called” message. If I leave a main window open and open a previously saved session, I get the “Window opened” message and the “savedBspline called” message. I have searched online discussion and Apple DevCenter documentation but I have not seen this problem.

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  • ASP.NET MVC: Can't figure out what VirtualPath is?

    - by Ryan_Pitts
    I have a View that displays a list of images and i am now trying to get it to display the images as thumbnails. Well, i'm pretty sure i got most of it right using VirtualPath's from a custom ActionResult although i can't seem to figure out what it is making the VirtualPath url?? BTW, i'm using XML to store the data from the images instead of SQL. Here is my code: Code from my custom ActionResult: public class ThumbnailResult : ActionResult { public ThumbnailResult(string virtualPath) { this.VirtualPath = virtualPath; } public string VirtualPath { get; set; } public override void ExecuteResult(ControllerContext context) { context.HttpContext.Response.ContentType = "image/bmp"; string fullFileName = context.HttpContext.Server.MapPath("~/Galleries/WhereConfusionMeetsConcrete/" + VirtualPath); using (System.Drawing.Image photoImg = System.Drawing.Image.FromFile(fullFileName)) { using (System.Drawing.Image thumbPhoto = photoImg.GetThumbnailImage(100, 100, null, new System.IntPtr())) { using (System.IO.MemoryStream ms = new System.IO.MemoryStream()) { thumbPhoto.Save(ms, System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Jpeg); context.HttpContext.Response.BinaryWrite(ms.ToArray()); context.HttpContext.Response.End(); } } } } } Code for my Controller: public ActionResult Thumbnail(string id) { return new ThumbnailResult(id); } Code for my View: <% foreach (var image in ViewData.Model) { %> <a href="../Galleries/TestGallery1/<%= image.Path %>"><img src="../Galleries/TestGallery1/thumbnail/<%= image.Path %>" alt="<%= image.Caption %>" /></a> <br /><br /><%= image.Caption %><br /><br /><br /> <% } %> Any help would be greatly appreciated!! Let me know of any questions you have as well. :) Thanks!

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  • C# class can not disguise to be another class because GetType method cannot be override

    - by zinking
    there is a statement in the CLR via C# saying in C#, one class cannot disguise to be another, because GetType is virutal and thus it cannot be override but I think in C# we can still hide the parent implementation of GetType. I must missed something if I hide the base GetType implementation then I can disguise my class to be another class, is that correct? The key here is not whether GetType is virutal or not, the question is can we disguise one class to be another in C# Following is the NO.4 answer from the possible duplicate, so My question is more on this. is this kind of disguise possible, if so, how can we say that we can prevent class type disguise in C# ? regardless of the GetType is virtual or not While its true that you cannot override the object.GetType() method, you can use "new" to overload it completely, thereby spoofing another known type. This is interesting, however, I haven't figured out how to create an instance of the "Type" object from scratch, so the example below pretends to be another type. public class NotAString { private string m_RealString = string.Empty; public new Type GetType() { return m_RealString.GetType(); } } After creating an instance of this, (new NotAString()).GetType(), will indeed return the type for a string. share|edit|flag answered Mar 15 at 18:39 Dr Snooze 213 By almost anything that looks at GetType has an instance of object, or at the very least some base type that they control or can reason about. If you already have an instance of the most derived type then there is no need to call GetType on it. The point is as long as someone uses GetType on an object they can be sure it's the system's implementation, not any other custom definition. – Servy Mar 15 at 18:54 add comment

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  • Problem with sprintf function, last parameters are wrong when written

    - by Apoc
    So I use sprintf sprintf(buffer,"%f|%f|%f|%f|%f|%f|%d|%f|%d", x, y, z, u, v, w, nID,dDistance, nConfig) But when I print the buffer I get the 2 last parameters wrong, they are lets suppose to be 35.0000 and 0 and in the string they are 0.00000 and 10332430 and my buffer is long enough and all the other parameters are good in the string Any idea? Is there a length limit to sprintf or something^ I checked the types of all the numbers and they are right, but what seems to be the problem is the dDistance. When I remove it from the sprint, the nConfig gets the right value in the string, but when I remove nConfig, dDistance still doesn't get the right value. I checked and dDistance is a double. Any idea? Since people don't seem to believe me I did this : char test[255]={0}; int test1 = 2; double test2=35.00; int test3 = 0; sprintf(test,"%d|%f|%d",test1,test2,test3); and I get this in my string: 2|0.000000|1078034432

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  • Visual Studio project remains "stuck" when stopped

    - by Traveling Tech Guy
    Hi, Currently developing a connector DLL to HP's Quality Center. I'm using their (insert expelative) COM API to connect to the server. An Interop wrapper gets created automatically by VStudio. My solution has 2 projects: the DLL and a tester application - essentially a form with buttons that call functions in the DLL. Everything works well - I can create defects, update them and delete them. When I close the main form, the application stops nicely. But when I call a function that returns a list of all available projects (to fill a combo box), if I close the main form, VStudio still shows the solution as running and I have to stop it. I've managed to pinpoint a single function in my code that when I call, the solution remains "hung" and if I don't, it closes well. It's a call to a property in the TDC object get_VisibleProjects that returns a List (not the .Net one, but a type in the COM library) - I just iterate over it and return a proper list (that I later use to fill the combo box): public List<string> GetAvailableProjects() { List<string> projects = new List<string>(); foreach (string project in this.tdc.get_VisibleProjects(qcDomain)) { projects.Add(project); } return projects; } My assumption is that something gets retained in memory. If I run the EXE outside of VStudio it closes - but who knows what gets left behind in memory? My question is - how do I get rid of whatever calling this property returns? Shouldn't the GC handle this? Do I need to delve into pointers? Things I've tried: getting the list into a variable and setting it to null at the end of the function Adding a destructor to the class and nulling the tdc object Stepping through the tester function application all the way out, whne the form closes and the Main function ends - it closes, but VStudio still shows I'm running. Thanks for your assistance!

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