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  • Flex+JPA/Hibernate+BlazeDS+MySQL how to debug this monster?!

    - by Zenzen
    Ok so I'm making a "simple" web app using the technologies from the topic, recently I found http://www.adobe.com/devnet/flex/articles/flex_hibernate.html so I'm following it and I try to apply it to my app, the only difference being I'm working on a Mac and I'm using MAMP for the database (so no command line for me). The thing is I'm having some trouble with retrieving/connecting to the database. I have the remoting-config.xml, persistance.xml, a News.java class (my Entity), a NewsService.java class, a News.as class - all just like in the tutorial. I have of course this line in one of my .mxmls: <mx:RemoteObject id="loaderService" destination="newsService" result="handleLoadResult(event)" fault="handleFault(event)" showBusyCursor="true" /> And my remoting-config.xml looks like this (well part of it): <destination id="newsService"> <properties><source>com.gamelist.news.NewsService</source></properties> </destination> NewsService has a method: public List<News> getLatestNews() { EntityManagerFactory emf = Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory(PERSISTENCE_UNIT); EntityManager em = emf.createEntityManager(); Query findLatestQuery = em.createNamedQuery("news.findLatest"); List<News> news = findLatestQuery.getResultList(); return news; } And the named query is in the News class: @Entity @Table(name="GLT_NEWS") @NamedQueries({ @NamedQuery(name="news.findLatest", query="from GLT_NEWS order by new_date_added limit 5 ") }) The handledLoadResult looks like this: private function handleLoadResult(ev:ResultEvent):void { newsList = ev.result as ArrayCollection; newsRecords = newsList.length; } Where: [Bindable] private var newsList:ArrayCollection = new ArrayCollection(); But when I try to trigger: loaderService.getLatestNews(); nothing happens, newsList is empty. Few things I need to point out: 1) as I said I didn't install mysql manually, but I'm using MAMP (yes, the server's running), could this cause some trouble? 2) I already have a "gladm" database and I have a "GLT_NEWS" table with all the fields, is this bad? Basically the question is how am I suppose to debug this thing so I can find the mistake I'm making? I know that loadData() is executed (did a trace()), but I have no idea what happens with loaderService.getLatestNews()... @EDIT: ok so I see I'm getting an error in the "fault handler" which says "Error: Client.Error.MessageSend - Channel.Connect.Failed error NetConnection.Call.Failed: HTTP: Status 404: url: 'http://localhost:8080/WebContent/messagebroker/amf' - "

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  • XML Postback issue

    - by Mikey1980
    I have a script that is designed to parse XML postbacks from Ultracart, right now just dumps it into a MySQL table. The script works fine if I point it to a XML file on my localhost but using 'php://input' it doesn't seem to grabbing anything. My logs show apache returning 200 after the post so I have no idea what could be wrong or how to drill down the issue.. here's the code: $doc = new DOMDocument(); $doc->loadXML($page); $handle = fopen("test2/".time().".xml", "w+"); fwrite($handle,trim($page)); // it doesn't save this either :'( fclose(); require_once('includes/database.php'); $db = new Database('localhost', 'user', 'password', 'db_name'); $data = array(); $exports = $doc->getElementsByTagName("export"); foreach ($exports as $export) { $orders = $export->getElementsByTagName("order"); foreach($orders as $order) { $data['order_id'] = $order->getElementsByTagName("order_id")->item(0)->nodeValue; $data['payment_status'] = $order->getElementsByTagName("payment_status")->item(0)->nodeValue; $date_array = explode(" ",$order->getElementsByTagName("payment_date_time")->item(0)->nodeValue); if ($date_array[1] == 'JAN') { $date_array[1] = '01'; } if ($date_array[1] == 'FEB') { $date_array[1] = '02'; } if ($date_array[1] == 'MAR') { $date_array[1] = '03'; } if ($date_array[1] == 'APR') { $date_array[1] = '04'; } if ($date_array[1] == 'MAY') { $date_array[1] = '05'; } // converts Ultracart date to if ($date_array[1] == 'JUN') { $date_array[1] = '06'; } // MySQL date if ($date_array[1] == 'JUL') { $date_array[1] = '07'; } if ($date_array[1] == 'AUG') { $date_array[1] = '08'; } if ($date_array[1] == 'SEP') { $date_array[1] = '09'; } if ($date_array[1] == 'OCT') { $date_array[1] = '10'; } if ($date_array[1] == 'NOV') { $date_array[1] = '11'; } if ($date_array[1] == 'DEC') { $date_array[1] = '12'; } $data['payment_date'] = $date_array[2]."-".$date_array[1]."-".$date_array[0]; $data['payment_time'] = $date_array[3]; //... we'll skip this, there are 80 some elements $data['discount'] = $order->getElementsByTagName("discount")->item(0)->nodeValue; $data['distribution_center_code'] = $order->getElementsByTagName("distribution_center_code")->item(0)->nodeValue; } } } $db->insert('order_history',$data); } else die('ERROR: Token Check Failed!');

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  • Common DataAnnotations in ASP.Net MVC2

    - by Scott Mayfield
    Howdy, I have what should be a simple question. I have a set of validations that use System.CompontentModel.DataAnnotations . I have some validations that are specific to certain view models, so I'm comfortable with having the validation code in the same file as my models (as in the default AccountModels.cs file that ships with MVC2). But I have some common validations that apply to several models as well (valid email address format for example). When I cut/paste that validation to the second model that needs it, of course I get a duplicate definition error because they're in the same namespace (projectName.Models). So I thought of removing the common validations to a separate class within the namespace, expecting that all of my view models would be able to access the validations from there. Unexpectedly, the validations are no longer accessible. I've verified that they are still in the same namespace, and they are all public. I wouldn't expect that I would have to have any specific reference to them (tried adding using statement for the same namespace, but that didn't resolve it, and via the add references dialog, a project can't reference itself (makes sense). So any idea why public validations that have simply been moved to another file in the same namespace aren't visible to my models? CommonValidations.cs using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.ComponentModel; using System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotations; using System.Text.RegularExpressions; namespace ProjectName.Models { public class CommonValidations { [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Field | AttributeTargets.Property, AllowMultiple = true, Inherited = true)] public sealed class EmailFormatValidAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { if (value != null) { var expression = @"^[a-zA-Z][\w\.-]*[a-zA-Z0-9]@[a-zA-Z0-9][\w\.-]*[a-zA-Z0-9]\.[a-zA-Z][a-zA-Z\.]*[a-zA-Z]$"; return Regex.IsMatch(value.ToString(), expression); } else { return false; } } } } } And here's the code that I want to use the validation from: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.ComponentModel; using System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotations; using Growums.Models; namespace ProjectName.Models { public class PrivacyModel { [Required(ErrorMessage="Required")] [EmailFormatValid(ErrorMessage="Invalid Email")] public string Email { get; set; } } }

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  • vb.net .aspxauth

    - by Morgan
    I am working with a large site trying to implement web parts for particular users in a particular subdirectory but I can't get the .ASPXAUTH cookie to be recognized. I've read dozens of tutorials and MS class library pages that tell me how it should work to no avail. I am brand new to Web parts, so I'm sorry if I'm unclear. The idea is that logged in users can travel the site, but then when they go to their dashboard, they are programmatically authenticated using Membership and FormsAuthentication to pull up their Personalization. When I step through the code, I can see the cookie being set, and that it exists on the following page, but Membership.GetUser() and User.Identity are both empty. I know the user exists because I created it programmatically using Membership.CreateUser() and I can see it when I do Membership.GetAllUsers() and it's online when i use Membership.GetUser(username) but the Personalization doesn't work. Right now, I'm just trying to get the proof of concept going. I've tried creating the ticket and cookie myself, and also using SetAuthCookie() (code follows). I really just need a clue as to what to look for. Here's the "login" page... If Membership.ValidateUser(testusername, testpassword) Then -- Works FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(testusername, true) Response.Redirect("webpartsdemo1.aspx", False) End If And the next page (webpartsdemo1.aspx) Dim cookey As String = ".ASPXAUTH" lblContent.Text &= "<br><br>" & Request.Cookies(cookey).Name & " Details" lblContent.Text &= "<br>path = " & Request.Cookies(cookey).Path lblContent.Text &= "<br>domain = " & Request.Cookies(cookey).Domain lblContent.Text &= "<br>expires = " & Request.Cookies(cookey).Expires lblContent.Text &= "<br>Secure only? " & Request.Cookies(cookey).Secure lblContent.Text &= "<br>HTTP only? = " & Request.Cookies(cookey).HttpOnly lblContent.Text &= "<br>Has subkeys? " & Request.Cookies(cookey).HasKeys lblContent.Text &= "<br/><br/>request authenticated? " & Request.IsAuthenticated.ToString lblContent.Text &= " Getting user<br/>Current User: " Dim muGidget As MembershipUser If Request.IsAuthenticated Then muGidget = Membership.GetUser lblContent.Text &= Membership.GetUser().UserName Else lblContent.Text &= "none found" End If Output: .ASPXAUTH Details path = / domain = expires = 12:00:00 AM Secure only? False HTTP only? = False Has subkeys? False request authenticated? False Getting user Current User: none found Sorry to go on so long. Thanks for any help you can provide.

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  • Catching an exception class within a template

    - by Todd Bauer
    I'm having a problem using the exception class Overflow() for a Stack template I'm creating. If I define the class regularly there is no problem. If I define the class as a template, I cannot make my call to catch() work properly. I have a feeling it's simply syntax, but I can't figure it out for the life of me. #include<iostream> #include<exception> using namespace std; template <class T> class Stack { private: T *stackArray; int size; int top; public: Stack(int size) { this->size = size; stackArray = new T[size]; top = 0; } ~Stack() { delete[] stackArray; } void push(T value) { if (isFull()) throw Overflow(); stackArray[top] = value; top++; } bool isFull() { if (top == size) return true; else return false; } class Overflow {}; }; int main() { try { Stack<double> Stack(5); Stack.push( 5.0); Stack.push(10.1); Stack.push(15.2); Stack.push(20.3); Stack.push(25.4); Stack.push(30.5); } catch (Stack::Overflow) { cout << "ERROR! The stack is full.\n"; } return 0; } The problem is in the catch (Stack::Overflow) statement. As I said, if the class is not a template, this works just fine. However, once I define it as a template, this ceases to work. I've tried all sorts of syntaxes, but I always get one of two sets of error messages from the compiler. If I use catch(Stack::Overflow): ch18pr01.cpp(89) : error C2955: 'Stack' : use of class template requires template argument list ch18pr01.cpp(13) : see declaration of 'Stack' ch18pr01.cpp(89) : error C2955: 'Stack' : use of class template requires template argument list ch18pr01.cpp(13) : see declaration of 'Stack' ch18pr01.cpp(89) : error C2316: 'Stack::Overflow' : cannot be caught as the destructor and/or copy constructor are inaccessible EDIT: I meant If I use catch(Stack<double>::Overflow) or any variety thereof: ch18pr01.cpp(89) : error C2061: syntax error : identifier 'Stack' ch18pr01.cpp(89) : error C2310: catch handlers must specify one type ch18pr01.cpp(95) : error C2317: 'try' block starting on line '75' has no catch handlers I simply can not figure this out. Does anyone have any idea?

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  • EventDispatcher between an as and an fla?

    - by Christopher Richa
    Hi everyone. I am making a fighting game in Flash and while I have everything running, I am missing something: a victory/loss screen. Logically, I know how to do it: if character.hp < 0 { character.dead = true; dispatchevent("death", event) } My problem is that I have no idea as to how to code it. I know I will use two classes and my two .fla files (unless I am wrong). I have two .fla files that are in play here: the Menu.fla file and the Arena.fla file. Menu.fla contains the entire navigation of the game, options, character selection screens, etc. and when it is time for the player to engage in battle, it loads the Arena.fla file, which contains only the backgrounds (depending on the selected stage) and for now is set to a length of one frame only. For Arena.fla, the real action happens in my classes, but logically, I would only need HP.as and Character.as. In Character.as, I have declared the following variable: var isDead:Boolean = false; //is character dead? In HP.as, believe I should have the following: if(currentHp<0) { currentHp = 0; character.isDead = true; //declared as var `character:Object;` EventDispatcher.dispatchEventListener("playerDead", playerDead); } And finally, in Arena.fla, I want to be able to detect the above-mentioned eventlistener and simply move on to a second frame which will display a message in the style of "PLAYER ONE HAS WON" or "PLAYER ONE HAS LOST" with a button that will allow me to go back to the character selection screen. This is the first part in which I am stuck: how do I detect the dispatched event listener in my main .fla file? Secondly, if the player clicks on the "CONTINUE" button, which displays regardless if the player has won or lost, how can my Menu.fla (which loads the Arena.swf) detect this click event, unload the game, and go back to the character selection screen? Thank you in advance for helping me out. I realize this is a lot of text but it's the most descriptive I can be. If you have any questions or need any clarification concerning my question, feel free to speak up. -Christopher

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  • Synchronized IEnumerator<T>

    - by Dan Bryant
    I'm putting together a custom SynchronizedCollection<T> class so that I can have a synchronized Observable collection for my WPF application. The synchronization is provided via a ReaderWriterLockSlim, which, for the most part, has been easy to apply. The case I'm having trouble with is how to provide thread-safe enumeration of the collection. I've created a custom IEnumerator<T> nested class that looks like this: private class SynchronizedEnumerator : IEnumerator<T> { private SynchronizedCollection<T> _collection; private int _currentIndex; internal SynchronizedEnumerator(SynchronizedCollection<T> collection) { _collection = collection; _collection._lock.EnterReadLock(); _currentIndex = -1; } #region IEnumerator<T> Members public T Current { get; private set;} #endregion #region IDisposable Members public void Dispose() { var collection = _collection; if (collection != null) collection._lock.ExitReadLock(); _collection = null; } #endregion #region IEnumerator Members object System.Collections.IEnumerator.Current { get { return Current; } } public bool MoveNext() { var collection = _collection; if (collection == null) throw new ObjectDisposedException("SynchronizedEnumerator"); _currentIndex++; if (_currentIndex >= collection.Count) { Current = default(T); return false; } Current = collection[_currentIndex]; return true; } public void Reset() { if (_collection == null) throw new ObjectDisposedException("SynchronizedEnumerator"); _currentIndex = -1; Current = default(T); } #endregion } My concern, however, is that if the Enumerator is not Disposed, the lock will never be released. In most use cases, this is not a problem, as foreach should properly call Dispose. It could be a problem, however, if a consumer retrieves an explicit Enumerator instance. Is my only option to document the class with a caveat implementer reminding the consumer to call Dispose if using the Enumerator explicitly or is there a way to safely release the lock during finalization? I'm thinking not, since the finalizer doesn't even run on the same thread, but I was curious if there other ways to improve this. EDIT After thinking about this a bit and reading the responses (particular thanks to Hans), I've decided this is definitely a bad idea. The biggest issue actually isn't forgetting to Dispose, but rather a leisurely consumer creating deadlock while enumerating. I now only read-lock long enough to get a copy and return the enumerator for the copy.

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  • markitup wysiwyg with a standard HTML form

    - by Chris
    Hi, I'm trying to use the markitup editor on my site and I'm having a problem trying to figure out what I need to do to submit the text area to my server side script. I'm guessing there is something simple that needs to be done but my lack of JS/JQuery knowledge is making it really hard to find a answer The editor works fine, I just want to use my own form and submit button with it, however when I try to submit the form I don't get any of the textarea data in my script. Any idea what I need to do? This is the min that works (before submit) In the Head of my HTML <script type="text/javascript" > <!-- $(document).ready(function() { $("#markItUp").markItUp(mySettings); }); --> </script> And the body: <form id="postpreview" name="newpost" action="/someurl" method="POST" /> <input type="hidden" name="key1" value="val1" /> <input type="hidden" name="key2" value="val2" /> <textarea name="text" id="markItUp"></textarea> <input id="SubmitPost" type="image" value="Continue" name="Doit" class="preview" src="/img/somimage" /> </form> As I said, everything prior to the submit works but once I submit I don't get anything for the form data element "text". I tried doing this in the head: <script type="text/javascript" > <!-- $(document).ready(function() { $("#markItUp").markItUp(mySettings); $("#SubmitPost").click(function(){ data = markItUp.textarea.value; $.post("scripturl",{ key1: "value1", key2: "value2", text: data }); }); }); --> </script> I've also tried: <script type="text/javascript" > <!-- $(document).ready(function() { $("#markItUp").markItUp(mySettings); $("#postpreview").submit(function(){ var data = $("#markItUp").html(); $.post("live",{ func: "posting", text: data }); return false; }); }); --> </script> And I have no luck - the last attempt above just disabled the form (so clicking on the submit or preview buttons did nothing). Any ideas? I guessing its really simple to use my own form but I have no clue how to do it. TIA!

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  • Reading xml within xml as String in flex/AS3

    - by duder
    I'm getting XML input that looks like this <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <data1>this is data 1</data1> <data2>this is data 2</data2> <data3> <3a>this is data 3a</3a> <3b>this is data 3b</3b> <3c> <TextFlow xmlns="http://ns.adobe.com/textLayout/2008"> <p direction="ltr" > <span>some text</span> <span>some additional text</span> </p> <p direction="ltr"> <span>some text</span> <span>some additional text</span> </p> </TextFlow> </3c> </data3> I can read <data1> with event.result.data1 which outputs a string this is data1 But when I do the same thing to event.result.data3.3c, it prints object [object] so I guess it's trying to dig deeper into the tree. But I need the actual string text (not xml tree) starting from and including <TextFlow></TextFlow> to be stored and printed as a string. Any idea what's the syntax for this? The string I'm looking for would look like this: <TextFlow xmlns="http://ns.adobe.com/textLayout/2008"> <p direction="ltr" > <span>some text</span> <span>some additional text</span> </p> <p direction="ltr"> <span>some text</span> <span>some additional text</span> </p> </TextFlow>

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  • OSGI classcast exception on felix

    - by Nico
    Hi, i'm fairly new to osgi and am trying to get a functional proof of concept together. The setup is that my common api is created in a bundle creatively named common-api.jar with no bundle activator, but it exports all it's interfaces. the one of interest in this situation is DatabaseService.java. I then have a Second bundle called systemx-database-service. That implements the database service interface. this works fine as in the activator of the implementation bundle i test the connection to the database and select some arbitraty values. I also register the service i want to be available to the other bundle's like so: context.registerService(DatabaseService.class.getName(), new SystemDatabaseServiceImpl(context), new Properties()); The basic idea being when you look for a service reference for a Database service you'll get back the SystemDatabaseService implementation. When i do a inspect service the output it this: -> inspect s c 69 System Database Service (69) provides services: ---------------------------------------------- objectClass = za.co.xxx.xxx.common.api.DatabaseService service.id = 39 which would lead me to believe that if i do this in a test bundle: context.getService(context.getServiceReference(DatabaseService.class)); i should get back an instance of DatabaseService.class, but alas no such luck. it simply seems like it cannot find the service. stick with me here my story gets stranger. figuring there is no where to go but up i wrote this monstrosity: for (Bundle bundle : bundles) { if (bundle.getSymbolicName().equals("za.co.xxx.xxx.database-service")) { ServiceReference[] registeredServices = bundle.getRegisteredServices(); for (ServiceReference ref : registeredServices) { DatabaseService service = (DatabaseService) context.getService(ref); // use service here. } } } } now i can actually see the service reference, but i get this error java.lang.ClassCastException: za.co.xxx.xxx.database.service.impl.SystemDatabaseServiceImpl cannot be cast to za.co.xxx.xx.common.api.DatabaseService which is crazy since the implementation clearly implements the interface! Any help would be appreciated. Please keep in mind i'm very new at the osgi way of thinking so my whole approach here might be flawed. oh. if anyone wants the manifests i can post them. and i'm using the maven-bnd-plugin to build and executing on felix. thanks Nico

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  • More advanced usage of interfaces

    - by owca
    To be honest I'm not quite sure if I understand the task myself :) I was told to create class MySimpleIt, that implements Iterator and Iterable and will allow to run the provided test code. Arguments and variables of objects cannot be either Collections or arrays. The code : MySimpleIt msi=new MySimple(10,100, MySimpleIt.PRIME_NUMBERS); for(int el: msi) System.out.print(el+" "); System.out.println(); msi.setType(MySimpleIterator.ODD_NUMBERS); msi.setLimits(15,30); for(int el: msi) System.out.print(el+" "); System.out.println(); msi.setType(MySimpleIterator.EVEN_NUMBERS); for(int el: msi) System.out.print(el+" "); System.out.println(); The result I should obtain : 11 13 17 19 23 29 31 37 41 43 47 53 59 61 67 71 73 79 83 89 97 15 17 19 21 23 25 27 29 16 18 20 22 24 26 28 30 And here's my code : import java.util.Iterator; interface MySimpleIterator{ static int ODD_NUMBERS=0; static int EVEN_NUMBERS = 1; static int PRIME_NUMBERS = 2; int setType(int i); } public class MySimpleIt implements Iterable, Iterator, MySimpleIterator { public MySimple my; public MySimpleIt(MySimple m){ my = m; } public int setType(int i){ my.numbers = i; return my.numbers; } public void setLimits(int d, int u){ my.down = d; my.up = u; } public Iterator iterator(){ Iterator it = this.iterator(); return it; } public void remove(){ } public Object next(){ Object o = new Object(); return o; } public boolean hasNext(){ return true; } } class MySimple { public int down; public int up; public int numbers; public MySimple(int d, int u, int n){ down = d; up = u; numbers = n; } } In the test code I have error in line when creating MySimpleIt msi object, as it finds MySimple instead of MySimpleIt. Also I have errors in for-each loops, because compiler wants 'ints' there instead of Object. Anyone has any idea on how to solve it ?

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  • Moving from Linear Probing to Quadratic Probing (hash collisons)

    - by Nazgulled
    Hi, My current implementation of an Hash Table is using Linear Probing and now I want to move to Quadratic Probing (and later to chaining and maybe double hashing too). I've read a few articles, tutorials, wikipedia, etc... But I still don't know exactly what I should do. Linear Probing, basically, has a step of 1 and that's easy to do. When searching, inserting or removing an element from the Hash Table, I need to calculate an hash and for that I do this: index = hash_function(key) % table_size; Then, while searching, inserting or removing I loop through the table until I find a free bucket, like this: do { if(/* CHECK IF IT'S THE ELEMENT WE WANT */) { // FOUND ELEMENT return; } else { index = (index + 1) % table_size; } while(/* LOOP UNTIL IT'S NECESSARY */); As for Quadratic Probing, I think what I need to do is change how the "index" step size is calculated but that's what I don't understand how I should do it. I've seen various pieces of code, and all of them are somewhat different. Also, I've seen some implementations of Quadratic Probing where the hash function is changed to accommodated that (but not all of them). Is that change really needed or can I avoid modifying the hash function and still use Quadratic Probing? EDIT: After reading everything pointed out by Eli Bendersky below I think I got the general idea. Here's part of the code at http://eternallyconfuzzled.com/tuts/datastructures/jsw_tut_hashtable.aspx: 15 for ( step = 1; table->table[h] != EMPTY; step++ ) { 16 if ( compare ( key, table->table[h] ) == 0 ) 17 return 1; 18 19 /* Move forward by quadratically, wrap if necessary */ 20 h = ( h + ( step * step - step ) / 2 ) % table->size; 21 } There's 2 things I don't get... They say that quadratic probing is usually done using c(i)=i^2. However, in the code above, it's doing something more like c(i)=(i^2-i)/2 I was ready to implement this on my code but I would simply do: index = (index + (index^index)) % table_size; ...and not: index = (index + (index^index - index)/2) % table_size; If anything, I would do: index = (index + (index^index)/2) % table_size; ...cause I've seen other code examples diving by two. Although I don't understand why... 1) Why is it subtracting the step? 2) Why is it diving it by 2?

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  • NSStringWithFormat Swizzled to allow missing format numbered args

    - by coneybeare
    Based on this SO question asked a few hours ago, I have decided to implement a swizzled method that will allow me to take a formatted NSString as the format arg into stringWithFormat, and have it not break when omitting one of the numbered arg references (%1$@, %2$@) I have it working, but this is the first copy, and seeing as this method is going to be potentially called hundreds of thousands of times per app run, I need to bounce this off of some experts to see if this method has any red flags, major performance hits, or optimizations #define NUMARGS(...) (sizeof((int[]){__VA_ARGS__})/sizeof(int)) @implementation NSString (UAFormatOmissions) + (id)uaStringWithFormat:(NSString *)format, ... { if (format != nil) { va_list args; va_start(args, format); // $@ is an ordered variable (%1$@, %2$@...) if ([format rangeOfString:@"$@"].location == NSNotFound) { //call apples method NSString *s = [[[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:format arguments:args] autorelease]; va_end(args); return s; } NSMutableArray *newArgs = (NSMutableArray *)[NSMutableArray arrayWithCapacity:NUMARGS(args)]; id arg = nil; int i = 1; while (arg = va_arg(args, id)) { NSString *f = (NSString *)[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%%%d\$\@", i]; i++; if ([format rangeOfString:f].location == NSNotFound) continue; else [newArgs addObject:arg]; } va_end(args); char *newArgList = (char *)malloc(sizeof(id) * [newArgs count]); [newArgs getObjects:(id *)newArgList]; NSString* result = [[[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:format arguments:newArgList] autorelease]; free(newArgList); return result; } return nil; } The basic algorithm is: search the format string for the %1$@, %2$@ variables by searching for %@ if not found, call the normal stringWithFormat and return else, loop over the args if the format has a position variable (%i$@) for position i, add the arg to the new arg array else, don't add the arg take the new arg array, convert it back into a va_list, and call initWithFormat:arguments: to get the correct string. The idea is that I would run all [NSString stringWithFormat:] calls through this method instead. This might seem unnecessary to many, but click on to the referenced SO question (first line) to see examples of why I need to do this. Ideas? Thoughts? Better implementations? Better Solutions?

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  • Android Market: Application not visible on some Devices

    - by Andreas
    Hello, i have written an application that needs to process outgoing calls. Everything works fine, the application has already a few hundred downloads, but now i get feedback from people who would like to download it, yet cannot find it. I have done some tests and have found that the permission "PROCESS_OUTGOING_CALLS" seems to be responsible for this. If i include it in an app, people with branded phones (at least in Germany) cannot find it, as soon as i remove this permission, everything is fine (when i re-insert it again, the app vanishes again) The weird thing is, that those users can see other apps which use this permission in the market. I have compared my manifest file to outputs from other manifest files and cannot understand why it doesn't work. Here is the manifest file for a test application i wrote to test the problem: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <manifest xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" package="com.eventkontor.marketavailabilitytest" android:versionName="1.2" android:versionCode="3" android:installLocation="auto"> <application android:icon="@drawable/icon" android:label="@string/app_name"> <activity android:name=".showMain" android:label="@string/app_name"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> </activity> </application> <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="3" android:targetSdkVersion="4" /> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET"></uses-permission> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.PROCESS_OUTGOING_CALLS"></uses-permission> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.READ_CONTACTS"></uses-permission> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.VIBRATE"></uses-permission> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.READ_PHONE_STATE"></uses-permission> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.ACCESS_WIFI_STATE"></uses-permission> <supports-screens android:normalScreens="true" android:resizeable="true" android:largeScreens="true" android:smallScreens="false"></supports-screens> </manifest> Does anyone have an idea what i'm doing wrong?

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  • How to represent different entities that have identical behavior?

    - by Dominik
    I have several different entities in my domain model (animal species, let's say), which have a few properties each. The entities are readonly (they do not change state during the application lifetime) and they have identical behavior (the differ only by the values of properties). How to implement such entities in code? Unsuccessful attempts: Enums I tried an enum like this: enum Animals { Frog, Duck, Otter, Fish } And other pieces of code would switch on the enum. However, this leads to ugly switching code, scattering the logic around and problems with comboboxes. There's no pretty way to list all possible Animals. Serialization works great though. Subclasses I also thought about where each animal type is a subclass of a common base abstract class. The implementation of Swim() is the same for all Animals, though, so it makes little sense and serializability is a big issue now. Since we represent an animal type (species, if you will), there should be one instance of the subclass per application, which is hard and weird to maintain when we use serialization. public abstract class AnimalBase { string Name { get; set; } // user-readable double Weight { get; set; } Habitat Habitat { get; set; } public void Swim(); { /* swim implementation; the same for all animals but depends uses the value of Weight */ } } public class Otter: AnimalBase{ public Otter() { Name = "Otter"; Weight = 10; Habitat = "North America"; } } // ... and so on Just plain awful. Static fields This blog post gave me and idea for a solution where each option is a statically defined field inside the type, like this: public class Animal { public static readonly Animal Otter = new Animal { Name="Otter", Weight = 10, Habitat = "North America"} // the rest of the animals... public string Name { get; set; } // user-readable public double Weight { get; set; } public Habitat Habitat { get; set; } public void Swim(); } That would be great: you can use it like enums (AnimalType = Animal.Otter), you can easily add a static list of all defined animals, you have a sensible place where to implement Swim(). Immutability can be achieved by making property setters protected. There is a major problem, though: it breaks serializability. A serialized Animal would have to save all its properties and upon deserialization it would create a new instance of Animal, which is something I'd like to avoid. Is there an easy way to make the third attempt work? Any more suggestions for implementing such a model?

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  • Offline backup synchronization

    - by Pavan Kumar
    There is a Central Server running Windows Server 2003 and SQL Server 2005 and there are 7 client machines situated in various places and has XP Pro & SQL Server 2005 installed in all of them. They are not interconnected so they are physically seperate. One person goes to each of these centers maybe twice a month and takes the backup (Full database consisting of mdf and ldf files) with a pen drive and brings it to the Central server which contains the central database holding same schema as all the other client databases. I need to synchronize each backup database (belonging to different centers) one by one to update the existing data or inserting new data in the central database . The solution i got was Replication. The pendrive is brought to central server consisting of 7 instances of the databases and then the databases is attached to the central server one by one to the same SQL Server where the central database exists. Then my idea was to replicate the backup database one by one i.e using single subscription (Central Database) and multiple publication ( i.e 7 instances of databases in my case) toplogy by performing replication locally (i.e in the same machine). So i tried to develop a UI in C# .Net to programatically run the Transactional Replication with push subscription using RMO Programming (which is incomplete as of now because there is no point in developing when you already know it is not the solution). Transactional Replication can either be set to initialize with a snapshot or without a snapshot. If i go for the first option i.e with a snapshot , the data whatever is present in Central Database is overwritten by the new data . So the data present initially in the central database is lost. If i try to initialize without snapshot , no data (the data already has the updated and new data) will be sent from the backup database to server. The replication will work in a scenario where any incremental changes is done only after you set the replication . So the initial data whatever was present in the backup database when setting up the replication will not be replicated when running the snapshot agent for the first time to synchronize. Only changes in the backup database thereafter will be reflected to the central database .(Remember I am not going to insert new data or make any changes to the backup database after i attach it to the Central Server. ) So this solution is not feasible. I want a solution for synchronizing from one client database to central database present in the same machine using C#.NET. If you can provide me small example maybe with two databases(with same schema) DB1(Client) to DB2(Server) consisting of one or two tables it will be very helpful. The synchronization is not bidirectional.I want to only update existing data or insert new data from DB1 to DB2 (DB2 may contain some data initially). Thanks and Regards Pavan

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  • Entity Framework in n-layered application - Lazy loading vs. Eager loading patterns

    - by Marconline
    Hi all. This questions doesn't let me sleep as it's since one year I'm trying to find a solution but... still nothing happened in my mind. Probably you can help me, because I think this is a very common issue. I've a n-layered application: presentation layer, business logic layer, model layer. Suppose for simplicity that my application contains, in the presentation layer, a form that allows a user to search for a customer. Now the user fills the filters through the UI and clicks a button. Something happens and the request arrives to presentation layer to a method like CustomerSearch(CustomerFilter myFilter). This business logic layer now keeps it simple: creates a query on the model and gets back results. Now the question: how do you face the problem of loading data? I mean business logic layer doesn't know that that particular method will be invoked just by that form. So I think that it doesn't know if the requesting form needs just the Customer objects back or the Customer objects with the linked Order entities. I try to explain better: our form just wants to list Customers searching by surname. It has nothing to do with orders. So the business logic query will be something like: (from c in ctx.CustomerSet where c.Name.Contains(strQry) select c).ToList(); now this is working correctly. Two days later your boss asks you to add a form that let you search for customers like the other and you need to show the total count of orders created by each customer. Now I'd like to reuse that query and add the piece of logic that attach (includes) orders and gets back that. How would you front this request? Here is the best (I think) idea I had since now. I'd like to hear from you: my CustomerSearch method in BLL doesn't create the query directly but passes through private extension methods that compose the ObjectQuery like: private ObjectQuery<Customer> SearchCustomers(this ObjectQuery<Customer> qry, CustomerFilter myFilter) and private ObjectQuery<Customer> IncludeOrders(this ObjectQuery<Customer> qry) but this doesn't convince me as it seems too complex. Thanks, Marco

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  • Datagrid using usercontrol

    - by klawusel
    Hello I am fighting with this problem: I have a usercontrol which contains a textbox and a button (the button calls some functions to set the textbox's text), here is the xaml: <UserControl x:Class="UcSelect" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" x:Name="Control1Name" <Grid x:Name="grid1" MaxHeight="25"> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition /> <ColumnDefinition Width="25"/> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="25"/> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <TextBox x:Name="txSelect" Text="{Binding UcText, Mode=TwoWay}" /> <Button x:Name="pbSelect" Background="Red" Grid.Column="1" Click="pbSelect_Click">...</Button> </Grid> And here the code behind: Partial Public Class UcSelect Private Shared Sub textChangedCallBack(ByVal [property] As DependencyObject, ByVal args As DependencyPropertyChangedEventArgs) Dim UcSelectBox As UcSelect = DirectCast([property], UcSelect) End Sub Public Property UcText() As String Get Return GetValue(UcTextProperty) End Get Set(ByVal value As String) SetValue(UcTextProperty, value) End Set End Property Public Shared ReadOnly UcTextProperty As DependencyProperty = _ DependencyProperty.Register("UcText", _ GetType(String), GetType(UcSelect), _ New FrameworkPropertyMetadata(String.Empty, FrameworkPropertyMetadataOptions.BindsTwoWayByDefault, New PropertyChangedCallback(AddressOf textChangedCallBack))) Public Sub New() InitializeComponent() grid1.DataContext = Me End Sub Private Sub pbSelect_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.RoutedEventArgs) 'just demo UcText = UcText + "!" End Sub End Class The UserControl works fine when used as a single control in this way: <local:UcSelect Grid.Row="1" x:Name="ucSingle1" UcText="{Binding FirstName, Mode=TwoWay}"/> Now I wanted to use the control in a custom datagrid column. As I like to have binding support I choosed to derive from DataGridtextColumn instead of using a DataGridTemplateColumn, here is the derived column class: Public Class DerivedColumn Inherits DataGridTextColumn Protected Overloads Overrides Function GenerateElement(ByVal oCell As DataGridCell, ByVal oDataItem As Object) As FrameworkElement Dim oElement = MyBase.GenerateElement(oCell, oDataItem) Return oElement End Function Protected Overloads Overrides Function GenerateEditingElement(ByVal oCell As DataGridCell, ByVal oDataItem As Object) As FrameworkElement Dim oUc As New UcSelect Dim oBinding As Binding = CType(Me.Binding, Binding) oUc.SetBinding(UcSelect.UcTextProperty, oBinding) Return oUc End Function End Class The column is used in xaml in the following way: <local:DerivedColumn Header="Usercontrol" Binding="{Binding FirstName, Mode=TwoWay}"></local:DerivedColumn> If I start my program all seems to be fine, but changes I make in the custom column are not reflected in the object (property "FirstName"), the changes are simply rolled back when leaving the cell. I think there must be something wrong with my GenerateEditingElement code, but have no idea ... Any Help would really be appreciated Regards Klaus

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  • C# Begin/EndReceive - how do I read large data?

    - by ryeguy
    When reading data in chunks of say, 1024, how do I continue to read from a socket that receives a message bigger than 1024 bytes until there is no data left? Should I just use BeginReceive to read a packet's length prefix only, and then once that is retrieved, use Receive() (in the async thread) to read the rest of the packet? Or is there another way? edit: I thought Jon Skeet's link had the solution, but there is a bit of a speedbump with that code. The code I used is: public class StateObject { public Socket workSocket = null; public const int BUFFER_SIZE = 1024; public byte[] buffer = new byte[BUFFER_SIZE]; public StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); } public static void Read_Callback(IAsyncResult ar) { StateObject so = (StateObject) ar.AsyncState; Socket s = so.workSocket; int read = s.EndReceive(ar); if (read > 0) { so.sb.Append(Encoding.ASCII.GetString(so.buffer, 0, read)); if (read == StateObject.BUFFER_SIZE) { s.BeginReceive(so.buffer, 0, StateObject.BUFFER_SIZE, 0, new AyncCallback(Async_Send_Receive.Read_Callback), so); return; } } if (so.sb.Length > 0) { //All of the data has been read, so displays it to the console string strContent; strContent = so.sb.ToString(); Console.WriteLine(String.Format("Read {0} byte from socket" + "data = {1} ", strContent.Length, strContent)); } s.Close(); } Now this corrected works fine most of the time, but it fails when the packet's size is a multiple of the buffer. The reason for this is if the buffer gets filled on a read it is assumed there is more data; but the same problem happens as before. A 2 byte buffer, for exmaple, gets filled twice on a 4 byte packet, and assumes there is more data. It then blocks because there is nothing left to read. The problem is that the receive function doesn't know when the end of the packet is. This got me thinking to two possible solutions: I could either have an end-of-packet delimiter or I could read the packet header to find the length and then receive exactly that amount (as I originally suggested). There's problems with each of these, though. I don't like the idea of using a delimiter, as a user could somehow work that into a packet in an input string from the app and screw it up. It also just seems kinda sloppy to me. The length header sounds ok, but I'm planning on using protocol buffers - I don't know the format of the data. Is there a length header? How many bytes is it? Would this be something I implement myself? Etc.. What should I do?

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  • "EXC_BAD_ACCESS: Unable to restore previously selected frame" Error, Array size?

    - by Job
    Hi there, I have an algorithm for creating the sieve of Eratosthenes and pulling primes from it. It lets you enter a max value for the sieve and the algorithm gives you the primes below that value and stores these in a c-style array. Problem: Everything works fine with values up to 500.000, however when I enter a large value -while running- it gives me the following error message in xcode: Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_ACCESS”. warning: Unable to restore previously selected frame. Data Formatters temporarily unavailable, will re-try after a 'continue'. (Not safe to call dlopen at this time.) My first idea was that I didn't use large enough variables, but as I am using 'unsigned long long int', this should not be the problem. Also the debugger points me to a point in my code where a point in the array get assigned a value. Therefore I wonder is there a maximum limit to an array? If yes: should I use NSArray instead? If no, then what is causing this error based on this information? EDIT: This is what the code looks like (it's not complete, for it fails at the last line posted). I'm using garbage collection. /*--------------------------SET UP--------------------------*/ unsigned long long int upperLimit = 550000; // unsigned long long int sieve[upperLimit]; unsigned long long int primes[upperLimit]; unsigned long long int indexCEX; unsigned long long int primesCounter = 0; // Fill sieve with 2 to upperLimit for(unsigned long long int indexA = 0; indexA < upperLimit-1; ++indexA) { sieve[indexA] = indexA+2; } unsigned long long int prime = 2; /*-------------------------CHECK & FIND----------------------------*/ while(!((prime*prime) > upperLimit)) { //check off all multiples of prime for(unsigned long long int indexB = prime-2; indexB < upperLimit-1; ++indexB) { // Multiple of prime = 0 if(sieve[indexB] != 0) { if(sieve[indexB] % prime == 0) { sieve[indexB] = 0; } } } /*---------------- Search for next prime ---------------*/ // index of current prime + 1 unsigned long long int indexC = prime - 1; while(sieve[indexC] == 0) { ++indexC; } prime = sieve[indexC]; // Store prime in primes[] primes[primesCounter] = prime; // This is where the code fails if upperLimit > 500000 ++primesCounter; indexCEX = indexC + 1; } As you may or may not see, is that I am -very much- a beginner. Any other suggestions are welcome of course :)

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  • Why does UIWebKit throw a structuralComplexityContribution exception?

    - by Axeva
    I've got a simple UIWebView in my iPhone app that's loading a XHTML document with some SGV embeded. This all works find on the desktop version of Safari, but it crashes in a UIWebView. Here is the Objective C: NSString *path = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"test" ofType:@"html"]; NSData *fileData = [NSData dataWithContentsOfFile: path]; [svgView loadData: fileData MIMEType: @"text/xml" textEncodingName: @"UTF-8" baseURL: [NSURL fileURLWithPath: path]]; I also tried a MIMEType of application/xhtml+xml, but it didn't help. Here is the HTML: <!DOCTYPE html> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>XTech SVG Demo</title> </head> <body> <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg"> <g style="fill-opacity:0.7;"> <circle cx="6.5cm" cy="2cm" r="100" style="fill:red; stroke:black; stroke-width:0.1cm" transform="translate(0,50)" /> <circle cx="6.5cm" cy="2cm" r="100" style="fill:blue; stroke:black; stroke-width:0.1cm" transform="translate(70,150)" /> <circle cx="6.5cm" cy="2cm" r="100" style="fill:green; stroke:black; stroke-width:0.1cm" transform="translate(-70,150)"/> </g> </svg> </body> </html> All very basic stuff. When it loads on the iPhone, however, it crashes with this error: 2010-03-31 10:37:10.252 ColorDoodle[2014:20b] -[DOMElement structuralComplexityContribution]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x3e51b60 2010-03-31 10:37:10.253 ColorDoodle[2014:20b] Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: ' -[DOMElement structuralComplexityContribution]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x3e51b60' Any idea why? Is this a bug in the rendering engine of the UIWebView? I don't see anything too odd here. * Updated * There is definitely something screwy going on here. If I add this bit of code just inside the tag, it works fine: <form> </form> Take that code back out, and it crashes again.

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  • AVFoundation buffer comparison to a saved image

    - by user577552
    Hi, I am a long time reader, first time poster on StackOverflow, and must say it has been a great source of knowledge for me. I am trying to get to know the AVFoundation framework. What I want to do is save what the camera sees and then detect when something changes. Here is the part where I save the image to a UIImage : if (shouldSetBackgroundImage) { CGColorSpaceRef colorSpace = CGColorSpaceCreateDeviceRGB(); // Create a bitmap graphics context with the sample buffer data CGContextRef context = CGBitmapContextCreate(rowBase, bufferWidth, bufferHeight, 8, bytesPerRow, colorSpace, kCGBitmapByteOrder32Little | kCGImageAlphaPremultipliedFirst); // Create a Quartz image from the pixel data in the bitmap graphics context CGImageRef quartzImage = CGBitmapContextCreateImage(context); // Free up the context and color space CGContextRelease(context); CGColorSpaceRelease(colorSpace); // Create an image object from the Quartz image UIImage * image = [UIImage imageWithCGImage:quartzImage]; [self setBackgroundImage:image]; NSLog(@"reference image actually set"); // Release the Quartz image CGImageRelease(quartzImage); //Signal that the image has been saved shouldSetBackgroundImage = NO; } and here is the part where I check if there is any change in the image seen by the camera : else { CGImageRef cgImage = [backgroundImage CGImage]; CGDataProviderRef provider = CGImageGetDataProvider(cgImage); CFDataRef bitmapData = CGDataProviderCopyData(provider); char* data = CFDataGetBytePtr(bitmapData); if (data != NULL) { int64_t numDiffer = 0, pixelCount = 0; NSMutableArray * pointsMutable = [NSMutableArray array]; for( int row = 0; row < bufferHeight; row += 8 ) { for( int column = 0; column < bufferWidth; column += 8 ) { //we get one pixel from each source (buffer and saved image) unsigned char *pixel = rowBase + (row * bytesPerRow) + (column * BYTES_PER_PIXEL); unsigned char *referencePixel = data + (row * bytesPerRow) + (column * BYTES_PER_PIXEL); pixelCount++; if ( !match(pixel, referencePixel, matchThreshold) ) { numDiffer++; [pointsMutable addObject:[NSValue valueWithCGPoint:CGPointMake(SCREEN_WIDTH - (column/ (float) bufferHeight)* SCREEN_WIDTH - 4.0, (row/ (float) bufferWidth)* SCREEN_HEIGHT- 4.0)]]; } } } numberOfPixelsThatDiffer = numDiffer; points = [pointsMutable copy]; } For some reason, this doesn't work, meaning that the iPhone detects almost everything as being different from the saved image, even though I set a very low threshold for detection in the match function... Do you have any idea of what I am doing wrong?

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  • "RFC 2833 RTP Event" Consecutive Events and the E "End" Bit

    - by brian_d
    Hello, I can send out a RFC 2833 dtmf event as outlined at http://www.ietf.org/rfc/rfc2833.txt When I do set the E "End" bit, but leave it as 0, I get the following behaviour: If for example keys 7874556332111111145855885#3 were pressed, then ALL events would be sent and show up in a program like wireshark, however only 87456321458585#3 would sound. So the first key (which I figure could be a separate issue) and any repeats of an event (ie 11111) are failing to sound. In section 3.9, figure 2 of the above linked document, they give a 911 example. Here all but the last event have the E bit set. When I set the bit for all numbers, I never get an event to sound. I have thought of a couple possible thing but do not know if they are the reason: 1) figure 2 shows payload types of 96 and 97 sent. I have not nor know how to exactly. In section 3.8, codes 96 and 97 are described as "the dynamic payload types 96 and 97 have been assigned for the redundancy mechanism and the telephone event payload respectively" 2) In section 3.5, "E:", "A sender MAY delay setting the end bit until retransmitting the last packet for a tone, rather than on its first transmission" Does anyone have an idea of how to actually do this? I have also fiddled around with timestamp intervals and the RTP marker. Any help is greatly appreciated. Here is a sample wireshark event capture of the relevant areas: 6590 31.159045000 xx.x.x.xxx --.--.---.-- RTP EVENT Payload type=RTP Event, DTMF Pound # (end) Real-Time Transport Protocol Stream setup by SDP (frame 6225) Setup frame: 6225 Setup Method: SDP 10.. .... = Version: RFC 1889 Version (2) ..0. .... = Padding: False ...0 .... = Extension: False .... 0000 = Contributing source identifiers count: 0 0... .... = Marker: False Payload type: telephone-event (101) Sequence number: 0 Extended sequence number: 65536 Timestamp: 0 Synchronization Source identifier: 0x15f27104 (368210180) RFC 2833 RTP Event Event ID: DTMF Pound # (11) 1... .... = End of Event: True .0.. .... = Reserved: False ..00 0000 = Volume: 0 Event Duration: 2048

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  • Intermittent fillMode=kCAFillModeForwards bug using CAKeyframeAnimation with path

    - by Mark24x7
    I'm having an intermittent problem when I move a UIImageView around the screen using CAKeyframeAnimation. I want the position of the UIImageView to remain where the animation ends when it is done. This bug only happens for certain start and end points. When I use random points it works correctly most of the time, but about 5-15% of the time it fails and snaps back to the pre-animation position. The problem only appears when using CAKeyframeAnimation using the path property. If I use the values property the bug does not appear. I am setting removedOnCompletion = NO, and fillMode = kCAFillModeForwards. I have posted a link to a test Xcode below. Here is my code for setting up the animation. I have a property usePath. When this is YES, the bug appears. When I set usePath to NO, the snap back bug does not happen. In this case I am using a path that is a simple line, but once I resolve this bug with a simple path, I will use a more complex path with curves in it. // create the point CAKeyframeAnimation *moveAnimation = [CAKeyframeAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"position"]; if (self.usePath) { CGMutablePathRef path = CGPathCreateMutable(); CGPathMoveToPoint(path, NULL, startPt.x, startPt.y); CGPathAddLineToPoint(path, NULL, endPt.x, endPt.y); moveAnimation.path = path; CGPathRelease(path); } else { moveAnimation.values = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: [NSValue valueWithCGPoint:startPt], [NSValue valueWithCGPoint:endPt], nil]; } moveAnimation.calculationMode = kCAAnimationPaced; moveAnimation.duration = 0.5f; moveAnimation.removedOnCompletion = NO; // leaves presentation layer in final state; preventing snap-back to original state moveAnimation.fillMode = kCAFillModeForwards; moveAnimation.timingFunction = [CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionEaseOut]; // moveAnimation.delegate = self; // start the animation [ball.layer addAnimation:moveAnimation forKey:@"moveAnimation"]; To dl and view my test project goto test project (http://www.24x7digital.com/downloads/PathFillModeBug.zip) Tap the 'Move Ball' button to start the animation of the ball. I have hard coded a start and end point which causes the bug to happen every time. Use the switch to change usePath to YES or NO. When usePath is YES, you will see the snap back bug. When usePath is NO, you will not see the snap back bug. I'm using SDK 3.1.3, but I have seen this bug using SDK 3.0 as well, and I have seen the bug on the Sim and on my iPhone. Any idea on how to fix this or if I am doing something wrong are appreciated. Thanks, Mark.

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  • Adding Icons next to items in Navigation Drawer

    - by DunriteJW
    I have been trying to figure this out for quite some time right now. I've looked all over this site and many others, and can't find anything that works. I simply want icons next to each item in my navigation drawer. I am currently using the method that Google's navigation drawer sample app uses. in the MainActivity.java I have the following: mColorTitles = getResources().getStringArray(R.array.colors_array); mDrawerLayout = (DrawerLayout) findViewById(R.id.drawer_layout); mDrawerList = (ListView) findViewById(R.id.left_drawer); mColorIcons = getResources().getStringArray(R.array.color_icons); adapter = new ArrayAdapter<String>(this, R.layout.drawer_list_item, mColorTitles); // set a custom shadow that overlays the main content when the drawer opens mDrawerLayout.setDrawerShadow(R.drawable.drawer_shadow, GravityCompat.START); // set up the drawer's list view with items and click listener mDrawerList.setAdapter(adapter); mDrawerList.setOnItemClickListener(new DrawerItemClickListener()); my drawer_list_item.xml: <TextView xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@android:id/text1" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:textAppearance="?android:attr/textAppearanceListItemSmall" android:gravity="center_vertical" android:paddingLeft="5dp" android:paddingRight="16dp" android:textColor="#000" android:background="?android:attr/activatedBackgroundIndicator" android:minHeight="?android:attr/listPreferredItemHeightSmall"/> it currently just makes the navigation drawer display the color titles from the array. I have the icons that I want in another array, and they follow the exact same order as I want them associated with the colors. I just have no idea how to even begin inserting the icons from that array into the navigation items if it helps, here's what my arrays look like in my strings.xml (not full code) <string-array name="colors_array"> <item>Home</item> <item>Cherry</item> <item>Crimson</item> ... <array name="color_icons"> <item>@drawable/homeicon</item> <item>@drawable/cherryicon</item> <item>@drawable/crimsonicon</item> ... I've tried putting a drawable in the drawer_list_item, which works, but (of course) it always puts the same one in there. I could not think of a way to change it according to the color. I am relatively new to android programming, so if I am missing something simple, I'm sorry. If you could help me out, I would greatly appreciate it, as this is basically the last thing I need to do before I publish my application to the Play Store. Thanks in advance!

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