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• An Erroneous SQL Query makes browser hang until script timeout exceeded

  - by Jimbo

  I have an admin page in a Classic ASP web application that allows the admin user to run queries against the database (SQL Server 2000) Whats really strange is that if the query you send has an error in it (an invalid table join, a column you've forgotten to group by etc) the BROWSER hangs (CPU usage goes to maximum) until the SERVER script timeout is exceeded and then spits out a timeout exceeded error (server and browser are on different machines, so not sure how this happens!) I have tried this in IE 8 and FF 3 with the same result. If you run that same query (with errors) directly from SQL Enterprise Manager, it returns the real error immediately. Is this a security feature? Does anyone know how to turn it off? It even happens when the connection to the database is using 'sa' credentials so I dont think its a security setting :( Dim oRS Set oRS = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset") oRS.ActiveConnection = sConnectionString // run the query - this is for the admin only so doesnt check for sql safe commands etc. oRS.Open Request.Form("txtSQL") If Not oRS.EOF Then // list the field names from the recordset For i = 0 to oRS.Fields.Count - 1 Response.Write oRS.Fields(i).name & "&nbsp;" Next // show the data for each record in the recordset While Not oRS.EOF For i = 0 to oRS.Fields.Count - 1 Response.Write oRS.Fields(i).value & "&nbsp;" Next Response.Write "<br />" oRS.Movenext() Wend End If

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• Check if date is allowed weekday in php?

  - by moogeek

  Hello! I'm stuck with a problem how to check if a specific date is within allowed weekdays array in php. For example, function dateIsAllowedWeekday($_date,$_allowed) { if ((isDate($_date)) && (($_allowed!="null") && ($_allowed!=null))){ $allowed_weekdays=json_decode($_allowed); $weekdays=array(); foreach($allowed_weekdays as $wd){ $weekday=date("l",date("w",strtotime($wd))); array_push($weekdays,$weekday); } if(in_array(date("l",strtotime($_date)),$weekdays)){return TRUE;} else {return FALSE;} } else {return FALSE;} } ///////////////////////////// $date="21.05.2010"; $wd="[0,1,2]"; if(dateIsAllowedWeekday($date,$wd)){echo "$date is within $wd weekday values!";} else{echo "$date isn't within $wd weekday values!"} I have input dates formatted as "d.m.Y" and an array returned from database with weekday numbers (formatted as 'Numeric representation of the day of the week') like [0,1,2] - (Sunday,Monday,Tuesday). The returned string from database can be "null", so i check it too. Them, the isDate function checks whether date is a date and it is ok. I want to check if my date, for example 21.05.2010 is an allowed weekday in this array. My function always returns TRUE and somehow weekday is always 'Thursday' and i don't know why... Is there any other ways to check this or what can be my error in the code above? thx

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• Convincing why testing is good

  - by FireAphis

  Hello, In my team of real-time-embedded C/C++ developers, most people don't have any culture of testing their code beyond the casual manual sanity checks. I personally strongly believe in advantages of autonomous automatic tests, but when I try to convince I get some reappearing arguments like: We will spend more time on writing the tests than writing the code. It takes a lot of effort to maintain the tests. Our code is spaghetti; no way we can unit-test it. Our requirement are not sealed – we’ll have to rewrite all the tests every time the requirements are changed. Now, I'd gladly hear any convincing tips and advises, but what I am really looking for are references to researches, articles, books or serious surveys that show (preferably in numbers) how testing is worth the effort. Something like "We in IBM/Microsoft/Google, surveying 3475 active projects, found out that putting 50% more development time into testing decreased by 75% the time spent on fixing bugs" or "after half a year, the time needed to write code with test was only marginally longer than what used to take without tests". Any ideas? P.S.: I'm adding C++ tag too in case someone has a specific experience with convincing this, usually elitist, type of developers :-)

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• Not able to play videos (from youtube) in WebView

  - by user1205193

  I am using a webview to display a video (could be from youtube or vimeo) in my app. In order to not load the video webpages in the default Android Browser, I am also extending the WebViewClient so I can override the shouldOverrideUrlLoading method. This way the video webpage loads successfully in the WebView. However, when I click on the embedded video on the WebView, it does not play. If I do not override the shouldOverrideUrlLoading method, and let the video webpages load in the default Android browser, the videos work just fine. Any ideas why the videos are not working in the WebView? Also, the main reason why I overrode the shouldOverrideUrlLoading method is because if I do not do that, then when I exit the Android browser to come back to my activity (by hitting the back button on the phone), I see a white screen. Upon hitting the back button twice, I am able to get back to my Activity. I am using the emulator to do this test. Here is my code: public class YoutubeLink extends Activity { WebView myWebView; String video_url; private class HelloWebViewClient extends WebViewClient { @Override public boolean shouldOverrideUrlLoading(WebView view, String url) { view.loadUrl(url); return true; } } @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.youtubelink); //Retrieving data from ListSample.java Bundle extras = getIntent().getExtras(); if(extras !=null) { video_url = extras.getString("video_url"); Log.d("inside YoutubeLink.java", video_url); } myWebView = (WebView) findViewById(R.id.web); myWebView.getSettings().setJavaScriptEnabled(true); myWebView.setWebViewClient(new HelloWebViewClient()); myWebView.loadUrl(video_url); } @Override public boolean onKeyDown(int keyCode, KeyEvent event) { if ((keyCode == KeyEvent.KEYCODE_BACK) && myWebView.canGoBack()) { myWebView.goBack(); return true; } return super.onKeyDown(keyCode, event); }}

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• Creating PHP strings using other variables...works manually, can't figure out how automatically

  - by Matt

  Hello, I'm trying to get a variable to be formed automatically using data pulled from a mysql database. I know the data is being pulled from the database in some form resembling its original form, but that data does not act the same as data that is manually typed and assigned to a string. For example, if a cell in a mysql table says... I said "goodbye" before I left. She also said "goodbye." ...and I manually copy/paste it and add the necessary escapes... $string1 = " I said \"goodbye\" before I left. She also said \"goodbye.\" "; ...that does not equal... $string1 = $mysqlResultArray['specificCellWithQuoteShownAbove'] Interestingly, if I echo both versions of $string1 and view the output, they appear to be exactly the same. But they do not function the same when put through various functions I've created. The functions only work if I do the manual copy/paste method--which is not what I want, obviously. I'm not sure if it has to do with the line breaks or the escapes--or some combination of the two. But while both strings are superficially the same, they are apparently functionally different and I don't know why. So how can I create $string1 without manually copy/pasting the contents from the mysql entry and instead querying for the data and assigning it to $string1 in such a way that it's exactly functionally equivalent as the manual copy/pasted string?

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• Out of memory when creating a lot of objects C#

  - by Bas

  I'm processing 1 million records in my application, which I retrieve from a MySQL database. To do so I'm using Linq to get the records and use .Skip() and .Take() to process 250 records at a time. For each retrieved record I need to create 0 to 4 Items, which I then add to the database. So the average amount of total Items that has to be created is around 2 million. while (objects.Count != 0) { using (dataContext = new LinqToSqlContext(new DataContext())) { foreach (Object objectRecord in objects) { // Create a list of 0 - 4 Random Items and add each Item to the Object for (int i = 0; i < Random.Next(0, 4); i++) { Item item = new Item(); item.Id = Guid.NewGuid(); item.Object = objectRecord.Id; item.Created = DateTime.Now; item.Changed = DateTime.Now; dataContext.InsertOnSubmit(item); } } dataContext.SubmitChanges(); } amountToSkip += 250; objects = objectCollection.Skip(amountToSkip).Take(250).ToList(); } Now the problem arises when creating the Items. When running the application (and not even using dataContext) the memory increases consistently. It's like the items are never getting disposed. Does anyone notice what I'm doing wrong? Thanks in advance!

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• Managing Many to Many relationships in asp.net Wizard Control

  - by Luis

  Say I have this entity with a lot of attributes. In the input form I have decided to implement a wizard control so I can collect information about this entity in several steps. The problem is that I need to collect information that has been modeled has many to many relationships. I am planning to use a telerik gridview to manage this (add/edit/delete), the problem is where do I store that data since the entity in a insert form is not created on the database yet. OK so I can store all that info in temporary lists residing in the viewstate, waiting for the final submit where I dump all that in the DB, but one of the steps I am collecting files...now storing files in the viewstate is out of the question, same as as storing them in the session... I have been thinking of implementing in a way that the user has to submit some info first (say first 3 steps), commit the data to the database creating the parent entity and then start inserting all the childs entities...but this will get weird as it's confusing since on the first steps you not saving the data to the DB and on the next ones you are commiting directly... Anyone has any thoughts on this? Thanks

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• ORDER BY in a Sql Server 2008 view

  - by eidylon

  Hi all... we have a view in our database which has an ORDER BY in it. Now, I realize views generally don't order, because different people may use it for different things, and want it differently ordered. This view however is used for a VERY SPECIFIC use-case which demands a certain order. (It is team standings for a soccer league.) The database is Sql Server 2008 Express, v.10.0.1763.0 on a Windows Server 2003 R2 box. The view is defined as such: CREATE VIEW season.CurrentStandingsOrdered AS SELECT TOP 100 PERCENT *, season.GetRanking(TEAMID) RANKING FROM season.CurrentStandings ORDER BY GENDER, TEAMYEAR, CODE, POINTS DESC, FORFEITS, GOALS_AGAINST, GOALS_FOR DESC, DIFFERENTIAL, RANKING It returns: GENDER, TEAMYEAR, CODE, TEAMID, CLUB, NAME, WINS, LOSSES, TIES, GOALS_FOR, GOALS_AGAINST, DIFFERENTIAL, POINTS, FORFEITS, RANKING Now, when I run a SELECT against the view, it orders the results by GENDER, TEAMYEAR, CODE, TEAMID. Notice that it is ordering by TEAMID instead of POINTS as the order by clause specifies. However, if I copy the SQL statement and run it exactly as is in a new query window, it orders correctly as specified by the ORDER BY clause.

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• Storing a jpa entity where only the timestamp changes results in updates rather than inserts (desire

  - by David Schlenk

  I have a JPA entity that stores a fk id, a boolean and a timestamp: @Entity public class ChannelInUse implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue private Long id; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(nullable = false) private Channel channel; private boolean inUse = false; @Temporal(TemporalType.TIMESTAMP) private Date inUseAt = new Date(); ... } I want every new instance of this entity to result in a new row in the table. For whatever reason no matter what I do it always results in the row getting updated with a new timestamp value rather than creating a new row. Even tried to just use a native query to run an insert but channel's ID wasn't populated yet so I gave up on that. I've tried using an embedded id class consisting of channel.getId and inUseAt. My equals and hashcode for are: public boolean equals(Object obj){ if(this == obj) return true; if(!(obj instanceof ChannelInUse)) return false; ChannelInUse ciu = (ChannelInUse) obj; return ( (this.inUseAt == null ? ciu.inUseAt == null : this.inUseAt.equals(ciu.inUseAt)) && (this.inUse == ciu.inUse) && (this.channel == null ? ciu.channel == null : this.channel.equals(ciu.channel)) ); } /** * hashcode generated from at, channel and inUse properties. */ public int hashCode(){ int hash = 1; hash = hash * 31 + (this.inUseAt == null ? 0 : this.inUseAt.hashCode()); hash = hash * 31 + (this.channel == null ? 0 : this.channel.hashCode()); if(inUse) hash = hash * 31 + 1; else hash = hash * 31 + 0; return hash; } } I've tried using hibernate's Entity annotation with mutable=false. I'm probably just not understanding what makes an entity unique or something. Hit the google pretty hard but can't figure this one out.

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• codeigniter mulitple LIKE db query using associative array- but all from the same column name...?

  - by Inigo

  Hi, I'm trying to query my database using codeigniter's active record class. I have a number of blog posts stored in a table. The query is for a search function, which will pull out all the posts that have certain categories assigned to them. So the 'category' column of the table will have a list of all the categories for that post in no particular order, separated by commas, like so: Politics,History,Sociology.. etc. If a user selects, say, Politics and History, The titles of all the posts that have BOTH these categories should be returned. Right? So, the list of categories queried will be the array $cats. I thought this would work- foreach ($cats as $cat){ $this->db->like('categories',$cat); } By Producing this- $this-db-like('categories','Politics'); $this-db-like('categories','History'); (Which would produce- 'WHERE categories LIKE '%Politics%' AND categories LIKE '%History%') But it doesn't work, it seems to only produce the first statement. The problem I guess is that the column name is the same for each of the chained queries. There doesn't seem to be anything in the CI user guide about this (http://codeigniter.com/user_guide/database/active_record.html) as they seem to assume that each chained statement is going to be for a different column name. Does anyone know how I could do this? Thanks! edit- Of course it is not possible to use an associative array in one statement as it would have to contain duplicate keys- in this case every key would have to be 'categories'...

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• Problem in DataBinding an Enum using dictionary approach to a combobox in WPF.

  - by Ashish Ashu

  I have a Dictionary which is binded to a combobox. I have used dictionary to provide spaces in enum. public enum Option {Enter_Value, Select_Value}; Dictionary<Option,string> Options; <ComboBox x:Name="optionComboBox" SelectionChanged="optionComboBox_SelectionChanged" SelectedValuePath="Key" DisplayMemberPath="Value" SelectedItem="{Binding Path = SelectedOption}" ItemsSource="{Binding Path = Options}" /> This works fine. My queries: 1. I am not able to set the initial value to a combo box. In above XAML snippet the line SelectedItem="{Binding Path = SelectedOption}" is not working. I have declared SelectOption in my viewmodel. This is of type string and I have intialized this string value in my view model as below: SelectedOption = Options[Options.Enter_Value].ToString(); 2. The combobox is binded to datadictionary which have two options first is "Enter_value" and second is "Select_value" which is actually Option enum. Based on the Option enum value I want to perform different action. For example if option is equal to option.Enter_value then Combo box becomes editable and user can enter the numeric value in it. if option is equal to option.Select_value value then the value comes from the database and the combo box becomes read only and shows the fetched value from the database. Please Help!!

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• C++ Templates: Convincing self against code bloat

  - by ArunSaha

  I have heard about code bloats in context of C++ templates. I know that is not the case with modern C++ compilers. But, I want to construct an example and convince myself. Lets say we have a class template< typename T, size_t N > class Array { public: T * data(); private: T elems_[ N }; }; template< typename T, size_t N > T * Array<T>::data() { return elems_; } Further, let's say types.h contains typedef Array< int, 100 > MyArray; x.cpp contains MyArray ArrayX; and y.cpp contains MyArray ArrayY; Now, how can I verify that the code space for MyArray::data() is same for both ArrayX and ArrayY? What else I should know and verify from this (or other similar simple) examples? If there is any g++ specific tips, I am interested for that too. PS: Regarding bloat, I am concerned even for the slightest of bloats, since I come from embedded context.

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• Function returning a class containing a function returning a class

  - by Scott

  I'm working on an object-oriented Excel add-in to retrieve information from our ERP system's database. Here is an example of a function call: itemDescription = Macola.Item("12345").Description Macola is an instance of a class which takes care of database access. Item() is a function of the Macola class which returns an instance of an ItemMaster class. Description() is a function of the ItemMaster class. This is all working correctly. Items can be be stored in more than one location, so my next step is to do this: quantityOnHand = Macola.Item("12345").Location("A1").QuantityOnHand Location() is a function of the ItemMaster class which returns an instance of the ItemLocation class (well, in theory anyway). QuantityOnHand() is a function of the ItemLocation class. But for some reason, the ItemLocation class is not even being intialized. Public Function Location(inventoryLocation As String) As ItemLocation Set Location = New ItemLocation Location.Item = item_no Location.Code = inventoryLocation End Function In the above sample, the variable item_no is a member variable of the ItemMaster class. Oddly enough, I can successfully instantiate the ItemLocation class outside of the ItemMaster class in a non-class module. Dim test As New ItemLocation test.Item = "12345" test.Code = "A1" quantityOnHand = test.QuantityOnHand Is there some way to make this work the way I want? I'm trying to keep the API as simple as possible. So that it only takes one line of code to retrieve a value.

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• Java/Hibernate using interfaces over the entities.

  - by Dennetik

  I am using annoted Hibernate, and I'm wondering whether the following is possible. I have to set up a series of interfaces representing the objects that can be persisted, and an interface for the main database class containing several operations for persisting these objects (... an API for the database). Below that, I have to implement these interfaces, and persist them with Hibernate. So I'll have, for example: public interface Data { public String getSomeString(); public void setSomeString(String someString); } @Entity public class HbnData implements Data, Serializable { @Column(name = "some_string") private String someString; public String getSomeString() { return this.someString; } public void setSomeString(String someString) { this.someString = someString; } } Now, this works fine, sort of. The trouble comes when I want nested entities. The interface of what I'd want is easy enough: public interface HasData { public Data getSomeData(); public void setSomeData(Data someData); } But when I implement the class, I can follow the interface, as below, and get an error from Hibernate saying it doesn't know the class "Data". @Entity public class HbnHasData implements HasData, Serializable { @OneToOne(cascade = CascadeType.ALL) private Data someData; public Data getSomeData() { return this.someData; } public void setSomeData(Data someData) { this.someData = someData; } } The simple change would be to change the type from "Data" to "HbnData", but that would obviously break the interface implementation, and thus make the abstraction impossible. Can anyone explain to me how to implement this in a way that it will work with Hibernate?

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• How to optimize a postgreSQL server for a "write once, read many"-type infrastructure ?

  - by mhu

  Greetings, I am working on a piece of software that logs entries (and related tagging) in a PostgreSQL database for storage and retrieval. We never update any data once it has been inserted; we might remove it when the entry gets too old, but this is done at most once a day. Stored entries can be retrieved by users. The insertion of new entries can happen rather fast and regularly, thus the database will commonly hold several millions elements. The tables used are pretty simple : one table for ids, raw content and insertion date; and one table storing tags and their values associated to an id. User search mostly concern tags values, so SELECTs usually consist of JOIN queries on ids on the two tables. To sum it up : 2 tables Lots of INSERT no UPDATE some DELETE, once a day at most some user-generated SELECT with JOIN huge data set What would an optimal server configuration (software and hardware, I assume for example that RAID10 could help) be for my PostgreSQL server, given these requirements ? By optimal, I mean one that allows SELECT queries taking a reasonably little amount of time. I can provide more information about the current setup (like tables, indexes ...) if needed.

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• How to implement a log window in a web browser?

  - by Jeremy Friesner

  Hi all, I'm interested in adding an HTML/web-browser based "log window" to my net-enabled device. Specifically, my device has a customized web server and an event log, and I'd like to be able to leave a web browser window open to e.g. http://my.devices.ip.address/system_log and have events show up as text in the web browser window as they happen. People could then use this as a quick way to monitor what the system is doing, without needing run any special software. My question is, what is the best way to implement this? I've tried the obvious approach -- just have my device's embedded web server hold the HTTP/TCP connection open indefinitely, and write the necessary text to the TCP socket when an event occurs -- but the problem with that is that most web browsers (e.g. Safari) don't display the web page until the server has closed the TCP connection has been closed, and so the result is that the log data never appears in the web browser, it just acts as if the page is taking forever to load. Is there some trick to make this work? I could implement it as a Java applet, but I'd much prefer something more lightweight/simple, either using only HTML or possibly HTML+JavaScript. Also I'd like to avoid having the web browser 'poll' the server, since that would either introduce too much latency (if the reload delay was large) or put load on the system (if the delay was small)

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• [MFC] What is the reciprocal of CComboBox.GetItemData?

  - by Hamish Grubijan

  Instead of associating objects with Combo Box items, I associate long ids representing choices. They come from a database, so it seems natural to do so anyway. Now, I persist the id and not the index of the user's selection, so that the choice is remembered across sessions. If id no longer exists in database - no big deal. The choice will be messed up once. If db does not change, however, then it would be a great success ;) Here is how I get the id : chosenSomethingIndex = cmbSomething.GetCurSel(); lastSomethingId = cmbSomething.GetItemData(chosenSomethingIndex); How do I reverse this? When I load the stored value for user's last choice, I need to convert that id into an index. I can do: cmbSomething.SetCurSel(chosenSomethingIndex); However, how can I attempt (it might not exist) to get an index once I have an id? I am looking for a reciprocal function to GetItemData I am using VS2008, probably latest version of MFC, whatever that is. Thank you.

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• open current page in new window including query string

  - by Hatch

  First of all, I am a total dud at all things related to web developement, so please bear with me here. I suspect this question is laughable for the web guys, but unfortunately I can't figure this out. Here goes: I have an application, that does some processing, writes some result files and then displays the results in an embedded IE browser control. This is done by navigating the browser control to a local html file together with a query string containing the generated result files to display it all. The link target would look something like: c:\SomeFolder\results.htm?results=file%201.xml;file%202.xml;file%203.xml So far, everything's fine. However, in the html page is a href that is suppossed to open up the exact same just in a normal browser window. What I thought would work is: <a href="#" target="_blank">Show in browser</a> Since it is a link in an html page displayed in an IE control, the link will open up in IE no matter what the default browser might be. This works for IE7 and 8, but not for IE6. With IE6 the query string gets cut off and the browser opens file://c:/results/results.htm# without the query string. I am sure there must be a much better way to do this without the # and which would work in all IEs. How would the pros solve this?

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• PHP IDE with Integrated Web Server

  - by seth

  Note: This is not another "What is the best PHP IDE?" question. I'm looking for a PHP IDE with a specific feature, namely an integrated / embedded (php enabled) web server; ideally with xdebug pre-bundled. I already know that Aptana 1.5 has this functionality (and some older versions of Zend Studio as well), but Aptana 1.5 hasn't been supported for quite some time and as we make the transition to PHP 5.3 and beyond, it's usefulness will diminish significantly. I've looked at some options including Eclipse PDT and NetBeans, but it seems every PHP IDE relies on a separate local/remote web server to actually interpret the code. I know installing a web server locally is fairly trivial, but this is for a classroom solution, where installing, configuring, and maintaining a web server on 1000 machines is simply not feasible. A remote server solution will also not work due to the need to use debugging functionality (xdebug currently requires a hardcoded IP for the debug client). This seems like such an obvious feature/plugin for a PHP IDE, but my research thus far has turned up no results.

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• Help dealing with data dependency between two registration forms

  - by franko75

  I have a tricky issue here with a registration of both a user and his/her pet. Both the user and the pet are treated as separate entities and both require separate registration forms. However, the user's pet has to be linked to the user via a foreign key in the database. The process is basically that when a new user joins the site, firstly they register their pet, then they register themselves. The reason for this order is to check their pet's eligibility for the site (there are some criteria to be met) first, instead of getting the user to sign up only to then find out their pet is ineligible. It is this ordering of the form submissions which is causing me a bit of a headache, as follows... The site is being developed with an MVC framework, and the User registration process is managed via a method in a User_form controller, while the pet registration process is managed via a method in the Pet_form controller. The pet registration form happens first, and the pet data can be saved without the owner_id at this stage, with the user id possibly being added (e.g by retrieving pet's id from session) following user registration. However, doing it this way could potentially result in redundant data, where pet records would be created in the database, but if the user doesn't actually register themselves too, then the pets will be ownerless records in the DB. Other option is to serialize the new pet's data at the pet registration stage, don't save it to the DB until the user fills out their registration form. Once the user is created, i can pass serialised data AND the owner_id to a method in the Pet Model which can update the DB. However, I also need to set the newly created $pet to $this-pet which I then access for a sequence of other related forms. Should I just set the session variable in the model method? Then in the Pet controller constructor, do a check for pet stored in session, if yes, assign to $this-pet... If this makes any sense to anybody and you have some advice, i'd be grateful to hear it!

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• Integrated Windows authentication in IIS causing ADO.NET failure

  - by TrueWill

  We have a .NET 3.5 Web Service running under IIS. It must use identity impersonate="true" and Integrated Windows authentication in order to authenticate to third-party software. In addition, it connects to a SQL Server database using ADO.NET and SQL Server Authentication (specifying a fixed User ID and Password in the connection string). Everything worked fine until the database was moved to another SQL Server. Then the Web Service would throw the following exception: A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) This error only occurs if identity impersonate is true in the Web.config. Again, the connection string hasn't changed and it specifies the user. I have tested the connection string and it works, both under the impersonated account and under the service account (and from both the remote machine and the server). What needs to be changed to get this to work with impersonation?

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• How to write to a Text File in Pipe delimited format from MS Sql Server / ASP.Net?

  - by NJTechGuy

  I have a text file which needs to be constantly updated (regular intervals). All I want is the syntax and possibly some code that outputs data from a MS Sql Database using ASP.Net. The code I have so far is : <%@ Import Namespace="System.IO" %> <script language="vb" runat="server"> sub Page_Load(sender as Object, e as EventArgs) Dim FILENAME as String = Server.MapPath("Output.txt") Dim objStreamWriter as StreamWriter ' If Len(Dir$(FILENAME)) > 0 Then Kill(FILENAME) objStreamWriter = File.AppendText(FILENAME) objStreamWriter.WriteLine("A user viewed this demo at: " & DateTime.Now.ToString()) objStreamWriter.Close() Dim objStreamReader as StreamReader objStreamReader = File.OpenText(FILENAME) Dim contents as String = objStreamReader.ReadToEnd() lblNicerOutput.Text = contents.Replace(vbCrLf, "<br>") objStreamReader.Close() end sub </script> <asp:label runat="server" id="lblNicerOutput" Font-Name="Verdana" /> With PHP, it is a breeze, but with .Net I have no clue. If you could help me with the database connectivity and how to write the data in pipe delimited format to an Output.txt file, that had be awesome. Thanks guys!

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• SIlverlight Navigate: how does it work? How would you implement in f# w/o VS wizards and helpers?

  - by akaphenom

  After a nights sleep the problem can be stated more accurately as I have a 100% f# / silverlight implementation and am looking to use the built in Navigation components. C# creates page.xaml and page.xaml.cs um - ok; but what is the relationship at a fundamental level? How would I go about doing this in f#? The applcuation is loaded in the default module, and I pull the XAML in and reference it from the application object. Do I need to create instances / references to the pages from within the application object? Or set up some other page management object with the proper name value pairs? When all the Help of VS is stripped away - what are we left with? original post (for those who may be reading replies) I have a 100% silverlight 3.0 / f# 2.0 application I am wrapping my brain around. I have the base application loading correctly - and now I want to add the naigation controls to it. My page is stored as an embedded resource - but the Frame.Navigate takes a URI. I know what I have is wrong but here it is: let nav : Frame = mainGrid ? mainFrame let url = "/page1.xaml" let uri = new System.Uri(url, System.UriKind.Relative) ; nav.Navigate uri Any thoughts?

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• Converting Source ASCII Files to JPEGs

  - by CommonsWare

  I publish technical books, in print, PDF, and Kindle/MOBI, with EPUB on the way. The Kindle does not support monospace fonts, which are kinda useful for source code listings. The only way to do monospace fonts is to convert the text (Java source, HTML, XML, etc.) into JPEG images. More specifically, due to pagination issues, a given input ASCII file needs to be split into slices of ~6 lines each, with each slice turned into a JPEG, so listings can span a screen. This is a royal pain. My current mechanism to do that involves: Running expand to set a consistent 2-space tab size, which pipes to... a2ps, which pipes to... A small Perl snippet to add a "%%LanguageLevel: 3\n" line, which pipes to... ImageMagick's convert, to take the (E)PS and make a JPEG out it, with an appropriate background, cropped to 575x148+5+28, etc. That used to work 100% of the time. It now works 95% of the time. The rest of the time, I get convert: geometry does not contain image errors, which I cannot seem to get rid of, in part because I don't understand what the problem is. Before this process, I used to use a pretty-print engine (source-highlight) to get HTML out of the source code...but then the only thing I could find to convert the HTML into JPEGs was to automate screen-grabs from an embedded Gecko engine. Reliability stank, which is why I switched to my current mechanism. So, if you were you, and you needed to turn source listings into JPEG images, in an automated fashion, how would you do it? Bonus points if it offers some sort of pretty-print process (e.g., bolded keywords)! Or, if you know what typically causes convert: geometry does not contain image, that might help. My current process is ugly, but if I could get it back to 100% reliability, that'd be just fine for now. Thanks in advance!

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• How to use db4o IObjectContainer in a web application ? (Container lifetime ?)

  - by driis

  I am evaluating db4o for persistence for a ASP .NET MVC project. I am wondering how I should use the IObjectContainer in a web context with regards to object lifetime. As I see it, I can do one of the following: Create the IObjectContainer at application startup and keep the same instance for the entire application lifetime. Create one IObjectContainer per request. Start a server, and get a client IObjectContainer for each database interaction. What are the implications of these options, in terms of performance and concurrency ? Since the database is locked when an IObjectContainer is opened, I am pretty sure that option 2) would get me some problems with concurrency - would this also be the case for option 1 ? As I understand it, if I retrieve an object from an IObjectContainer, it must be saved by the same IObjectContainer instance - in order for db4o to identify it as being the same object. Therefore, If I choose option 3), I would have to retrieve the original object, make the necessary changes (copy data from a modified object), and then store it using the same IObjectContainer. Is this true ?

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