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• Using Haml & Sass with Eclipse

  - by Sam Hasler

  Are there any plugins for eclipse that add syntax highlighting and other niceties for editing Haml and Sass? Google searches only seem to point to a dead project on lucky-dip.net. Note: it's Sass I'm most interested in. A solution for using just Sass (or something similar to it like less) in Eclipse would suit my needs. Also, I'm developing for Google App Engine (Java), using the App Engine plugin for Eclipse. So switching to another IDE isn't an option. Update: So I've got syntax highlighting now using Pascal's answer and I've installed Ruby and Compass to compile sass into css. However I'm aware that the syntax of sass will be changing with 2.4 so I'd still like to get the Haml and Sass Editors that come with Aptana to work. When I tried to use them they threw an exception and wouldn't display the files. I'd be interested to know if that's because I misconfigured Aptana or is an actual bug in the editors. I'd also be very interested in any way of compiling Sass that integrated with Ecplise so that I didn't have to run something separate from it. (or a way of putting Sass/Compass in the Ecplise build process.)

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• SQL Full-Text Indexing Issue

  - by Phil

  UPDATE: I have figured out a way using a form of dynamic sql to fix this problem, thanks anyway for any help. Hi, there is something that I need to accomplish with the use of Full-Text Indexing. This is it: The fact of the matter is when I run a query (with a stored procedure) that looks like (with a parameter (@name) that was obviously defined above (not shown here), this parameter is sent to the stored procedure by an asp.net page, from user input): SELECT Name FROMdbo.UsersTable WHERE FREETEXT(Name, @name) Well, the fact of the matter is that a query like this will return values if, say the parameter @name's value is Joe, and say, there are 10 records of names with Joe in them, but if @name's value is just Jo, then it returns nothing, and this is the problem. Say that there are other records in this table that have Jo in them, like for example, Jole, or John. So the real question is, how do I get it to return values that are not full words, or phrases, but just from part of the word/phrase (like I said above)? Like FREETEXT(Name, @name*), which is not allowed to be used as a query, but, you get the idea. Is there a way to accomplish this? I'm sure there must be, I need to figure this out. Thanks for any help.

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• asp.net mvc formcollection

  - by mazhar

  public ActionResult Edit(int id, FormCollection formValues) { 07. 08. // Retrieve existing dinner 09. Dinner dinner = dinnerRepository.GetDinner(id); 10. 11. // Update dinner with form posted values 12. dinner.Title = Request.Form["Title"]; 13. dinner.Description = Request.Form["Description"]; 14. dinner.EventDate = DateTime.Parse(Request.Form["EventDate"]); 15. dinner.Address = Request.Form["Address"]; 16. dinner.Country = Request.Form["Country"]; 17. dinner.ContactPhone = Request.Form["ContactPhone"]; 18. 19. // Persist changes back to database 20. dinnerRepository.Save(); 21. 22. // Perform HTTP redirect to details page for the saved Dinner 23. return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id = dinner.DinnerID }); 24.} formValues is not used in any form, what is the used of it.

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• Identifying and Resolving Oracle ITL Deadlock

  - by Allan

  I have an Oracle DB package that is routinely causing what I believe is an ITL (Interested Transaction List) deadlock. The relevant portion of a trace file is below. Deadlock graph: ---------Blocker(s)-------- ---------Waiter(s)--------- Resource Name process session holds waits process session holds waits TM-0000cb52-00000000 22 131 S 23 143 SS TM-0000ceec-00000000 23 143 SX 32 138 SX SSX TM-0000cb52-00000000 30 138 SX 22 131 S session 131: DID 0001-0016-00000D1C session 143: DID 0001-0017-000055D5 session 143: DID 0001-0017-000055D5 session 138: DID 0001-001E-000067A0 session 138: DID 0001-001E-000067A0 session 131: DID 0001-0016-00000D1C Rows waited on: Session 143: no row Session 138: no row Session 131: no row There are no bit-map indexes on this table, so that's not the cause. As far as I can tell, the lack of "Rows waited on" plus the "S" in the Waiter waits column likely indicates that this is an ITL deadlock. Also, the table is written to quite often (roughly 8 insert or updates concurrently, as often as 240 times a minute), so and ITL deadlock seems like a strong possibility. I've increased the INITRANS parameter of the table and it's indexes to 100 and increased the PCT_FREE on the table from 10 to 20 (then rebuilt the indexes), but the deadlocks are still occurring. The deadlock seems to happen most often during an update, but that could just be a coincidence, as I've only traced it a couple of times. My questions are two-fold: 1) Is this actually an ITL deadlock? 2) If it is an ITL deadlock, what else can be done to avoid it?

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• Programmatically copying custom content type and columns from one web to another

  - by BeraCim

  Hi all: I'm experiencing a very stubborn problem when copying custom content type and its columns from one web to another within the same site. Basically, this is the code that I have: foreach (SPField field in existingWeb.Fields) { if (!destinationWeb.Fields.ContainsField(field.Title)) { destinationWeb.Fields.AddFieldAsXml(field.SchemaXml); destinationWeb.Update(); } } foreach (SPContentType existingWebCt in destinationWeb.ContentType) { SPContentType newContentType = new SPContentType(existingWebCt.Parent, destinationWeb.ContentTypes, existingWebCt.Name); foreach (SPFieldLink fieldLink in existingWebCt.FieldLinks) { SPField sourceField = existingWebCt.Fields[fieldLink.Id]; if (destinationWeb.Fields.ContainsField(sourceField.Title)) { SPFieldLink destinationWebFieldLink = new SPFieldLink(destinationWeb.Fields[sourceField.Title]); newContentType.FieldLinks.Add(destinationWebFieldLink); } } } existingWeb and destinationWeb are 2 webs within the same site. The code runs fine. But the problem is that in the SITE Content Type screen (under site settings), when I click the custom column link in the custom content type, I got an error saying: Invalid field name {UID}. The UID is the same UID as the custom column in the existing site. I checked with my web settings after completion. I can see the custom list (which I created with an item for testing purpose), but the custom column is gone from the view (though the actual data is still there... just have to check the box to get it to display). But I think that is less important... more of fyi. I've also gotten a variety of different exceptions should I copy things wrongly. Google has failed to help me out on this one. Does anyone know what I'm missing in order to get that link to work again? Thanks.

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• Django: Odd mark_safe behaviour?

  - by Mark

  I wrote this little function for writing out HTML tags: def html_tag(tag, content=None, close=True, attrs={}): lst = ['<',tag] for key, val in attrs.iteritems(): lst.append(' %s="%s"' % (key, escape_html(val))) if close: if content is None: lst.append(' />') else: lst.extend(['>', content, '</', tag, '>']) else: lst.append('>') return mark_safe(''.join(lst)) Which worked great, but then I read this article on efficient string concatenation (I know it doesn't really matter for this, but I wanted consistency) and decided to update my script: def html_tag(tag, body=None, close=True, attrs={}): s = StringIO() s.write('<%s'%tag) for key, val in attrs.iteritems(): s.write(' %s="%s"' % (key, escape_html(val))) if close: if body is None: s.write(' />') else: s.write('>%s</%s>' % (body, tag)) else: s.write('>') return mark_safe(s.getvalue()) But now my HTML get escaped when I try to render it from my template. Everything else is exactly the same. It works properly if I replace the last line with return mark_safe(unicode(s.getvalue())). I checked the return type of s.getvalue(). It should be a str, just like the first function, so why is this failing?? Also fails with SafeString(s.getvalue()) but succeeds with SafeUnicode(s.getvalue()). I'd also like to point out that I used return mark_safe(s.getvalue()) in a different function with no odd behavior. The "call stack" looks like this: class Input(Widget): def render(self): return html_tag('input', attrs={'type':self.itype, 'id':self.id, 'name':self.name, 'value':self.value, 'class':self.itype}) class Field: def __unicode__(self): return mark_safe(self.widget.render()) And then {{myfield}} is in the template. So it does get mark_safed'd twice, which I thought might have been the problem, but I tried removing that too..... I really have no idea what's causing this, but it's not too hard to work around, so I guess I won't fret about it.

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• Setting the comment of a column to that of another column in Postgresql

  - by dland

  Suppose I create a table in Postgresql with a comment on a column: create table t1 ( c1 varchar(10) ); comment on column t1.c1 is 'foo'; Some time later, I decide to add another column: alter table t1 add column c2 varchar(20); I want to look up the comment contents of the first column, and associate with the new column: select comment_text from (what?) where table_name = 't1' and column_name = 'c1' The (what?) is going to be a system table, but after having looked around in pgAdmin and searching on the web I haven't learnt its name. Ideally I'd like to be able to: comment on column t1.c1 is (select ...); but I have a feeling that's stretching things a bit far. Thanks for any ideas. Update: based on the suggestions I received here, I wound up writing a program to automate the task of transferring comments, as part of a larger process of changing the datatype of a Postgresql column. You can read about that on my blog.

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• UIImagePickerController shows last picture taken instead of camera input

  - by jules

  I'm having a strange behaviour within my app. For taking pictures i'm using the following pretty standard code for displaying the UIImagePickerController: UIImagePickerController *picker = [[UIImagePickerController alloc] init]; picker.delegate = self; picker.allowsEditing = NO; picker.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeCamera; [self presentViewController:picker animated:YES completion:nil]; It works perfectly fine the first time I tap the button which calls this action. The strange behaviour starts when I tap that button again. The UIImagePickerController starts again BUT it doesnt show the input from the camera anymore. It shows the last picture I've taken. More Details of this state: Tapping on the image shows the yellow square of the auto focus. (which it actually uses to focus the camera correctly) When I tap on the ImageCapture button - the correct image is taken and presented on the screen. If I take a picture and press 'Retake' the regular camera image is presented as input. More weirdness: It has nothing to do with the iPad I'm using. Creating a new example app which only has button which calls the code from above everything works perfectly fine. I assume it has something to do with the configuration of the app. Therefore I checked everything but could not find any differences which may cause this issue. Thanks in advance for any advice! Update: I do implement the UIImagePickerControllerDelegate in order to dismiss the UIImagePickerController.

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• Call long running operation in WSS feature OnActivated Event

  - by dirq

  More specifically - How do I reference SPContext in Web Service with [SoapDocumentMethod(OneWay=true)]? We are creating a feature that needs to run a job when a site is created. The job takes about 4 minutes to complete. So, we made a web service that we can call when the feature is activated. This works but we want it to run asynchronously now. We've found the SoapDocumentMethod's OneWay property and that would work awesomely but the SPContext is now NULL. We have our web services in the _vti_bin virtual directory so it's available in each Windows Sharepoint Services site. I was using the SPContext.Current.Web to get the site and perform the long running operation. I wanted to just fire and forget about it by returning a soap response right away and letting the process run. How can I get the current SPContext? I used to be able to do this in my web service: SPWeb mySite = SPContext.Current.Web; Can I get the same context when I have the [SoapDocumentMethod(OneWay=true)] attribute applied to my web service? Or must I recreate the SPWeb from the url? This is similar to this thread: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/340192/webservice-oneway-and-new-spsitemyurl Update: I've tried these two ways but they didn't work: SPWeb targetSite = SPControl.GetContextWeb(this.Context); SPWeb targetSite2 = SPContext.GetContext(this.Context).Web;

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• How can you change Network settings (IP Address, DNS, WINS, Host Name) with code in C#

  - by rathkopf

  I am developing a wizard for a machine that is to be used as a backup of other machines. When it replaces an existing machine, it needs to set its IP address, DNS, WINS, and host name to match the machine being replaced. Is there a library in .net (C#) which allows me to do this programatically? There are multiple NICs, each which need to be set individually. EDIT Thannk you TimothyP for your example. It got me moving on the right track and the quick reply was awesome. Thanks balexandre. Your code is perfect. I was in a rush and had already adapted the example TimothyP linked to, but I would have loved to have had your code sooner. I've also developed a routine using similar techniques for changing the computer name. I'll post it in the future so subscribe to this questions RSS feed if you want to be informed of the update. I may get it up later today or on Monday after a bit of cleanup.

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• php cli script hangs with no messages

  - by julio

  Hi-- I've written a PHP script that runs via SSH and nohup, meant to process records from a database and do stuff with them (eg. process some images, update some rows). It works fine with small loads, up to maybe 10k records. I have some larger datasets that process around 40k records (not a lot, I realize, but it adds up to a lot of work when each record requires the download and processing of up to 50 images). The larger datasets can take days to process. Sometimes I'll see in my debug logs memory errors, which are clear enough-- but sometimes the script just appears to "die" or go zombie on me. My tail of the debug log just stops, with no error messages, the tail of the nohup log ends with no error, and the process is still showing in a ps list, looking like this-- 26075 pts/0 S 745:01 /usr/bin/php ./import.php but no work is getting done. Can anyone give me some ideas on why a process would just quit? The obvious things (like a php script timeout and memory issues) are not a factor, as far as I can tell. Thanks for any tips PS-- this is hosted on a godaddy VDS (not my choice). I am sort of suspecting that godaddy has some kind of limits that might kick in on me despite what overrides I put in the code (such as set_time_limit(0);).

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• PyGTK, Glade, Changing the window view and threads

  - by Gaunt Face

  Heya Everyone, Forgive me if this seems like a stupid question, just so far no where on the internet can I find someone offering a solution to this and I just wanted to get some feedback from someone with more experience than myself (I've only been using python, pyGTK and Glade for 2 days now). I have a UI window displaying and it updates with messages from a thread that is handling a bluetooth connection. This is fine and I have the application closing and running quite reliably, the problem is, after a bluetooth connection is made I wish to maintain the bluetooth thread (i.e. keep the connection going) but completely change the UI of the main window. Now the impression I am getting from pyGTK applications made from glade, is that the easiest thing to do is just open a new window. Is this really the best option? Can I cut the tree of widgets off at the root, maintaining the window widget but add on a new set of widgets from a separate glade file? If opening a new window is the best option, am I right in assuming that the bluetooth thread can be kept alive during this transition, providing I update any callbacks? Any help or pointers would be great. Cheers, Matt

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• How to scale a sprite image without losing color key information?

  - by Michael P

  Hello everyone, I'm currently developing a simple application that displays map and draws some markers on it. I'm developing for Windows Mobile, so I decided to use DirectDraw and Imaging interfaces to make the application fast and pretty. The map moves when user moves finger on the touchscreen, so the whole map moving/scrolling animation has to be fast, but it is not. On every map update I have to draw portion of the map, control buttons, and markers - buttons and markers are preloaded on DirectDraw surface as a mipmap. So the only thing I do is BitBlit from the mipmap to a back buffer, and from the back buffer to a primary surface (I can't use page flipping due to the windowed mode of my application). Previously I used premultiplied-alpha surface with 32 bit ARGB pixel format for images mipmap, everything was looking good, but drawing entire "scene" was horribly slow - i could forget about smooth map scrolling. Now I'm using mipmap with native (RGB565) pixel format and fuchsia (0xFF00FF) color key. Drawing is much better my mipmap surface is generated on program loading - images are loaded from files, scaled (with filtering) and drawn on mipmap. The problem is, that image scaling process blends pixel colors, and those pixels which are on the border of a sprite region are blended with surrounding fuchsia pixels resulting semi-fuchsia color that is not treated as color key. When I do blitting with color key option, sprites have small fuchsia-like borders, and it looks really bad. How to solve this problem? I can use alpha blitting, but it is too slow - even in ARGB 1555 format.

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• JQuery not working.

  - by Shantanu Gupta

  I am trying to implement JQuery in my web page but i am not been able to implement it successfully. I have a master page where i added one script for menu bar that is already using jquery hosted by Google This is coded in master page itself <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.0/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('#ddmenu > li').bind('mouseover', ddmenu_open) $('#ddmenu > li').bind('mouseout', ddmenu_timer) }); document.onclick = ddmenu_close; // ]]> </script> Now i want to implement a Jquery to set the css visibility property to true or false. into my content page of same master page. <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#lnkAddMore").click(function(){ alert(); } ); }); </script> This html control is under my UpdatePanel. I dont know why it is not working ? I am using this control under UpdatePanel. <input type="button" id="lnkAddMore" value="Add More" /> I tried to use it outside my update panel it is running successfully but not in UpdatePanel I think there is a problem using it with an UpdatePanel

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• Custom model validation of dependent properties using Data Annotations

  - by Darin Dimitrov

  Since now I've used the excellent FluentValidation library to validate my model classes. In web applications I use it in conjunction with the jquery.validate plugin to perform client side validation as well. One drawback is that much of the validation logic is repeated on the client side and is no longer centralized at a single place. For this reason I'm looking for an alternative. There are many examples out there showing the usage of data annotations to perform model validation. It looks very promising. One thing I couldn't find out is how to validate a property that depends on another property value. Let's take for example the following model: public class Event { [Required] public DateTime? StartDate { get; set; } [Required] public DateTime? EndDate { get; set; } } I would like to ensure that EndDate is greater than StartDate. I could write a custom validation attribute extending ValidationAttribute in order to perform custom validation logic. Unfortunately I couldn't find a way to obtain the model instance: public class CustomValidationAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { // value represents the property value on which this attribute is applied // but how to obtain the object instance to which this property belongs? return true; } } I found that the CustomValidationAttribute seems to do the job because it has this ValidationContext property that contains the object instance being validated. Unfortunately this attribute has been added only in .NET 4.0. So my question is: can I achieve the same functionality in .NET 3.5 SP1? UPDATE: It seems that FluentValidation already supports clientside validation and metadata in ASP.NET MVC 2. Still it would be good to know though if data annotations could be used to validate dependent properties.

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• Rich faces and dataTable

  - by ortho

  Hi all :) I have the question regarding rich faces and beans. I have a jsp page that is using richfaces and inside it I have the: rich:extendedDatatable component, that takes data from my MainBean as ArrayList (this bean queries the mySQL and puts results to the ArrayList that populates the dataTable later on). There are 4 columns in datatable, first 3 are h:outputLabels and the last one is checkbox. Now I have a question: how can I get information from selected row ? I mean, when user clicks checkbox, I want to take the id/name or whatever that is associated to this particular row, then when user clicks on Apply changed a4j: button I will update the database and when user logs in back again he will see updated info: e.g. checkbox is selected/not selected now because the user checked that. I believe that is a simple query for someone who worked with it. For me ex. flash developer it would be easy in as3, but here I didnt find the solution yet, please help. Thank you in advance, Kindest regards

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• How to perform two-way data binding of controls in a user control inside a FormView

  - by Sandor Drieënhuizen

  I'm trying to perform two-way data binding on the controls in my user control, which is hosted inside a FormView template. FormView: <asp:ObjectDataSource runat="server" ID="ObjectDataSource" TypeName="WebApplication1.Data" SelectMethod="GetItem" UpdateMethod="UpdateItem"> </asp:ObjectDataSource> <asp:FormView runat="server" ID="FormView" DataSourceID="ObjectDataSource"> <ItemTemplate> <uc:WebUserControl1 runat="server"></uc:WebUserControl1> </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <uc:WebUserControl1 runat="server"></uc:WebUserControl1> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> User control: <%@ Control Language="C#" ... %> <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="TitleTextBox" Text='<%# Bind("Title") %>'> </asp:TextBox> The binding works fine when the FormView is in View mode but when I switch to Edit mode, upon calling UpdateItem on the FormView, the bindings are lost. I know this because the FormView tries to call an update method on the ObjectDataSource that does not have an argument called 'Title'. I tried to solve this by implementing IBindableTemplate to load the controls that are inside my user control, directly into the templates (just like I had entered them declaratively like in the code above). However, when calling UpdateItem in edit mode, the container that gets passed into the ExtractValues method of the template, does not contain the TextBox anymore. It did in view mode! I have found some questions on SO that relate to this problem but they are rather dated and they don't provide any answers that helped me solve this problem. How do you think I could solve this problem? It seems to be such a simple requirement but apparently it's more like opening a can of worms...

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• How to create an SaaS Application?

  - by Andrew

  I don't know how else to say it so I'm just going to explain my ideal scenario and hopefully you can explain to me how to implement it... I'm creating an application with the Zend Framework that will be hosted with DreamHost. The application will be hosted on its own domain (i.e. example-app.com). Basically, a user should be able to sign up, get their own domain sampleuser.example-app.com or example-app.com/sampleuser which points to, what looks like their own instance of the app, which is really a single instance serving up different content based on the url. Eventually, I want my users to be able to create their own domain (like foobar.com) that points to sampleuser.example-app.com, such that visitors to foobar.com don't notice that the site is really being served up from example-app.com. I don't know how to do most of that stuff. How does this process work? Do I need to do some funky stuff with Apache or can this be done with a third party host, like DreamHost? Update: Thanks for the advice! I've decided to bite the bullet and upgrade my hosting plan to utilize wildcard subdomains. It's cheaper than I was expecting! I also found out about domain reseller programs, like opensrs.com, that have their own API. I think using one of these APIs will be the solution to my domain registration issue.

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• Strange behavior due to wx.Frame.SetTitle

  - by Anurag Uniyal

  In a wxPython application, which i am porting to Mac OSX, I set title of app frame every 500msec in update UI event, and due to that all the panels and windows are refreshed. That seems strange to me and almost halts my application which has many custom drawn controls and screens. I wanted to know what could be the reason behind it, is it normal for MAC? Here is a self-constrained script which replicates the scenario using timers. It keeps on printing "on paint" every 500ms because in timer I set title every 500ms. import wx app = wx.PySimpleApp() frame = wx.Frame(None, title="BasePainter Test") painter = wx.Panel(frame) def onPaint(event): dc = wx.PaintDC(painter) print "onPaint" painter.Bind(wx.EVT_PAINT, onPaint) def loop(): frame.SetTitle(frame.GetTitle()) wx.CallLater(500, loop) loop() frame.Show(True) app.SetTopWindow(frame) app.MainLoop() My system details: >>> sys.version '2.5 (r25:51918, Sep 19 2006, 08:49:13) \n[GCC 4.0.1 (Apple Computer, Inc. build 5341)]' >>> wx.VERSION (2, 8, 10, 1, '') >>> os.uname() ('Darwin', 'agyeys-mac-mini.local', '9.8.0', 'Darwin Kernel Version 9.8.0: Wed Jul 15 16:55:01 PDT 2009; root:xnu-1228.15.4~1/RELEASE_I386', 'i386')

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• Using the MVVM Light Toolkit to make Blendable applications

  - by Dave

  A while ago, I posted a question regarding switching between a Blend-authored GUI and a Visual Studio-authored one. I got it to work okay by adding my Blend project to my VS2008 project and then changing the Startup Application and recompiling. This would result in two applications that had completely different GUIs, yet used the exact same ViewModel and Model code. I was pretty happy with that. Now that I've learned about the Laurent Bugnion's MVVM Light Toolkit, I would really like to leverage his efforts to make this process of supporting multiple GUIs for the same backend code possible. The question is, does the toolkit facilate this, or am I stuck doing it my previous way? I've watched his video from MIX10 and have read some of the articles about it online. However, I've yet to see something that indicates that there is a clean way to allow a user to either dynamically switch GUIs on the fly by loading a different DLL. There are MVVM templates for VS2008 and Blend 3, but am I supposed to create both types of projects for my application and then reference specific files from my VS2008 solution? UPDATE I re-read some information on Laurent's site, and seemed to have forgotten that the whole point of the template was to allow the same solution to be opened in VS2008 and Blend. So anyhow, with this new perspective it looks like the templates are actually intended to use a single GUI, most likely designed entirely in Blend (with the convenience of debugging through VS2008), and then be able to use two different ViewModels -- one for design-time, and one for runtime. So it seems to me like the answer to my question is that I want to use a combination of my previous solution, along with the MVVM Light Toolkit. The former will allow me to make multiple, distinct GUIs around my core code, while the latter will make designing fancy GUIs in Blend easier with the usage of a design-time ViewModel. Can anyone comment on this?

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• how can I add a custom non-DataTable column to my DataView, in a winforms ADO.net application?

  - by Greg

  Hi, How could I (/is it possible) to add a custom column to my DataView, and in this column display the result of a specific calculation. That is, I currently have a dataGridView which has a binding to a DataView, based on the DataTable from my database. I'd like to add an additional column to the dataGridView to display a number which is calculated by looking at this current row plus it's children row. In other words the info for the column isn't just derivable from the row data itself. Specific questions might be: a) where to add the column itself? to the DataView I assume? b) which method / event to trigger the re-calculation of the value of this custom column from ( / how do I control this) Thanks PS. I've also noted if I use the following code/approach I get a infinite loop... // Custom Items DataColumn dc = new DataColumn("OverallSize", typeof(long)); DT_Webfiles.Columns.Add(dc); DT_Webfiles.RowChanged += new DataRowChangeEventHandler(DT_Row_Changed); private static void DT_Row_Changed(object sender, DataRowChangeEventArgs e) { e.Row["OverallSize"] = e.Row["OverallSize"] ?? 0; e.Row["OverallSize"] = (long)e.Row["OverallSize"] + 1; } What other approach could avoid this looping. i.e. currently I'm saying update the value of the custom column when the row changes, however after then changing the row it triggers antoher 'row has changed' event...

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• RubyGems installation errors when using 'sudo' or not

  - by Kenny Peng

  I have a machine that is running Ubuntu Hardy, which provides its own RubyGems package. Unfortunately that version of RubyGems (1.1.1) is too old to do anything useful with, so I decided to manually update RubyGems to the current version (1.3.6). That part went smoothly, and if I do gem -v, I get 1.3.6 which is expected. The problem is when I try to do: sudo gem install rack, it returns this error: ERROR: While executing gem ... (Errno::EACCES) Permission denied - /home/username/.gem Usually when I install gems as root, it knows to install it into /usr/lib/ruby/gems, so why is it checking my home directory at all? Another quirk is when I do gem install rack (not as root), it says: ERROR: While executing gem ... (Gem::FilePermissionError) You don't have write permissions into the /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8 directory. which is where I want it to go. I've already tried clearing source_caches, trying different versions of RubyGems (1.3.5), forcing installation into /usr/lib with -i to no avail. Any ideas on why RubyGems is so insistent on checking my /home directory when installing as root?

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• IPhone custom UITableViewCell Reloading

  - by Steblo

  Hi, currently I'm struggling with this problem: I got a UITableViewController that displays a tableView with different custom cells. One custom cell displays a number (by a label). If you click on this cell, the navigationController moves to a UIPicker where the user can select the number to be displayes. If the user moves back, the cell should display the updated value. Problem: I managed to reload the cells by calling - (void)viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewWillAppear:animated]; [self.tableView reloadData]; } in the UITableViewController. This works only, if I don't use dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier for the cell (tables won't show updates otherwise). But in this case, memory usage grows and grows... In addition, the program crashes after about 15 movements to pickerView and back - I think because the cell that should be reloaded is already released. How can I update a reusable custom cell every time the view appears ? What is the best solution ? I think retaining cells should not be used ?

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• WPF - Grid - updating Row and Column number attached properties on child controls each time a new Ro

  - by ig105

  I have a WPF Grid with a XAML similar to this: <Grid width=200 Height=200 > <Grid.ColumnDefinitions > <ColumnDefinition Width="1*" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="2*" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" /> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" /> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" MinHeight="24" /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <TextBlock Text="Name" Grid.Row="0" Grid.Column="0"/> <TextBox Grid.Row="0" Grid.Column="1" /> <TextBlock Text="Age" Grid.Row="1" Grid.Column="0"/> <TextBox Grid.Row="1" Grid.Column="1" /> </Grid> I need to add a new row in between existing 2 rows of data, but my worry is that when I add a new row, I will need to manually update Grid.Row attached property in each of the controls that appear in rows below the newly added row. Is there a smarter way of doing this? may be to set Row/Column numbers relative to adjacent Rows/Columns ? Cheers.

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• Parameterized Queries /Without/ using queries.

  - by Aren B

  I've got a bit of a poor situation here. I'm stuck working with commerce server, which doesn't do a whole lot of sanitization/parameterization. I'm trying to build up my queries to prevent SQL Injection, however some things like the searches / where clause on the search object need to be built up, and there's no parameterized interface. Basically, I cannot parameterize, however I was hoping to be able to use the same engine to BUILD my query text if possible. Is there a way to do this, aside from writing my own parameterizing engine which will probably still not be as good as parameterized queries? Update: Example The where clause has to be built up as a sql query where clause essentially: CatalogSearch search = /// Create Search object from commerce server search.WhereClause = string.Format("[cy_list_price] > {0} AND [Hide] is not NULL AND [DateOfIntroduction] BETWEEN '{1}' AND '{2}'", 12.99m, DateTime.Now.AddDays(-2), DateTime.Now); *Above Example is how you refine the search, however we've done some testing, this string is NOT SANITIZED. This is where my problem lies, because any of those inputs in the .Format could be user input, and while i can clean up my input from text-boxes easily, I'm going to miss edge cases, it's just the nature of things. I do not have the option here to use a parameterized query because Commerce Server has some insane backwards logic in how it handles the extensible set of fields (schema) & the free-text search words are pre-compiled somewhere. This means I cannot go directly to the sql tables What i'd /love/ to see is something along the lines of: SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand("[cy_list_price] > @MinPrice AND [DateOfIntroduction] BETWEEN @StartDate AND @EndDate"); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@MinPrice", 12.99m); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@StartDate", DateTime.Now.AddDays(-2)); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@EndDate", DateTime.Now); CatalogSearch search = /// constructor search.WhereClause = cmd.ToSqlString();

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