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  • On Redirect - Failed to generate a user instance of SQL Server...

    - by Craig Russell
    Hello (this is a long post sorry), I am writing a application in ASP.NET MVC 2 and I have reached a point where I am receiving this error when I connect remotely to my Server. Failed to generate a user instance of SQL Server due to failure in retrieving the user's local application data path. Please make sure the user has a local user profile on the computer. The connection will be closed. I thought I had worked around this problem locally, as I was getting this error in debug when site was redirected to a baseUrl if a subdomain was invalid using this code: protected override void Initialize(RequestContext requestContext) { string[] host = requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Headers["Host"].Split(':'); _siteProvider.Initialise(host, LiveMeet.Properties.Settings.Default["baseUrl"].ToString()); base.Initialize(requestContext); } protected override void OnActionExecuting(ActionExecutingContext filterContext) { if (Site == null) { string[] host = filterContext.HttpContext.Request.Headers["Host"].Split(':'); string newUrl; if (host.Length == 2) newUrl = "http://sample.local:" + host[1]; else newUrl = "http://sample.local"; Response.Redirect(newUrl, true); } ViewData["Site"] = Site; base.OnActionExecuting(filterContext); } public Site Site { get { return _siteProvider.GetCurrentSite(); } } The Site object is returned from a Provider named siteProvider, this does two checks, once against a database containing a list of all available subdomains, then if that fails to find a valid subdomain, or valid domain name, searches a memory cache of reserved domains, if that doesn't hit then returns a baseUrl where all invalid domains are redirected. locally this worked when I added the true to Response.Redirect, assuming a halting of the current execution and restarting the execution on the browser redirect. What I have found in the stack trace is that the error is thrown on the second attempt to access the database. #region ISiteProvider Members public void Initialise(string[] host, string basehost) { if (host[0].Contains(basehost)) host = host[0].Split('.'); Site getSite = GetSites().WithDomain(host[0]); if (getSite == null) { sites.TryGetValue(host[0], out getSite); } _site = getSite; } public Site GetCurrentSite() { return _site; } public IQueryable<Site> GetSites() { return from p in _repository.groupDomains select new Site { Host = p.domainName, GroupGuid = (Guid)p.groupGuid, IsSubDomain = p.isSubdomain }; } #endregion The Linq query ^^^ is hit first, with a filter of WithDomain, the error isn't thrown till the WithDomain filter is attempted. In summary: The error is hit after the page is redirected, so the first iteration is executing as expected (so permissions on the database are correct, user profiles etc) shortly after the redirect when it filters the database query for the possible domain/subdomain of current redirected page, it errors out.

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  • Get value of element in Multi-Dimensional Array

    - by George
    Here is my foreach loop to get at the values from a multi-dimensional array $_coloredvariables = get_post_meta( $post->ID, '_coloredvariables', true ); foreach ($_coloredvariables as $key => $value) { var_dump($value); } Which outputs this: array 'label' => string 'Color' (length=5) 'size' => string 'small' (length=5) 'displaytype' => string 'square' (length=6) 'values' => array 'dark-night-angel' => array 'type' => string 'Image' (length=5) 'color' => string '#2c4065' (length=7) 'image' => string '' (length=0) 'forest-green' => array 'type' => string 'Color' (length=5) 'color' => string '#285d5f' (length=7) 'image' => string '' (length=0) 'voilet' => array 'type' => string 'Color' (length=5) 'color' => string '#6539c9' (length=7) 'image' => string '' (length=0) 'canary-yellow' => array 'type' => string 'Color' (length=5) 'color' => string 'grey' (length=4) 'image' => string '' (length=0) And then to only get the values array I can do this: foreach ($_coloredvariables as $key => $value) { var_dump($value['values']); } which outputs this: array 'dark-night-angel' => array 'type' => string 'Image' (length=5) 'color' => string '#2c4065' (length=7) 'image' => string '' (length=0) 'forest-green' => array 'type' => string 'Color' (length=5) 'color' => string '#285d5f' (length=7) 'image' => string '' (length=0) 'voilet' => array 'type' => string 'Color' (length=5) 'color' => string '#6539c9' (length=7) 'image' => string '' (length=0) 'canary-yellow' => array 'type' => string 'Color' (length=5) 'color' => string 'grey' (length=4) 'image' => string '' (length=0) What I can't figure out is how to get these elements in the array structure "dark-night-angel", "forest-green", "voilet", "canary-yellow" Without using specific names: var_dump($value['values']['dark-night-angel']) Something that is more dynamic, of course this doesn't work: var_dump($value['values'][0][0]); thanks

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  • WCF Service with callbacks coming from background thread?

    - by Mark Struzinski
    Here is my situation. I have written a WCF service which calls into one of our vendor's code bases to perform operations, such as Login, Logout, etc. A requirement of this operation is that we have a background thread to receive events as a result of that action. For example, the Login action is sent on the main thread. Then, several events are received back from the vendor service as a result of the login. There can be 1, 2, or several events received. The background thread, which runs on a timer, receives these events and fires an event in the wcf service to notify that a new event has arrived. I have implemented the WCF service in Duplex mode, and planned to use callbacks to notify the UI that events have arrived. Here is my question: How do I send new events from the background thread to the thread which is executing the service? Right now, when I call OperationContext.Current.GetCallbackChannel<IMyCallback>(), the OperationContext is null. Is there a standard pattern to get around this? I am using PerSession as my SessionMode on the ServiceContract. UPDATE: I thought I'd make my exact scenario clearer by demonstrating how I'm receiving events from the vendor code. My library receives each event, determines what the event is, and fires off an event for that particular occurrence. I have another project which is a class library specifically for connecting to the vendor service. I'll post the entire implementation of the service to give a clearer picture: [ServiceBehavior( InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.PerSession )] public class VendorServer:IVendorServer { private IVendorService _vendorService; // This is the reference to my class library public VendorServer() { _vendorServer = new VendorServer(); _vendorServer.AgentManager.AgentLoggedIn += AgentManager_AgentLoggedIn; // This is the eventhandler for the event which arrives from a background thread } public void Login(string userName, string password, string stationId) { _vendorService.Login(userName, password, stationId); // This is a direct call from the main thread to the vendor service to log in } private void AgentManager_AgentLoggedIn(object sender, EventArgs e) { var agentEvent = new AgentEvent { AgentEventType = AgentEventType.Login, EventArgs = e }; } } The AgentEvent object contains the callback as one of its properties, and I was thinking I'd perform the callback like this: agentEvent.Callback = OperationContext.Current.GetCallbackChannel<ICallback>(); How would I pass the OperationContext.Current instance from the main thread into the background thread?

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  • Need help converting Ruby code to php code

    - by newprog
    Yesterday I posted this queston. Today I found the code which I need but written in Ruby. Some parts of code I have understood (I don't know Ruby) but there is one part that I can't. I think people who know ruby and php can help me understand this code. def do_create(image) # Clear any old info in case of a re-submit FIELDS_TO_CLEAR.each { |field| image.send(field+'=', nil) } image.save # Compose request vm_params = Hash.new # Submitting a file in ruby requires opening it and then reading the contents into the post body file = File.open(image.filename_in, "rb") # Populate the parameters and compute the signature # Normally you would do this in a subroutine - for maximum clarity all # parameters are explicitly spelled out here. vm_params["image"] = file # Contents will be read by the multipart object created below vm_params["image_checksum"] = image.image_checksum vm_params["start_job"] = 'vectorize' vm_params["image_type"] = image.image_type if image.image_type != 'none' vm_params["image_complexity"] = image.image_complexity if image.image_complexity != 'none' vm_params["image_num_colors"] = image.image_num_colors if image.image_num_colors != '' vm_params["image_colors"] = image.image_colors if image.image_colors != '' vm_params["expire_at"] = image.expire_at if image.expire_at != '' vm_params["licensee_id"] = DEVELOPER_ID #in php it's like this $vm_params["sequence_number"] = -rand(100000000);????? vm_params["sequence_number"] = Kernel.rand(1000000000) # Use a negative value to force an error when calling the test server vm_params["timestamp"] = Time.new.utc.httpdate string_to_sign = CREATE_URL + # Start out with the URL being called... #vm_params["image"].to_s + # ... don't include the file per se - use the checksum instead vm_params["image_checksum"].to_s + # ... then include all regular parameters vm_params["start_job"].to_s + vm_params["image_type"].to_s + vm_params["image_complexity"].to_s + # (nil.to_s => '', so this is fine for vm_params we don't use) vm_params["image_num_colors"].to_s + vm_params["image_colors"].to_s + vm_params["expire_at"].to_s + vm_params["licensee_id"].to_s + # ... then do all the security parameters vm_params["sequence_number"].to_s + vm_params["timestamp"].to_s vm_params["signature"] = sign(string_to_sign) #no problem # Workaround class for handling multipart posts mp = Multipart::MultipartPost.new query, headers = mp.prepare_query(vm_params) # Handles the file parameter in a special way (see /lib/multipart.rb) file.close # mp has read the contents, we can close the file now response = post_form(URI.parse(CREATE_URL), query, headers) logger.info(response.body) response_hash = ActiveSupport::JSON.decode(response.body) # Decode the JSON response string ##I have understood below def sign(string_to_sign) #logger.info("String to sign: '#{string_to_sign}'") Base64.encode64(HMAC::SHA1.digest(DEVELOPER_KEY, string_to_sign)) end # Within Multipart modul I have this: class MultipartPost BOUNDARY = 'tarsiers-rule0000' HEADER = {"Content-type" => "multipart/form-data, boundary=" + BOUNDARY + " "} def prepare_query (params) fp = [] params.each {|k,v| if v.respond_to?(:read) fp.push(FileParam.new(k, v.path, v.read)) else fp.push(Param.new(k,v)) end } query = fp.collect {|p| "--" + BOUNDARY + "\r\n" + p.to_multipart }.join("") + "--" + BOUNDARY + "--" return query, HEADER end end end Thanks for your help.

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  • Rails 3: How do I call a javascript function from a js.erb file

    - by user321775
    Now that I've upgraded to Rails 3, I'm trying to figure out the proper way to separate and reuse pieces of javascript. Here's the scenario I'm dealing with: I have a page with two areas: one with elements that should be draggable, the other with droppables. When the page loads I use jQuery to setup the draggables and droppables. Currently I have the script in the head portion of application.html.erb, which I'm sure is not the right solution but at least works. When I press a button on the page, an ajax call is made to my controller that replaces the draggables with a new set of elements that should also be draggable. I have a js.erb file that renders a partial in the correct location. After rendering I need to make the new elements draggable, so I'd like to reuse the code that currently lives in application.html.erb, but I haven't found the right way to do it. I can only make the new elements draggable by pasting the code directly into my js.erb file (yuck). What I'd like to have: - a javascript file that contains the functions prepdraggables() and prepdroppables() - a way to call either function from application.html.erb or from a js.erb file I've tried using :content_for to store and reuse the code, but can't seem to get it working correctly. What I currently have in the head section of application.html.erb <% content_for :drag_drop_prep do %> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> $(document).ready(function () { // declare all DOM elements with class draggable to be draggable $( ".draggable" ).draggable( { revert : 'invalid' }); // declare all DOM elements with class legal to be droppable $(".legal").droppable({ hoverClass : 'legal_hover', drop : function(event, ui) { var c = new Object(); c['die'] = ui.draggable.attr("id"); c['cell'] = $(this).attr("id"); c['authenticity_token'] = encodeURIComponent(window._token); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/placeDie", data: c, timeout: 5000 }); }}); }); </script> <% end %> undo.js.erb $("#board").html("<%= escape_javascript(render :partial => 'shared/board', :locals => { :playable => true, :restartable => !session[:challenge]}) %>") // This is where I want to prepare draggables. <%= javascript_include_tag "customdragdrop.js" %> // assuming this file had the draggables code from above in a prepdraggables() function prepdraggables();

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  • jQuery ajax multiline "script" response

    - by Rendrik
    I'm designing a template creation tool, which uses a jQuery Ajax request that posts parameters to a PHP file. The PHP does the actual generation of the template's HTML. // Send for processing. Expect JS back to execute. function generate() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "generate.php", data: $('#genform :input').serialize(), dataType: "script", beforeSend: function() { $("#loading").html("<img src='images/loadbar.gif' />"); $("#loading") .dialog({ height: 80, width: 256, autoOpen: true, modal: true }); }, success: function(data) { $("#loading").dialog('close'); } }); } My trouble is that I have the ajax dataType: set to "script". Using this, the PHP file generates some jQuery dialogs for any errors which works nicely. However, after I generate the HTML, i'm having trouble passing it back. So I have probably 100 lines of generated HTML and javascript which i'd like to work with. In the PHP file, i've tried: echo('$("#result").html("'.$html.'");'); This does actually work if there are NO line breaks in $html. As soon as there are any line breaks, the Chrome debugger reports "gen.html:1 Uncaught SyntaxError: Unexpected token ILLEGAL". It's obvious that it's trying to eval the returned response headers, but is stopping at any line break. So, to be clear, when I pass $html back, if the contents are this: $html = "<div>hi there</div>"; It works fine (all of my error message dialogs are one line). But if it's: $html = "<div> hi there </div>"; It blows up. I'm really not sure how to get around this, or if there's a better way to go about it. It's important to me to keep the formatting so people can copy the HTML template. I may just break down and display the template file on the PHP page if I can't solve this, but I was really hoping to keep everything within the confines of the HTML page.

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  • Why is my producer-consumer blocking?

    - by User007
    My code is here: http://pastebin.com/Fi3h0E0P Here is the output 0 Should we take order today (y or n): y Enter order number: 100 More customers (y or n): n Stop serving customers right now. Passing orders to cooker: There are total of 1 order(s) 1 Roger, waiter. I am processing order #100 The goal is waiter must take orders and then give them to the cook. The waiter has to wait cook finishes all pizza, deliver the pizza, and then take new orders. I asked how P-V work in my previous post here. I don't think it has anything to do with \n consuming? I tried all kinds of combination of wait(), but none work. Where did I make a mistake? The main part is here: //Producer process if(pid > 0) { while(1) { printf("0"); P(emptyShelf); // waiter as P finds no items on shelf; P(mutex); // has permission to use the shelf waiter_as_producer(); V(mutex); // cooker now can use the shelf V(orderOnShelf); // cooker now can pickup orders wait(); printf("2"); P(pizzaOnShelf); P(mutex); waiter_as_consumer(); V(mutex); V(emptyShelf); printf("3 "); } } if(pid == 0) { while(1) { printf("1"); P(orderOnShelf); // make sure there is an order on shelf P(mutex); //permission to work cooker_as_consumer(); // take order and put pizza on shelf printf("return from cooker"); V(mutex); //release permission printf("just released perm"); V(pizzaOnShelf); // pizza is now on shelf printf("after"); wait(); printf("4"); } } So I imagine this is the execution path: enter waiter_as_producer, then go to child process (cooker), then transfer the control back to parent, finish waiter_as_consumer, switch back to child. The two waits switch back to parent (like I said I tried all possible wait() combination...).

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  • Exception: attempt to acquire a reference on a close SQLiteClosable

    - by CommonsWare
    I posted this back in May on the [android-developers] Google Group. I never heard back and was not able to reproduce the problem until one of my students did last week. I figured I'd post it here and see if it rang any bells for anyone. In one of my code samples, I have the following method: static Cursor getAll(SQLiteDatabase db, String orderBy) { return(db.rawQuery("SELECT * FROM restaurants "+orderBy, null)); } When I run it, sporadically, I get this: 05-01 14:45:05.849: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1145): java.lang.IllegalStateException: attempt to acquire a reference on a close SQLiteClosable 05-01 14:45:05.849: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1145): at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteClosable.acquireReference(SQLiteClosable.java:31) 05-01 14:45:05.849: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1145): at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteProgram.<init>(SQLiteProgram.java:56) 05-01 14:45:05.849: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1145): at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteQuery.<init>(SQLiteQuery.java:49) 05-01 14:45:05.849: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1145): at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteDirectCursorDriver.query(SQLiteDirectCursorDriver.java:49) 05-01 14:45:05.849: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1145): at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteDatabase.rawQueryWithFactory(SQLiteDatabase.java:1118) 05-01 14:45:05.849: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1145): at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteDatabase.rawQuery(SQLiteDatabase.java:1092) 05-01 14:45:05.849: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1145): at apt.tutorial.Restaurant.getAll(Restaurant.java:14) This makes no sense to me. The database is definitely open. The SQLiteClosable is the SQLiteQuery created by SQLiteQueryDriver, and I see no evidence that there is an object pool or something going on here that might explain how a "new" SQLiteClosable is already closed. The fact that it is sporadic (meaning the same UI operations sometimes trigger the exception, but not always) suggests some sort of pool, race condition, or something...but I'm not sure where. Thoughts? Thanks! UPDATE: The code in question is from the LunchList tutorials out of my Android Programming Tutorials book. It's a bit spread out and not terribly suitable for posting directly in SO. You can download the code for that book from the above link if you want to take a look at it. I do not recall exactly which edition of the tutorial the student was working on at the time, though it was in the Tutorial 12-Tutorial 16 range. I was mostly hoping to run across somebody who had tripped over this problem before and had a likely culprit. I'm fairly certain my database is open. Thanks again!

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  • My form submit button is not showing correctly

    - by JackR
    I have created an form that submits the contents to email. I have used the exact same coding in many other websites, but for my new website http://www.peterevansfuneraldirectors.co.uk/contact-us.html the submit button is just a grey square with text, rather than the usual button. Also the hand doesn't come up on hover. My form code is... <form action="php/FormToEmail.php" method="post" name="ContactForm" id="ContactForm" onsubmit="MM_validateForm('name','','R','email','','RisEmail','message subject','','R','message','','R');return document.MM_returnValue" > <div class="form-text"> <b>Name<span class="purple">*</span></b><br /> <input name="name" type="text" id="name" size="35" style="height:23px; background-color:#FFF; color:#000; border: 1px solid #CCC;" /> </div><br /> <div class="form-text"> <b>Email<span class="purple">*</span></b><br /> <input name="email" type="text" id="email" size="35" style="height:23px; background-color:#FFF; color:#000; border: 1px solid #CCC;" /> </div><br /> <div class="form-text"> <b>Message Subject<span class="purple">*</span></b><br /> <input name="message subject" type="text" id="message subject" size="35" style="height:23px; background-color:#FFF; color:#000; border: 1px solid #CCC;" /> </div><br /> <div class="form-text"> <b>Message<span class="purple">*</span></b><br /> <textarea name="message" type="text" id="message" rows="8" cols="55" style="background-color:#FFF; color:#000; border: 1px solid #CCC;" ></textarea> </div><br /> <div class="submit-button"> <input type="submit" name="submit" value="Submit" /> </div> </form> Thanks in advance! Jack.

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  • Why do some questions get closed for no reason? [closed]

    - by IVlad
    Recently there was a question asking about generating all subsets of a set using a stack and a queue, which was closed (and now deleted it seems) as not a real question for no good reason, since it didn't fit into any of these conditions: It's difficult to tell what is being asked here. No, it was clear what was being asked. This question is ambiguous, vague, incomplete, or rhetorical and cannot be reasonably answered in its current form. Not ambiguous, not vague, not incomplete, definitely not rhetorical and could easily be answered if one knew the solution. Now, the exact same thing has happened with this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2791982/a-shortest-path-problem-with-superheroes-and-intergalactic-journeys/2793746#2793746 I am interested in hearing a logical argument for why that question is either ambiguous, vague, incomplete, rhetorical or cannot reasonably be answered in its current form. It seems that (the same bunch of) people like to close questions that they think are homework questions, especially when they think people want to be served the solution on a platter, which is also not the case: Any suggestions or ideas of how this problem might be solved would be most welcomed. Most of the time the people asking these questions are very reasonable and appreciate even the most vague idea, yet their question is closed. Let's go further and assume that it IS a homework problem. So what? When I registered here I didn't see any rule that said not to post homework problems, nor do I see such a rule now. What is wrong with posting homework problems that makes people hunt them down with a passion to close them without even reading the entire question body? This site is full of questions asked by people who get paid to know the things they are asking, yet their questions are considered fine. How is solving someone's homework problem worse? In some places (like where I live), computer science is a mandatory high school subject, and not everyone is interested in it. How is helping at least those people worse than doing someone's JOB? Not answering homework questions is fine and it's everyone's choice, but I consider closing them to be an act of power abuse, selfishness, and an insult to the fellow community members who are also interested in a solution or want feedback on their proposed solution. So my questions are: - Why do questions like the above get closed for reasons that do not apply? Why do you close them? Why don't you? - Why doesn't a vote to reopen a question reopen it automatically? Needing 5 votes for a reopen takes too long, and it's not fair because one reopen vote basically cancels out a close vote, making it 4 close votes (or 5 to 1, which is the same as only 4 people wanting to close the question), which isn't enough to close the question. I think a question should only be closed when CloseVotes - ReopenVotes >= 5. I'm hoping this will stay up, but I realize it probably won't. In either case, I think this is worth saying and discussing, since it IS community-related.

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  • Callback function in jquery doesn't seem to work......

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    I use the following jquery pagination plugin and i got the error a.parentNode is undefined when i executed it... <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { getRecordspage(1, 5); $(".pager").pagination(17, { callback: pagechange, current_page: '0', items_per_page: '5', num_display_entries : '5', next_text: 'Next', prev_text: 'Prev', num_edge_entries: '1' }); }); function pagechange() { $("#ResultsDiv").empty(); $("#ResultsDiv").css('display', 'none'); getRecordspage($(this).text(), 5); } function getRecordspage(curPage, pagSize) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "Default.aspx/GetRecords", data: "{'currentPage':" + curPage + ",'pagesize':" + pagSize + "}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(jsonObj) { var strarr = jsonObj.d.split('##'); var jsob = jQuery.parseJSON(strarr[0]); var divs = ''; $.each(jsob.Table, function(i, employee) { divs += '<div class="resultsdiv"><br /><span class="resultName">' + employee.Emp_Name + '</span><span class="resultfields" style="padding-left:100px;">Category&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.Desig_Name + '</span><br /><br /><span id="SalaryBasis" class="resultfields">Salary Basis&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.SalaryBasis + '</span><span class="resultfields" style="padding-left:25px;">Salary&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.FixedSalary + '</span><span style="font-size:110%;font-weight:bolder;padding-left:25px;">Address&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.Address + '</span></div>'; }); $("#ResultsDiv").append(divs).show('slow'); $(".resultsdiv:even").addClass("resultseven"); $(".resultsdiv").hover(function() { $(this).addClass("resultshover"); }, function() { $(this).removeClass("resultshover"); }); } }); } </script> and in my page, <div id="ResultsDiv" style="display:none;"> </div> <div id="pager" class="pager"> </div> Any suggestion....

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  • Java HTTP Request Occasionally Hangs

    - by behrk2
    Hello Everyone, For the majority of the time, my HTTP Requests work with no problem. However, occasionally they will hang. The code that I am using is set up so that if the request succeeds (with a response code of 200 or 201), then call screen.requestSucceeded(). If the request fails, then call screen.requestFailed(). When the request hangs, however, it does so before one of the above methods are called. Is there something wrong with my code? Should I be using some sort of best practice to prevent any hanging? The following is my code. I would appreciate any help. Thanks! HttpConnection connection = (HttpConnection) Connector.open(url + connectionParameters); connection.setRequestMethod(method); connection.setRequestProperty("WWW-Authenticate", "OAuth realm=api.netflix.com"); if (method.equals("POST")) { connection.setRequestProperty("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); } int responseCode = connection.getResponseCode(); System.out.println("RESPONSE CODE: " + responseCode); if (connection instanceof HttpsConnection) { HttpsConnection secureConnection = (HttpsConnection) connection; String issuer = secureConnection.getSecurityInfo() .getServerCertificate().getIssuer(); UiApplication.getUiApplication().invokeLater( new DialogRunner( "Secure Connection! Certificate issued by: " + issuer)); } if (responseCode != 200 && responseCode != 201) { screen.requestFailed("Unexpected response code: " + responseCode); connection.close(); return; } String contentType = connection.getHeaderField("Content-type"); ByteArrayOutputStream baos = new ByteArrayOutputStream(); InputStream responseData = connection.openInputStream(); byte[] buffer = new byte[20000]; int bytesRead = 0; while ((bytesRead = responseData.read(buffer)) > 0) { baos.write(buffer, 0, bytesRead); } baos.close(); connection.close(); screen.requestSucceeded(baos.toByteArray(), contentType); } catch (IOException ex) { screen.requestFailed(ex.toString()); }

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  • Internet Explorer buggy when accessing a custom weblogic provider

    - by James
    I've created a custom Weblogic Security Authentication Provider on version 10.3 that includes a custom login module to validate users. As part of the provider, I've implemented the ServletAuthenticationFilter and added one filter. The filter acts as a common log on page for all the applications within the domain. When we access any secured URLs by entering them in the address bar, this works fine in IE and Firefox. But when we bookmark the link in IE an odd thing happens. If I click the bookmark, you will see our log on page, then after you've successfully logged into the system the basic auth page will display, even though the user is already authenticated. This never happens in Firefox, only IE. It's also intermittent. 1 time out of 5 IE will correctly redirect and not show the basic auth window. Firefox and Opera will correctly redirect everytime. We've captured the response headers and compared the success and failures, they are identical. final boolean isAuthenticated = authenticateUser(userName, password, req); // Send user on to the original URL if (isAuthenticated) { res.sendRedirect(targetURL); return; } As you can see, once the user is authenticated I do a redirect to the original URL. Is there a step I'm missing? The authenticateUser() method is taken verbatim from an example in Oracle's documents. private boolean authenticateUser(final String userName, final String password, HttpServletRequest request) { boolean results; try { ServletAuthentication.login(new CallbackHandler() { @Override public void handle(Callback[] callbacks) throws IOException, UnsupportedCallbackException { for (Callback callback : callbacks) { if (callback instanceof NameCallback) { NameCallback nameCallback = (NameCallback) callback; nameCallback.setName(userName); } if (callback instanceof PasswordCallback) { PasswordCallback passwordCallback = (PasswordCallback) callback; passwordCallback.setPassword(password.toCharArray()); } } } }, request); results = true; } catch (LoginException e) { results = false; } return results; I am asking the question here because I don't know if the issue is with the Weblogic config or the code. If this question is more suited to ServerFault please let me know and I will post there. It is odd that it works everytime in Firefox and Opera but not in Internet Explorer. I wish that not using Internet Explorer was an option but it is currently the company standard. Any help or direction would be appreciated. I have tested against IE 6 & 8 and deployed the custom provider on 3 different environments and I can still reproduce the bug.

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  • Interoperability between two AES algorithms

    - by lpfavreau
    Hello, I'm new to cryptography and I'm building some test applications to try and understand the basics of it. I'm not trying to build the algorithms from scratch but I'm trying to make two different AES-256 implementation talk to each other. I've got a database that was populated with this Javascript implementation stored in Base64. Now, I'm trying to get an Objective-C method to decrypt its content but I'm a little lost as to where the differences in the implementations are. I'm able to encrypt/decrypt in Javascript and I'm able to encrypt/decrypt in Cocoa but cannot make a string encrypted in Javascript decrypted in Cocoa or vice-versa. I'm guessing it's related to the initialization vector, nonce, counter mode of operation or all of these, which quite frankly, doesn't speak to me at the moment. Here's what I'm using in Objective-C, adapted mainly from this and this: @implementation NSString (Crypto) - (NSString *)encryptAES256:(NSString *)key { NSData *input = [self dataUsingEncoding: NSUTF8StringEncoding]; NSData *output = [NSString cryptoAES256:input key:key doEncrypt:TRUE]; return [Base64 encode:output]; } - (NSString *)decryptAES256:(NSString *)key { NSData *input = [Base64 decode:self]; NSData *output = [NSString cryptoAES256:input key:key doEncrypt:FALSE]; return [[[NSString alloc] initWithData:output encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding] autorelease]; } + (NSData *)cryptoAES256:(NSData *)input key:(NSString *)key doEncrypt:(BOOL)doEncrypt { // 'key' should be 32 bytes for AES256, will be null-padded otherwise char keyPtr[kCCKeySizeAES256 + 1]; // room for terminator (unused) bzero(keyPtr, sizeof(keyPtr)); // fill with zeroes (for padding) // fetch key data [key getCString:keyPtr maxLength:sizeof(keyPtr) encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]; NSUInteger dataLength = [input length]; // See the doc: For block ciphers, the output size will always be less than or // equal to the input size plus the size of one block. // That's why we need to add the size of one block here size_t bufferSize = dataLength + kCCBlockSizeAES128; void* buffer = malloc(bufferSize); size_t numBytesCrypted = 0; CCCryptorStatus cryptStatus = CCCrypt(doEncrypt ? kCCEncrypt : kCCDecrypt, kCCAlgorithmAES128, kCCOptionECBMode | kCCOptionPKCS7Padding, keyPtr, kCCKeySizeAES256, nil, // initialization vector (optional) [input bytes], dataLength, // input buffer, bufferSize, // output &numBytesCrypted ); if (cryptStatus == kCCSuccess) { // the returned NSData takes ownership of the buffer and will free it on deallocation return [NSData dataWithBytesNoCopy:buffer length:numBytesCrypted]; } free(buffer); // free the buffer; return nil; } @end Of course, the input is Base64 decoded beforehand. I see that each encryption with the same key and same content in Javascript gives a different encrypted string, which is not the case with the Objective-C implementation that always give the same encrypted string. I've read the answers of this post and it makes me believe I'm right about something along the lines of vector initialization but I'd need your help to pinpoint what's going on exactly. Thank you!

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  • Reliable session faulting for unknown reason

    - by Scarfman007
    I am trying to achieve the following - one client-side proxy instance (kept open) accessed by multiple threads using a reliable session. What I have managed so far is to have either A) a reliable session with a client-side proxy which is created and disposed per call or B) what I aim for, but without a reliable session. When I enable reliable sessions on my binding however, the following behaviour is exhibited: Client-side Upon application startup everything appears to work fine until roughly 18 messages in to the WCF session. I firstly get the proxy.InnerChannel.Faulted event raised, then an exception is caught at the point where I am calling the method on the proxy. The exception is a System.TimeoutException, with message: "The request channel timed out while waiting for a reply after 00:00:59.9062512. Increase the timeout value passed to the call to Request or increase the SendTimeout value on the Binding. The time allotted to this operation may have been a portion of a longer timeout." The inner exception has a similar message: "The request operation did not complete within the allotted timeout of 00:01:00. The time allotted to this operation may have been a portion of a longer timeout." With the method at the top of the inner stack trace being: System.ServiceModel.Channels.ReliableRequestSessionChannel.SyncRequest.WaitForReply(TimeSpan timeout) I then call proxy.Close followed by proxy.Abort (catching and ignoring exceptions). If I utilize the default settings (i.e. have simply <reliableSession/>), then calling proxy. Close results in another System.Timeout exception (although this time the allotted timeout is 00:00:00), however if I override the defaults as specified above no exception is thrown. Service-side Utilizing WCF tracing I get a System.ServiceModel.CommunicationException, with message: "The sequence has been terminated by the remote endpoint. The session has stopped waiting for a particular reply. Because of this the reliable session cannot continue. The reliable session was faulted." And a stack trace ending at: System.ServiceModel.AsyncResult.End[TAsyncResult](IAsyncResult result) When remotely attaching to the server I get the same message, which occurs when code execution steps over the return statement of my service in the service call which causes the error. The puzzling thing to me is that the service is stable and runs with options A) or B) as decribed at the beginning of my post, and occurs after a varying number of messages (around 18). The former fact points to there being nothing wrong with the code (indeed I have checked that no exceptions are thrown), and the latter just serves to confuse me and is why I modified the settings on the reliable session binding. I am quite stuck on this. Can anyone suggest why the reliable session would fault in such a way?

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  • How to change the extension of a processed xml file (using eXist & cocoon)

    - by Carsten C.
    Hi all, I'm really new to this whole web stuff, so please be nice if I missed something important to post. Short: Is there a possibility to change the name of a processed file (eXist-DB) after serialization? Here my case, the following request to my eXist-db: http://localhost:8080/exist/cocoon/db/caos/test.xml and I want after serialization the follwing (xslt is working fine): http://localhost:8080/exist/cocoon/db/caos/test.html I'm using the followong sitemap.xmap with cocoon (hoping this is responsible for it) <map:match pattern="db/caos/**"> <!-- if we have an xpath query --> <map:match pattern="xpath" type="request-parameter"> <map:generate src="xmldb:exist:///db/caos/{../1}/#{1}"/> <map:act type="request"> <map:parameter name="parameters" value="true"/> <map:parameter name="default.howmany" value="1000"/> <map:parameter name="default.start" value="1"/> <map:transform type="filter"> <map:parameter name="element-name" value="result"/> <map:parameter name="count" value="{howmany}"/> <map:parameter name="blocknr" value="{start}"/> </map:transform> <map:transform src=".snip./webapp/stylesheets/db2html.xsl"> <map:parameter name="block" value="{start}"/> <map:parameter name="collection" value="{../../1}"/> </map:transform> </map:act> <map:serialize type="html" encoding="UTF-8"/> </map:match> <!-- if the whole file will be displayed --> <map:generate src="xmldb:exist:/db/caos/{1}"/> <map:transform src="..snip../stylesheets/caos2soac.xsl"> <map:parameter name="collection" value="{1}"/> </map:transform> <map:transform type="encodeURL"/> <map:serialize type="html" encoding="UTF-8"/> </map:match> So my Question is: How do I change the extension of the test.xml to test.html after processing the xml file? Background: I'm generating some information out of some xml-dbs, this infos will be displayed in html (which is working), but i want to change some entrys later, after I generated the html site. To make this confortable, I want to use Jquery & Jeditable, but the code does not work on the xml files. Saving the generated html is not an option. tia for any suggestions [and|or] help CC Edit: After reading all over: could it be, that the extension is irrelevant and that this is only a problem of port 8080? I'm confused...

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  • Java app makes screen display unresponsive after 10 minutes of user idle time

    - by Ross
    I've written a Java app that allows users to script mouse/keyboard input (JMacro, link not important, only for the curious). I personally use the application to automate character actions in an online game overnight while I sleep. Unfortunately, I keep coming back to the computer in the morning to find it unresponsive. Upon further testing, I'm finding that my application causes the computer to become unresponsive after about 10 minutes of user idle time (even if the application itself it simulating user activity). I can't seem to pin-point the issue, so I'm hoping somebody else might have a suggestion of where to look or what might be causing the issue. The relevant symptoms and characteristics: Unresponsiveness occurs after user is idle for 10 minutes User can still move the mouse pointer around the screen Everything but the mouse appears frozen... mouse clicks have no effect and no applications update their displays, including the Windows 7 desktop I left the task manager up along the with the app overnight so I could see the last task manager image before the screen freezes... the Java app is at normal CPU/Memory usage and total CPU usage is only ~1% After moving the mouse (in other words, the user comes back from being idle), the screen image starts updating again within 30 minutes (this is very hit and miss... sometimes 10 minutes, sometimes no results after two hours) User can CTRL-ALT-DEL to get to Windows 7's CTRL-ALT-DEL screen (after a 30 second pause). User is still able to move mouse pointer, but clicking any of the button options causes the screen to appear to freeze again On some very rare occasions, the system never freezes, and I come back to it in the morning with full responsiveness The Java app automatically stops input scripting in the middle of the night, so Windows 7 detects "real" idleness and turns the monitors into Standby mode... which they successfully come out of upon manually moving the mouse in the morning when I wake up, even though the desktop display still appears frozen Given the symptoms and characteristics of the issue, it's as if the Java app is causing the desktop display of the logged in user to stop updating, including any running applications. Programming concepts and Java packages used: Multi-threading Standard out and err are rerouted to a javax.swing.JTextArea The application uses a Swing GUI awt.Robot (very heavily used) awt.PointerInfo awt.MouseInfo System Specs: Windows 7 Professional Java 1.6.0 u17 In conclusion, I should stress that I'm not looking for any specific solutions, as I'm not asking a very specific question. I'm just wondering if anybody has run into a similar problem when using the Java libraries that I'm using. I would also gladly appreciate any suggestions for things to try to attempt to further pinpoint what is causing my problem. Thanks! Ross PS, I'll post an update/answer if I manage to stumble across anything else while I continue to debug this.

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  • Google Maps and Json structure

    - by mark
    I found a great script to plot markers on Google Maps. It uses an Json file to laod it. The problem is I don't know what the structure looks like in this case. Can you help? function loadMarkers() { var bounds = map.getBounds(); var zoomLevel = map.getZoom(); $.post("/gmaps/markers/index.php", {zoom: zoomLevel, swLat: bounds.getSouthWest().lat(), swLon: bounds.getSouthWest().lng(), neLat: bounds.getNorthEast().lat(), neLon: bounds.getNorthEast().lng()}, function(data) { processMarkers(data, _smallMarkerSize); }, "json" ); } function processMarkers(webcams, markerSize) { var marker = null; var markersInView = new Array(); var idsInView = new Array(); // Loop through the new webcams for (var i = 0; i < webcams.length; i++) { var idx = markers.indexOf(webcams[i].id); if (idx == -1) { var info_html = "<table class='infowindow'>"; info_html += "<tr><td class='img'>"; info_html += "<img src='" + webcams[i].smallimg + "' /><td>"; info_html += "<td><p><b>" + webcams[i].loc + "</b>"; info_html += "<br /><a href='/webcam/" + webcams[i].url + "' target='_blank'>Show webcam</a></p></td></tr>"; info_html += "</table>"; marker = new WebcamMarker(new GLatLng(webcams[i].latitude, webcams[i].longitude), {image: "" + webcams[i].smallimg + "", height: markerSize, width: markerSize}); marker.myhtml = info_html; map.addOverlay(marker); markersInView[webcams[i].id] = marker; } else { markersInView[webcams[i].id] = markers[webcams[i].id]; } idsInView.push(webcams[i].id); } // Now remove the markers outside of the viewport for (var i = 0; i < webcamids.length; i++) { var idx = markersInView.indexOf(webcamids[i]); if (idx == -1) { marker = markers[webcamids[i]]; map.removeOverlay(marker); } } markers = markersInView; webcamids = idsInView; }

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  • Using jQuery to store basic text string in mySQL base?

    - by Kenny Bones
    Could someone point me in the right direction here? Basically, I've got this jQuery code snippet: $('.bggallery_images').click(function () { var newBG = "url('" + $(this).attr('src'); var fullpath = $(this).attr('src'); var filename = fullpath.replace('img/Bakgrunner/', ''); $('#wrapper').css('background-image', newBG); // Lagre til SQL $.ajax({ url: "save_to_db.php", // The url to your function to handle saving to the db data: filename, dataType: 'Text', type: 'POST', // Could also use GET if you prefer success: function (data) { // Just for testing purposes. alert('Background changed to: ' + data); } }); }); This is being run when I click a certain button. So it's actually within a click handler. If I understand this correctly, this snippet takes the source if the image I just clicked and strips it so I end up with only the filename. If I do an alert(filename), I get the filename only. So this is working ok. But then, it does an ajax call to a php file called "save_to_db.php" and sends data: filename. This is correct right? Then, it does a callback which does an alert + data. Does this seem correct so far? Cause my php file looks like this: <?php require("dbconnect2.php"); $uploadstring = $_POST['filename']; $sessionid = $_SESSION['id']; echo ($sessionid); mysql_query("UPDATE brukere SET brukerBakgrunn = '$uploadstring' WHERE brukerID=" .$_SESSION['id']); mysql_close(); ?> When I click the image, the jQuery snippet fires and I get the results of this php file as output for the alert box. I think that the variables somehow are empty. Because notice the echo($sessionid); which is a variable I've created just to test what the session ID is. And it returns nothing. What could be the issue here? Edit: I just tried to echo out the $uploadstring variable as well and it also returns nothing. It's like the jQuery snippet doesn't even pass the variable on to the php file?

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  • properies profile when writing word file

    - by avani-nature
    Hai frnds i am new to php i am having following problems in my coding... 1.Actually i am opening word document with com object and storing it in textarea. 2.when content gets opened in textarea i am editing that content and saving the document 3.actually when i edited that file and done save after that if i open word document then file properties-custom the old content getting removed i wannt to retain that even if i edited the word document..please do the needful i am using below code <?php $filename = 'C:/xampp/htdocs/mts/sites/default/files/a.doc'; //echo $filename; if(isset($_REQUEST['Save'])){ $somecontent = stripslashes($_POST['somecontent']); // Let's make sure the file exists and is writable first. if (is_writable($filename)) { // In our example we're opening $filename in append mode. // The file pointer is at the bottom of the file hence // that's where $somecontent will go when we fwrite() it. if (!$handle = fopen($filename, 'w')) { echo "Cannot open file ($filename)"; exit; } // Write $somecontent to our opened fi<form action="" method="get"></form>le. if (fwrite($handle, $somecontent) === FALSE) { echo "Cannot write to file ($filename)"; exit; } echo "Success, wrote ($somecontent) to file ($filename) <a href=".$_SERVER['PHP_SELF']."> - Continue - "; fclose($handle); } else { echo "The file $filename is not writable"; } } else{ // get contents of a file into a string $handle = fopen($filename, "r"); $somecontent = fread($handle, filesize($filename)); $word = new COM("word.application") or die ("Could not initialise MS Word object."); $word->Documents->Open(realpath("$filename")); // Extract content. $somecontent = (string) $word->ActiveDocument->Content; //echo $somecontent; $word->ActiveDocument->Close(false); $word->Quit(); $word = null; unset($word); fclose($handle); } ?> <h6>Edit file --------><? $filenam=explode("/",$filename);$filename=$filename[7]; echo $filename ;?></h6> <form name="form1" method="post" action=""> <p> <textarea name="somecontent" cols="100" rows="20"><? echo $somecontent ;?></textarea> </p> <div style='padding-left:250px;'><input type="submit" name="Save" value="Save"></div> </p> </form> <? } ?>

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  • JSF inner datatable not respecting rendered condition of outer table.

    - by Marc
    <h:dataTable cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" styleClass="list_table" id="OuterItems" value="#{valueList.values}" var="item" border="0"> <h:column rendered="#{item.typeA"> <h:dataTable cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" styleClass="list_table" id="InnerItems" value="#{item.options}" var="option" border="0"> <h:column > <h:outputText value="Option: #{option.displayValue}"/> </h:column> </h:dataTable> </h:column> <h:column rendered="#{item.typeB"> <h:dataTable cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" styleClass="list_table" id="InnerItems" value="#{item.demands}" var="demand" border="0"> <h:column > <h:outputText value="Demand: #{demand.displayValue}"/> </h:column> </h:dataTable> </h:column> </h:dataTable> public class Item{ ... public boolean isTypeA(){ return this instanceof TypeA; } public boolean isTypeB(){ return this instanceof TypeB; } ... } public class typeA extends Item(){ ... public List getOptions(){ .... } ... } public class typeB extends Item(){ ... public List getDemands(){ ... } .... } I'm having an issue with JSF. I've abstracted the problem out here, and I'm hoping someone can help me understand how what I'm doing fails. I'm looping over a list of Items. These Items are actually instances of the subclasses TypeA and TypeB. For Type A, I want to display the options, for Type B I want to display the demands. When rendering the page for the first time, this works fine. However, when I post back to the page for some action, I get an error: [3/26/10 12:52:32:781 EST] 0000008c SystemErr R javax.faces.FacesException: Error getting property 'options' from bean of type TypeB at com.sun.faces.lifecycle.ApplyRequestValuesPhase.execute(ApplyRequestValuesPhase.java:89) at com.sun.faces.lifecycle.LifecycleImpl.phase(LifecycleImpl.java(Compiled Code)) at com.sun.faces.lifecycle.LifecycleImpl.execute(LifecycleImpl.java:91) at com.ibm.faces.portlet.FacesPortlet.processAction(FacesPortlet.java:193) My grasp on the JSF lifecyle is very rough. At this point, i understand there is an error in the ApplyRequestValues Phases which is very early and so the previous state is restored and nothing changes. What I don't understand is that in order to fufill the condition for rendering "item.typeA" that object has to be an instance of TypeA. But here, it looks like that object passed the condition even though it was an instance of TypeB. It is like it is evaluating the inner dataTable (InnerItems) before evaluating the outer (outerItems). My working assumption is that I just don't understand how/when the rendered attribute is actually evaluated.

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  • Arrays become null after passing to function in PHP

    - by William
    So when I pass my filled arrays to the function createform the form is created with $max_avatars options, but they have no name or value. Why are my arrays becoming null? <?php $avatar_image_name = array('hacker','samurai','cool','happy','thatsnice','angry','tv','bang'); $avatar_name = array('Hacker','Samurai','Cool','Happy','That\'s nice','Angry','TV','Bang'); $max_avatars = 6; createform($max_avatars, $avatar_image_name, $avatar_name); ?> The function createform: function createform($max_avatars, $avatar_image_name, $avatar_name) { $string ='<table id="formtable"> <tr><td class="formtext">Name:</td><td><input type="text" name=name size=25 /></td></tr> <tr><td class="formtext">Trip:</td><td><input type="text" name=trip size=25 /> (<font style="color: #ff0000">Don\'t use your password</font>)</td></tr> <tr><td class="formtext">Comment</td><td><textarea name=post rows="4" cols="50"></textarea></td></tr> <tr><td class="formtext">Avatar:</td> <td> <select name=avatar>'; for($i = 0; $i < $max_avatars; $i++){ $string = ($string . '<option value="'.$avatar_image_name[i].'">'.$avatar_name[i].'</option>'); } $string = ($string . '</select> </td> <tr><td class="formtext">Extra</td><td>Fortune: <input type="radio" name="extra" value="fortune" /> Poker: <input type="radio" name="extra" value="poker" /></td></tr> </table> <input type=submit value="Submit" id="submitbutton">'); echo $string; }

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  • Strange behaviour when posting CGEvent to PSN

    - by Ben Packard
    If I set up a loop that posts some keyboard events to a PSN, I find that it works fine except for when first launched. The event only seems to post when i do something with the mouse manually - even just moving it slightly. Here's the details, if they help. An external application has a list box of text lines, which I am reading by posting copy commands (and checking the pasteboard). Unfortunately this is my only way to get this text. Sometimes, the application pulls focus away from the list, which I can detect. When this happens, the most reliable way to return focus is by sending a mouse event to click on a text field directly above the list, then send a 'tab' keyboard event to shift the focus onto the list. So at launch, the loop runs fine, scrolling down the list and copying the text. When focus is shifted away, its is detected fine, and the events are sent to move focus back to the list. But nothing seems to happen. The loop continues detecting that focus has changed, but the events only work once I move the mouse. Or even just use the scroll wheel. Strange. Once this has happened the first time, it works fine - each time focus moves, the PSN events switch it back without me having to do anything at all. Here's the code that runs in the loop - verified as working: //copy to pasteboard - CMD-V e3 = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent(NULL, (CGKeyCode)8, true); CGEventSetFlags(e3, kCGEventFlagMaskCommand); CGEventPostToPSN(&psn, e3); CFRelease(e3); e4 = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent(NULL, (CGKeyCode)8, false); CGEventPostToPSN(&psn, e4); CFRelease(e4); //move cursor down e1 = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent(NULL, (CGKeyCode)125, true); CGEventPostToPSN(&psn, e1); CFRelease(e1); e2 = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent(NULL, (CGKeyCode)125, false); CGEventPostToPSN(&psn, e2); CFRelease(e2); And here's where I switch focus, also working (except when first required): //click in text input box - point is derived earlier e6 = CGEventCreateMouseEvent(NULL, kCGEventLeftMouseDown, point, 0); CGEventPostToPSN(&psn, e6); CFRelease(e6); e7 = CGEventCreateMouseEvent(NULL, kCGEventLeftMouseUp, point, 0); CGEventPostToPSN(&psn, e7); CFRelease(e7); //press tab key to move to chat log table CGEventRef e = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent(NULL, (CGKeyCode)48, true); //CGEventPost(kCGSessionEventTap, e); CGEventPostToPSN(&psn, e); CFRelease(e); CGEventRef e11 = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent(NULL, (CGKeyCode)48, false); CGEventPostToPSN(&psn, e11); CFRelease(e11);

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  • Can mono produce valid xhtml?

    - by z-boss
    I installed Mono and MonoDevelop 2.2 on my Windows PC. Created a default C# ASP.NET Web Application project. Here's the Default.aspx it created: <%@ Page Language="C#" Inherits="test.Default" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html> <head runat="server"> <title>Default</title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:Button id="button1" runat="server" Text="Click me!" OnClick="button1Clicked" /> </form> </body> </html> When I run it it feeds this html to the browser: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html> <head><title> Default </title></head> <body> <form name="form1" method="post" action="Default.aspx" id="form1"> <div> <input type="hidden" name="__VIEWSTATE" id="__VIEWSTATE" value="/wEPDwUKMTQ2OTkzNDMyMWRkjWseIg+2HCgaNiY+XHmVKEq/CFg=" /> </div> <div> <input type="hidden" name="__EVENTVALIDATION" id="__EVENTVALIDATION" value="/wEWAgLB5qLABwKs34rGBvJAYc3UJn3AcjSPjq8DVpMxclAk" /> </div> <input type="submit" name="button1" value="Click me!" id="button1" /> </form> </body> </html> XHTML validation fails with 3 errors: 1. Line 3, Column 1: Missing xmlns attribute for element html. The value should be: http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml 2. Line 8, Column 13: there is no attribute "name" 3. Line 17, Column 71: document type does not allow element "input" here; missing one of "p", "h1", "h2", "h3", "h4", "h5", "h6", "div", "pre", "address", "fieldset", "ins", "del" start-tag Is there some setting I'm missing?

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  • Why does my Spring Controller direct me to the wrong page?

    - by kc2001
    I am writing my first Spring 3.0.5 MVC app and am confused about why my controller mappings aren't doing what I expect. I have a VerifyPasswordController that is called after a user tries to log in by entering his name and password. // Called upon clicking "submit" from /login @RequestMapping(value = "/verifyPassword", method = RequestMethod.POST) @ModelAttribute("user") public String verifyPassword(User user, BindingResult result) { String email = user.getEmail(); String nextPage = CHOOSE_OPERATION_PAGE; // success case if (result.hasErrors()) { nextPage = LOGIN_PAGE; } else if (!passwordMatches(email, user.getPassword())) { nextPage = LOGIN_FAILURE_PAGE; } else { // success } return nextPage; } I can verify in the debugger that this method is being called, but afterwards, the verifyPassword page is displayed rather than the chooseOperation page. The console output of WebLogic seems to show that my mapping are correct: INFO : org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping - Mapped URL path [/chooseOperation] onto handler 'chooseOperationController' INFO : org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping - Mapped URL path [/chooseOperation.*] onto handler 'chooseOperationController' INFO : org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping - Mapped URL path [/chooseOperation/] onto handler 'chooseOperationController' Here is the ChooseOperationController: @Controller @SessionAttributes("leaveRequestForm") public class ChooseOperationController implements PageIfc, AttributeIfc { @RequestMapping(value = "/chooseOperation") @ModelAttribute("leaveRequestForm") public LeaveRequest setUpLeaveRequestForm( @RequestParam(NAME_ATTRIBUTE) String name) { LeaveRequest form = populateFormFromDatabase(name); return form; } // helper methods omited } I welcome any advice, particularly "generic" techniques for debugging such mapping problems. BTW, I've also tried to "redirect" to the desired page, but got the same result. servlet-context.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans:beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:beans="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:context="http://www.springframework.org/schema/context" xsi:schemaLocation=" http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc/spring-mvc-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/context http://www.springframework.org/schema/context/spring-context-3.0.xsd"> <!-- DispatcherServlet Context: defines this servlet's request-processing infrastructure --> <!-- Enables the Spring MVC @Controller programming model --> <annotation-driven /> <!-- Handles HTTP GET requests for /resources/** by efficiently serving up static resources in the ${webappRoot}/resources directory --> <resources mapping="/resources/**" location="/resources/" /> <!-- Resolves views selected for rendering by @Controllers to .jsp resources in the /WEB-INF/views directory --> <beans:bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver"> <beans:property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/views/" /> <beans:property name="suffix" value=".jsp" /> </beans:bean> <context:component-scan base-package="com.engilitycorp.leavetracker" /> <beans:bean id="leaveRequestForm" class="com.engilitycorp.leavetracker.model.LeaveRequest" /> </beans:beans> The constants: String LOGIN_FAILURE_PAGE = "loginFailure"; String LOGIN_PAGE = "login"; String CHOOSE_OPERATION_PAGE = "chooseOperation";

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