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  • Get Json and output to text file undecoded

    - by Gary
    Hi, I want to fetch json script and write it to a txt file undecoded, exactly how it was originally. I do have a script that I use that I am modifying but unsure what to commands to use. This script decodes, which is what I want to advoid. //Get Age list($bstat,$bage,$bdata) = explode("\t",check_file('./advise/roadsnow.txt',60*2+15)); //Test Age if ( $bage > $CacheMaxAge ) { //echo "The if statement evaluated to true so get new file and reset $bage"; $bage="0"; $file = file_get_contents('http://somesite.jsontxt'); $out = (json_decode($file)); $report = wordwrap($out->mainText, 100, "\n"); //$valid = $out->validTo; //write the data to a text file called roadsnow.txt $myFile = "./advise/roadsnow.txt"; $fh = fopen($myFile, 'w') or die("can't open file"); $stringData = $report; fwrite($fh, $stringData); } else { //echo the test evaluated to false; file is not stale so read local cache //print "we are at the read local cache"; $stringData = file_get_contents("./advise/roadsnow.txt"); } // if/else is done carry on with processing //Format file $data = $stringData

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  • ASP.NET: ModalPopupExtender prevents button click event from firing

    - by C. Griffin
    Here is what I'm trying to do: Click a button on my page, which in turn makes (2) things happen: Display a ModalPopup to prevent the user from pressing any buttons or changing values Call my code behind method, hiding the ModalPopup when finished Here is the ASP markup: <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel2" runat="server" ChildrenAsTriggers="true" UpdateMode="Always"> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="btnSaveData" EventName="Click" /> </Triggers> <ContentTemplate> <asp:Panel ID="pnlHidden" runat="server" style="display: none;"> <div> <h1>Saving...</h1> </div> </asp:Panel> <cc1:ModalPopupExtender ID="modalPopup" BackgroundCssClass="modalBackground" runat="server" TargetControlID="btnSaveData" PopupControlID="pnlHidden"> </cc1:ModalPopupExtender> <asp:Button ID="btnSaveData" runat="server" Text="Save Data" OnClick="btnSaveData_Click" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> Now, here is my code behind C# code: protected void btnSaveData_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { UpdateUserData(GetLoggedInUser()); modalPopup.Enabled = false; } Why doesn't this work? The ModalPopup displays perfectly, but the btnSaveData_Click event NEVER fires.

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  • sql statement supposed to have 2 distinct rows, but only 1 is returned

    - by jello
    I have an sql statement that is supposed to return 2 rows. the first with psychological_id = 1, and the second, psychological_id = 2. here is the sql statement select * from psychological where patient_id = 12 and symptom = 'delire'; But with this code, with which I populate an array list with what is supposed to be 2 different rows, two rows exist, but with the same values: the second row. OneSymptomClass oneSymp = new OneSymptomClass(); ArrayList oneSympAll = new ArrayList(); string connStrArrayList = "Data Source=.\\SQLEXPRESS;AttachDbFilename=|DataDirectory|\\PatientMonitoringDatabase.mdf; " + "Initial Catalog=PatientMonitoringDatabase; " + "Integrated Security=True"; string queryStrArrayList = "select * from psychological where patient_id = " + patientID.patient_id + " and symptom = '" + SymptomComboBoxes[tag].SelectedItem + "';"; using (var conn = new SqlConnection(connStrArrayList)) using (var cmd = new SqlCommand(queryStrArrayList, conn)) { conn.Open(); using (SqlDataReader rdr = cmd.ExecuteReader()) { while (rdr.Read()) { oneSymp.psychological_id = Convert.ToInt32(rdr["psychological_id"]); oneSymp.patient_history_date_psy = (DateTime)rdr["patient_history_date_psy"]; oneSymp.strength = Convert.ToInt32(rdr["strength"]); oneSymp.psy_start_date = (DateTime)rdr["psy_start_date"]; oneSymp.psy_end_date = (DateTime)rdr["psy_end_date"]; oneSympAll.Add(oneSymp); } } conn.Close(); } OneSymptomClass testSymp = oneSympAll[0] as OneSymptomClass; MessageBox.Show(testSymp.psychological_id.ToString()); the message box outputs "2", while it's supposed to output "1". anyone got an idea what's going on?

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  • Fastest inline-assembly spinlock

    - by sigvardsen
    I'm writing a multithreaded application in c++, where performance is critical. I need to use a lot of locking while copying small structures between threads, for this I have chosen to use spinlocks. I have done some research and speed testing on this and I found that most implementations are roughly equally fast: Microsofts CRITICAL_SECTION, with SpinCount set to 1000, scores about 140 time units Implementing this algorithm with Microsofts InterlockedCompareExchange scores about 95 time units Ive also tried to use some inline assembly with __asm {} using something like this code and it scores about 70 time units, but I am not sure that a proper memory barrier has been created. Edit: The times given here are the time it takes for 2 threads to lock and unlock the spinlock 1,000,000 times. I know this isn't a lot of difference but as a spinlock is a heavily used object, one would think that programmers would have agreed on the fastest possible way to make a spinlock. Googling it leads to many different approaches however. I would think this aforementioned method would be the fastest if implemented using inline assembly and using the instruction CMPXCHG8B instead of comparing 32bit registers. Furthermore memory barriers must be taken into account, this could be done by LOCK CMPXHG8B (I think?), which guarantees "exclusive rights" to the shared memory between cores. At last [some suggests] that for busy waits should be accompanied by NOP:REP that would enable Hyper-threading processors to switch to another thread, but I am not sure whether this is true or not? From my performance-test of different spinlocks, it is seen that there is not much difference, but for purely academic purpose I would like to know which one is fastest. However as I have extremely limited experience in the assembly-language and with memory barriers, I would be happy if someone could write the assembly code for the last example I provided with LOCK CMPXCHG8B and proper memory barriers in the following template: __asm { spin_lock: ;locking code. spin_unlock: ;unlocking code. }

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  • UnauthorizedAccessException in ComRegisterFunction when accessing registry on Win 7 64.

    - by sanbornc
    I have a [ComRegisterFunction] that I am using to register a BHO Internet explorer extension. During registration on 64-bit windows 7 machines, a UnauthorizedAccessException is thrown on the call to subKey.SetValue("NoExplorer", 1). The registry appears to have BHO's located @ \HKLM\SOFTWARE\Wow6432Node\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\explorer\Browser Helper Objects, however, I get them same exception when trying to register there. Any Help would be appreciated. [ComRegisterFunction] public static void RegisterBho(Type type) { string BhoKeyName= "Software\\Microsoft\\Windows\\CurrentVersion\\Explorer\\Browser Helper Objects"; RegistryKey registryKey = Registry.LocalMachine.OpenSubKey(BhoKeyName, true) ?? Registry.LocalMachine.CreateSubKey(BhoKeyName); if(registryKey == null) throw new ApplicationException("Unable to register Bho"); registryKey.Flush(); string guid = type.GUID.ToString("B"); RegistryKey subKey = registryKey.OpenSubKey(guid) ?? registryKey.CreateSubKey(guid); if (subKey == null) throw new ApplicationException("Unable to register Bho"); subKey.SetValue("NoExplorer", 1); registryKey.Close(); subKey.Close(); }

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  • asp.net jquery how to use Plugin/Validation with web content

    - by Eyla
    I have a asp.net web content from that have a asp.net textbox and I want to use Plugin/Validation but it is not working with me here is my code: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Master.Master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="WebForm1.aspx.cs" Inherits="IMAM_APPLICATION.WebForm1" %> <%@ Register assembly="AjaxControlToolkit" namespace="AjaxControlToolkit" tagprefix="asp" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="head" runat="server"> <script src="js/jquery-1.4.1.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="js/jquery.validate.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $.validator.addMethod("#<%=TextBox1.ClientID %>", function(value, element) { return this.optional(element) || /^(?=.*\d)(?=.*[a-z])(?=.*[A-Z]).{8,16}$/i.test(value); }, "Passwords are 8-16 characters with uppercase letters, lowercase letters and at least one number."); }); </script> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder1" runat="server"> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content3" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder2" runat="server"> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> </asp:Content>

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  • Why is this JLabel continuously repainting?

    - by Morinar
    I've got an item that appears to continuously repaint when it exists, causing the CPU to spike whenever it is in any of my windows. It directly inherits from a JLabel, and unlike the other JLabels on the screen, it has a red background and a border. I have NO idea why it would be different enough to continuously repaint. The callstack looks like this: Thread [AWT-EventQueue-1] (Suspended (breakpoint at line 260 in sItem)) sItem.paint(Graphics) line: 260 sItem(JComponent).paintToOffscreen(Graphics, int, int, int, int, int, int) line: 5124 RepaintManager$PaintManager.paintDoubleBuffered(JComponent, Image, Graphics, int, int, int, int) line: 1475 RepaintManager$PaintManager.paint(JComponent, JComponent, Graphics, int, int, int, int) line: 1406 RepaintManager.paint(JComponent, JComponent, Graphics, int, int, int, int) line: 1220 sItem(JComponent)._paintImmediately(int, int, int, int) line: 5072 sItem(JComponent).paintImmediately(int, int, int, int) line: 4882 RepaintManager.paintDirtyRegions(Map<Component,Rectangle>) line: 803 RepaintManager.paintDirtyRegions() line: 714 RepaintManager.seqPaintDirtyRegions() line: 694 [local variables unavailable] SystemEventQueueUtilities$ComponentWorkRequest.run() line: 128 InvocationEvent.dispatch() line: 209 summitEventQueue(EventQueue).dispatchEvent(AWTEvent) line: 597 summitEventQueue(SummitHackableEventQueue).dispatchEvent(AWTEvent) line: 26 summitEventQueue.dispatchEvent(AWTEvent) line: 62 EventDispatchThread.pumpOneEventForFilters(int) line: 269 EventDispatchThread.pumpEventsForFilter(int, Conditional, EventFilter) line: 184 EventDispatchThread.pumpEventsForHierarchy(int, Conditional, Component) line: 174 EventDispatchThread.pumpEvents(int, Conditional) line: 169 EventDispatchThread.pumpEvents(Conditional) line: 161 EventDispatchThread.run() line: 122 [local variables unavailable] It basically just continually hits that over and over again as fast as I can press continue. The code that is "unique" to this particular label looks approximately like this: bgColor = OurColors.clrWindowTextAlert; textColor = Color.white; setBackground(bgColor); setOpaque(true); setSize(150, getHeight()); Border border_warning = BorderFactory.createCompoundBorder( BorderFactory.createMatteBorder(1, 1, 1, 1, OurColors.clrXBoxBorder), Global.border_left_margin); setBorder(border_warning); It obviously does more, but that particular block only exists for these labels that are causing the spike/continuous repaint. Any ideas why it would keep repainting this particular label?

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  • How to view shell commands used by eclipse "run configurations"

    - by gmale
    Given a "run configuration" in Eclipse, I want to print out the associated shell command that would be used to run it. For example: Right now, in Eclipse, if I click "play" it will run: mvn assembly:directory -Dmaven.test.skip=true I don't see that command, I just know that's what the IDE must run, at some point. However, some of the other run configurations are far more complex with long classpaths and virtual machine options and, frankly, sometimes I have no idea what the equivalent shell command would be (particularly when it comes to Flex). There must be some way to access the shell command that would be associated with a "Run Configuration" in Eclipse/Flex Builder. This information must be available, which leads me to believe someone has written a plugin to display it. Or maybe there's already an option built into Eclipse for accessing this. So is there a way to, essentially, convert an Eclipse run configuration into a shell command? (for context only: I'm asking because I'm writing a bash script that automates everything I do, during development--from populating the Database all the way to opening Firefox and clearing the cache before running the web app. So every command I run from the IDE needs to exist in the script. Some are tricky to figure out.)

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  • Updating ToolStripProgressBar and ToolStripStatusLabel along with with an action

    - by TChristian
    In a Windows Form, I have a search box that fires an event to search a remote database and display some results. The query is pretty fast, usually just a fraction of a second, but in case the delay is noticeable there is a progress bar and label in the form's status bar. When the user clicks "Search" the status label should appear and the progress bar show some progress. Then when the result comes back the label should disappear and the progress bar should be full. Pretty basic response. The problem is, I can't get those actions to happen in that order. Using the code below, I click "Search", nothing happens until the results are displayed, and then the progress bar fills up from 0 to 100. The label never appears. I even threw in a sleep command immediately after the event to be sure I wasn't just missing it, but it's as if the first 2 statements are not being executed. What am I doing wrong here? private void searchButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { toolStripStatusLabel1.Visible = true; toolStripProgressBar1.Value = 20; m_changeRequestedEvents.Fire<String>("SearchTerm", searchTextBox.Text); toolStripProgressBar1.Value = 100; toolStripStatusLabel1.Visible = false; }

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  • How to figure out which key was pressed on a BlackBerry

    - by Skrud
    What I want: To know when the user has pressed the button that has the number '2' on it, for example. I don't care whether "Alt" or "Shift" has been pressed. The user has pressed a button, and I want to evaluate whether this button has '2' printed on it. Naturally, if I switch devices this key will change. On a Bold 9700/9500 this is the 'E' key. On a Pearl, this is the 'T'/'Y' key. I've managed to get this working in what appears to be a roundabout way, by looking up the keycode of the '2' character with the ALT button enabled and using Keypad.key() to get the actual button: // figure out which key the '2' is on: final int BUTTON_2_KEY = Keypad.key(KeypadUtil.getKeyCode('2', KeypadListener.STATUS_ALT, KeypadUtil.MODE_EN_LOCALE)); protected boolean keyDown(int keycode, int time) { int key = Keypad.key(keycode); if ( key == BUTTON_2_KEY ) { // do something return true; } return super.keyDown(keycode,time); } I can't help but wonder if there is a better way to do this. I've looked at the constants defined in KeypadListener and Keypad but I can't find any constants mapped to the actual buttons on the device. Would any more experienced BlackBerry devs care to lend a helping hand? Thanks!

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  • Disadvantages of MySQL Row Locking

    - by Nyxynyx
    I am using row locking (transactions) in MySQL for creating a job queue. Engine used is InnoDB. SQL Query START TRANSACTION; SELECT * FROM mytable WHERE status IS NULL ORDER BY timestamp DESC LIMIT 1 FOR UPDATE; UPDATE mytable SET status = 1; COMMIT; According to this webpage, The problem with SELECT FOR UPDATE is that it usually creates a single synchronization point for all of the worker processes, and you see a lot of processes waiting for the locks to be released with COMMIT. Question: Does this mean that when the first query is executed, which takes some time to finish the transaction before, when the second similar query occurs before the first transaction is committed, it will have to wait for it to finish before the query is executed? If this is true, then I do not understand why the row locking of a single row (which I assume) will affect the next transaction query that would not require reading that locked row? Additionally, can this problem be solved (and still achieve the effect row locking does for a job queue) by doing a UPDATE instead of the transaction? UPDATE mytable SET status = 1 WHERE status IS NULL ORDER BY timestamp DESC LIMIT 1

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  • How to repeatedly show a Dialog with PyGTK / Gtkbuilder?

    - by Julian
    I have created a PyGTK application that shows a Dialog when the user presses a button. The dialog is loaded in my __init__ method with: builder = gtk.Builder() builder.add_from_file("filename") builder.connect_signals(self) self.myDialog = builder.get_object("dialog_name") In the event handler, the dialog is shown with the command self.myDialog.run(), but this only works once, because after run() the dialog is automatically destroyed. If I click the button a second time, the application crashes. I read that there is a way to use show() instead of run() where the dialog is not destroyed, but I feel like this is not the right way for me because I would like the dialog to behave modally and to return control to the code only after the user has closed it. Is there a simple way to repeatedly show a dialog using the run() method using gtkbuilder? I tried reloading the whole dialog using the gtkbuilder, but that did not really seem to work, the dialog was missing all child elements (and I would prefer to have to use the builder only once, at the beginning of the program). [SOLUTION] As pointed out by the answer below, using hide() does the trick. But one has to take care that the dialog is in fact destroyed if one does not catch its "delete-event". A simple example that works is: import pygtk import gtk class DialogTest: def rundialog(self, widget, data=None): self.dia.show_all() result = self.dia.run() def destroy(self, widget, data=None): gtk.main_quit() def closedialog(self, widget, data=None): self.dia.hide() return True def __init__(self): self.window = gtk.Window(gtk.WINDOW_TOPLEVEL) self.window.connect("destroy", self.destroy) self.dia = gtk.Dialog('TEST DIALOG', self.window, gtk.DIALOG_MODAL | gtk.DIALOG_DESTROY_WITH_PARENT) self.dia.vbox.pack_start(gtk.Label('This is just a Test')) self.dia.connect("delete-event", self.closedialog) self.button = gtk.Button("Run Dialog") self.button.connect("clicked", self.rundialog, None) self.window.add(self.button) self.button.show() self.window.show() if __name__ == "__main__": testApp = DialogTest() gtk.main()

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  • ~1 second TcpListener Pending()/AcceptTcpClient() lag

    - by cpf
    Probably just watch this video: http://screencast.com/t/OWE1OWVkO As you see, the delay between a connection being initiated (via telnet or firefox) and my program first getting word of it. Here's the code that waits for the connection public IDLServer(System.Net.IPAddress addr,int port) { Listener = new TcpListener(addr, port); Listener.Server.NoDelay = true;//I added this just for testing, it has no impact Listener.Start(); ConnectionThread = new Thread(ConnectionListener); ConnectionThread.Start(); } private void ConnectionListener() { while (Running) { while (Listener.Pending() == false) { System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1); }//this is the part with the lag Console.WriteLine("Client available");//from this point on everything runs perfectly fast TcpClient cl = Listener.AcceptTcpClient(); Thread proct = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(InstanceHandler)); proct.Start(cl); } } (I was having some trouble getting the code into a code block) I've tried a couple different things, could it be I'm using TcpClient/Listener instead of a raw Socket object? It's not a mandatory TCP overhead I know, and I've tried running everything in the same thread, etc.

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  • file_field is not sticky in my Rails form

    - by Tony
    I have a pretty standard Rails form: <div> <h1>Create a New Listing</h1> <%- form_for @listing, :html => {:multipart => true} do |f| -%> <div><%= f.label :title, "Title:"%> <%= f.text_field :title %></div> <div> <%= f.label :image, "Image:" %> <%= f.file_field :image </div> <div> <%= f.label :sound, "Sound Clip:"%> <%= f.file_field :sound %><br /> </div> <div class="submit"><%= f.submit 'Post Listing' %></div> <%- end -%> </div> When a user chooses a file, but the form fails for validation purposes, he must always re-select the file. It is not sticky. Any suggestion on how to fix this? Thanks!

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  • HttpWebResonse hangs on multiple request

    - by Ehsan
    I've an application that create many web request to donwload the news pages of a web site (i've tested for many web sites) after a while I find out that the application slows down in fetching the html source then I found out that HttpWebResonse fails getting the response. I post only the function that do this job. public PageFetchResult Fetch() { PageFetchResult fetchResult = new PageFetchResult(); try { HttpWebRequest req = (HttpWebRequest)HttpWebRequest.Create(URLAddress); HttpWebResponse resp = (HttpWebResponse)req.GetResponse(); Uri requestedURI = new Uri(URLAddress); Uri responseURI = resp.ResponseUri; if (Uri.Equals(requestedURI, responseURI)) { string resultHTML = ""; byte[] reqHTML = ResponseAsBytes(resp); if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(FetchingEncoding)) resultHTML = Encoding.GetEncoding(FetchingEncoding).GetString(reqHTML); else if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(resp.CharacterSet)) resultHTML = Encoding.GetEncoding(resp.CharacterSet).GetString(reqHTML); resp.Close(); fetchResult.IsOK = true; fetchResult.ResultHTML = resultHTML; } else { URLAddress = responseURI.AbsoluteUri; relayPageCount++; if (relayPageCount > 5) { fetchResult.IsOK = false; fetchResult.ErrorMessage = "Maximum page redirection occured."; return fetchResult; } return Fetch(); } } catch (Exception ex) { fetchResult.IsOK = false; fetchResult.ErrorMessage = ex.Message; } return fetchResult; } any solution would greatly appreciate

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  • How do I rewrite a for loop with a shared dependency using actors

    - by Thomas Rynne
    We have some code which needs to run faster. Its already profiled so we would like to make use of multiple threads. Usually I would setup an in memory queue, and have a number of threads taking jobs of the queue and calculating the results. For the shared data I would use a ConcurrentHashMap or similar. I don't really want to go down that route again. From what I have read using actors will result in cleaner code and if I use akka migrating to more than 1 jvm should be easier. Is that true? However, I don't know how to think in actors so I am not sure where to start. To give a better idea of the problem here is some sample code: case class Trade(price:Double, volume:Int, stock:String) { def value(priceCalculator:PriceCalculator) = (priceCalculator.priceFor(stock)-> price)*volume } class PriceCalculator { def priceFor(stock:String) = { Thread.sleep(20)//a slow operation which can be cached 50.0 } } object ValueTrades { def valueAll(trades:List[Trade], priceCalculator:PriceCalculator):List[(Trade,Double)] = { trades.map { trade => (trade,trade.value(priceCalculator)) } } def main(args:Array[String]) { val trades = List( Trade(30.5, 10, "Foo"), Trade(30.5, 20, "Foo") //usually much longer ) val priceCalculator = new PriceCalculator val values = valueAll(trades, priceCalculator) } } I'd appreciate it if someone with experience using actors could suggest how this would map on to actors.

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  • Why two subprocesses created by Java behave differently?

    - by Lily
    I use Java Runtime.getRuntime().exec(command) to create a subprocess and print its pid as follows: public static void main(String[] args) { Process p2; try { p2 = Runtime.getRuntime().exec(cmd); Field f2 = p2.getClass().getDeclaredField("pid"); f2.setAccessible(true); System.out.println( f2.get( p2 ) ); } catch (Exception ie) { System.out.println("Yikes, you are not supposed to be here"); } } I tried both C++ executable and Java executable (.jar file). Both executables will continuously print out "Hello World" to stdout. When cmd is the C++ executable, the pid is printed out to console but the subprocess gets killed as soon as main() returns. However, when I call the .jar executable in cmd, the subprocess does not get killed, which is the desired behavior. I don't understand why same Java code, with different executables can behave so differently. How should I modify my code so that I could have persistent subprocesses in Java. Newbie in this field. Any suggestion is welcomed. Lily

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  • Maven Java Source Code Generation for Hibernate

    - by Adam
    Hi, I´m busy converting an existing project from an Ant build to one using Maven. Part of this build includes using the hibernate hbm2java tool to convert a collection of .hbm.xml files into Java. Here's a snippet of the Ant script used to do this: <target name="dbcodegen" depends="cleangen" description="Generate Java source from Hibernate XML"> <hibernatetool destdir="${src.generated}"> <configuration> <fileset dir="${src.config}"> <include name="**/*.hbm.xml"/> </fileset> </configuration> <hbm2java jdk5="true"/> </hibernatetool> </target> I've had a look around on the internet and some people seem to do this (I think) using Ant within Maven and others with the Maven plugin. I'd prefer to avoid mixing Ant and Maven. Can anyone suggest a way to do this so that all of the .hbm.xml files are picked up and the code generation takes place as part of the Maven code generation build phase? Thanks! Adam.

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  • How do I display a view as if it's the front page via a module?

    - by Justin
    I have a simple view that feeds a home page. I have a custom module that registers some specific URLs in hook_menu that I pass into my module so I can pass them as arguments into the view. I can get the module to display the view all right, but it doesn't use the teaser/is_front view that outputs when I access the home page. I looked through the APIs but I can't seem to figure out how I can output the view via my module as if it's the front page, meaning $is_front is true and the teasers would appear. The reason I'm not passing in the arguments via the URL bar into the view itself is: My argument list is known and finite The argument order is mixed, meaning I will sometimes have /argument1, /argument1/argument2 or just /argument2. I only want to capture the first level URL as an argument for specific, known strings (e.g. I don't want to pass /admin into my view but I do want to pass in /los-angeles, which I register in the menu system via hook_menu in my module) Here are some examples to make this more clear: /admin - loads the admin page /user - loads the login page /boston - passes into the first argument of the view; shows in front/teaser mode / - shows view with no arguments /bread - passes into argument 2 of the view; shows in front/teaser mode /boston/bread - Passes into argument 1 and 2 of the view; shows in front/teaser mode Maybe I'm going about this the wrong way? Or perhaps there is a way to have a module load a view and somehow set front/teaser mode? Details: Drupal 6, PHP 5, MySQL 5, Views, CCK

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  • PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer vs Filters -- Spring Beans

    - by John
    Hi there. I've got a question regarding the difference between PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer (org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer) and normal filters defined in my pom.xml. I've been looking at examples, and it seems that even though filters are defined and marked to be active by default in the pom.xml they still make use of PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer in Spring's applicationContext.xml. This means that the pom.xml has a reference to a filter-LOCAL.properties while applicationContext.xml has a reference to application.properties and they both contain the same settings. Why is that? Is that how it is supposed to be done? I'm able to run the goal mvn jetty:run without the application.properties present, but if I add settings to the application.properties that differ from the filter-LOCAL.properties they don't seem to override. Here's an example of what I mean: pom.xml <profiles <profile <idLOCAL <activation <activeByDefaulttrue </activation <properties <envLOCAL </properties </profile </profiles applicationContext.xml <bean id="propertyConfigurer" class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer" <property name="locations" <list <valueclasspath:application.properties </list </property <property name="ignoreResourceNotFound" value="true"/ </bean <bean id="dataSource" class="org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource" destroy-method="close" <property name="driverClassName" value="${jdbc.driver}"/ <property name="url" value="${jdbc.url}"/ <property name="username" value="${jdbc.username}"/ <property name="password" value="${jdbc.password}"/ </bean an example of the content of application.properties and filters-LOCAL.properties jdbc.driver=org.postgresql.Driver jdbc.url=jdbc:postgresql://localhost/shoutbox_dev jdbc.username=tester jdbc.password=tester Can I remove the propertyConfigurer from the applicationContext, create a PROD filter and disregard the application.properties file, or will that give me issues when deploying to the production server?

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  • MSBUILD batch targets

    - by Darthg8r
    I want to deploy an application to a list of servers. I have all of the build issues taken care of, but I'm having trouble publishing to a list of servers. I want to read the list of servers from an external file and call a target passing the name of each server in. <ItemGroup> <File Include="$(SolutionFolder)CP\Build\DenormDevServers.txt" /> </ItemGroup> <Target Name="DeployToServer" Inputs="Servers" Outputs="Nothing"> <Message Text="Deployment to server done here. Deploying to server: @(Servers)" /> </Target> <Target Name="Test"> <ReadLinesFromFile File="@(File)"> <Output TaskParameter="Lines" ItemName="Servers" /> </ReadLinesFromFile> <CallTarget Targets="DeployToServer" ContinueOnError="true"></CallTarget> </Target> I can't seem to get it to "Deploy" to each server in the list. The output looks like this: Deployment to server done here. Deploying to server: Notice there is no server name, nor is done more than once. There are 2 lines in DenormDevServers.txt

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  • Varchar columns: Nullable or not.

    - by NYSystemsAnalyst
    The database development standards in our organization state the varchar fields should not allow null values. They should have a default value of an empty string (""). I know this makes querying and concatenation easier, but today, one of my coworkers questioned me about why that standard only existed for varchar types an not other datatypes (int, datetime, etc). I would like to know if others consider this to be a valid, defensible standard, or if varchar should be treated the same as fields of other data types? I believe this standard is valid for the following reason: I believe that an empty string and null values, though technically different, are conceptually the same. An empty, zero length string is a string that does not exist. It has no value. However, a numeric value of 0 is not the same as NULL. For example, if a field called OutstandingBalance has a value of 0, it means there are $0.00 remaining. However, if the same field is NULL, that means the value is unknown. On the other hand, a field called CustomerName with a value of "" is basically the same as a value of NULL because both represent the non-existence of the name. I read somewhere that an analogy for an empty string vs. NULL is that of a blank CD vs. no CD. However, I believe this to be a false analogy because a blank CD still phyically exists and still has physical data space that does not have any meaningful data written to it. Basically, I believe a blank CD is the equivalent of a string of blank spaces (" "), not an empty string. Therefore, I believe a string of blank spaces to be an actual value separate from NULL, but an empty string to be the absense of value conceptually equivalent to NULL. Please let me know if my beliefs regarding variable length strings are valid, or please enlighten me if they are not. I have read several blogs / arguments regarding this subject, but still do not see a true conceptual difference between NULLs and empty strings.

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  • javaScript .splice() not working on correctly

    - by adardesign
    I am setting a cookie for each navigation container that is clicked on. It sets an array that is joined and set the cookie value. if its clicked again then its removed from the array. It somehow buggy. It only splices after clicking on other elements. and then it behaves weird. Thanks much. var navLinkToOpen; var setNavCookie = function(value){ var isSet = false; var checkCookies = checkNavCookie() setCookieHelper = checkCookies? checkCookies.split(","): []; console.log("value passed", value) for(i in setCookieHelper){ if(value == setCookieHelper[i]){ setCookieHelper.splice(value,1); isSet = true; } } if(!isSet){ setCookieHelper.push(value) } setCookieHelper.join(",") document.cookie = "navLinkToOpen"+"="+setCookieHelper; } var checkNavCookie = function(){ var allCookies = document.cookie.split( ';' ); for (i = 0; i < allCookies.length; i++ ){ temp = allCookies[i].split("=") if(temp[0].match("navLinkToOpen")){ var getValue = temp[1] } } return getValue || false } $(document).ready(function() { $("#LeftNav li").has("b").addClass("navHeader").not(":first").siblings("li").hide() $(".navHeader").click(function(){ $(this).toggleClass("collapsed").nextUntil("li:has('b')").slideToggle(300); setNavCookie($('.navHeader').index($(this))) return false }) console.log("init",document.cookie) var testCookies = checkNavCookie(); if(testCookies){ finalArrayValue = testCookies.split(",") for(i in finalArrayValue){ $(".navHeader").eq(finalArrayValue[i]).toggleClass("collapsed").nextUntil(".navHeader").slideToggle (0); } } });

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  • Automaticaly update ActiveRecord object

    - by Aleksandr Koss
    I have same models: class Father < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :children end class Child < ActiveRecord::Base  belongs_to :father end Then do something like that: $ script/console test Loading test environment (Rails 2.3.5) >> @f1 = Father.create :test => "Father" => #<Father id: 1, test: "Father", created_at: "2010-03-30 08:01:41", updated_at: "2010-03-30 08:01:41"> >> @f2 = Father.find :first => #<Father id: 1, test: "Father", created_at: "2010-03-30 08:01:41", updated_at: "2010-03-30 08:01:41"> >> @f1 == @f2 => true >> @f1.children => [] >> @f2.children => [] >> @f1.children.create :test => "Child1" => #<Child id: 1, test: "Child1", father_id: 1, created_at: "2010-03-30 08:02:15", updated_at: "2010-03-30 08:02:15"> >> @f1.children => [#<Child id: 1, test: "Child1", father_id: 1, created_at: "2010-03-30 08:02:15", updated_at: "2010-03-30 08:02:15">] >> @f2.children => [] >> @f2.reload => #<Father id: 1, test: "Father", created_at: "2010-03-30 08:01:41", updated_at: "2010-03-30 08:01:41"> >> @f2.children => [#<Child id: 1, test: "Child1", father_id: 1, created_at: "2010-03-30 08:02:15", updated_at: "2010-03-30 08:02:15">] As you see rails cache @f2 object. To get actual data we should call reload. There is a way to automatically reload @f2 after children update without calling method "reload"?

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  • JPA 2.0 Provider Hibernate

    - by Rooh
    I have very strange problem we are using jpa 2.0 with hibernate annotations based Database generated through JPA DDL is true and MySQL as Database; i will provide some reference classes and then my porblem. @MappedSuperclass public abstract class Common implements serializable{ @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) @Column(name = "id", updatable = false) private Long id; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn private Address address; //with all getter and setters //as well equal and hashCode } @Entity public class Parent extends Common{ private String name; @OneToMany(cascade = {CascadeType.MERGE,CascadeType.PERSIST}, mappedBy = "parent") private List<Child> child; //setters and rest of class } @Entity public class Child extends Common{ //some properties with getter/setters } @Entity public class Address implements Serializable{ @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) @Column(name = "id", updatable = false) private Long id; private String street; //rest of class with get/setter } as in code you can see that parents and child classes extends Common class so both have address property and id , the problem occurs when change the address refference in parent class it reflect same change in all child objects in list and if change address refference in child class then on merge it will change address refference of parent as well i am not able to figure out is it is problem of jpa or hibernate

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