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  • MouseListener fired without checking JCheckBox

    - by Morinar
    This one is pretty crazy: I've got an AppSight recording (for those not familiar, it's a recording of what they did including keyboard/mouse input + network traffic, etc) of a customer reproducing a bug. Basically, we've got a series of items listed on the screen with JCheckBox-es down the left side. We've got a MouseListener set for the JPanel that looks something like this: private MouseAdapter createMouseListener() { return new MouseAdapter(){ public void mousePressed( MouseEvent e ) { if( e.getComponent() instanceof JCheckBox ) { // Do stuff } } }; } Based on the recording, it appears very strongly that they click just above one of the checkboxes. After that, it's my belief that this listener fired and the "Do stuff" block happened. However, it did NOT check the box. The user then saw that the box was unchecked, so they clicked on it. This caused the "Do stuff" block to fire again, thus undoing what it had done the first time. This time, the box was checked. Therefore, the user thinks that the box is checked, and it looks like it is, but our client thinks that the box is unchecked as it was clicked twice. Is this possible at all? For the life of me, I can't reproduce it or see how it could be possible, but based on the recording and the data the client sent to the server, I can't see any other logical explanation. Any help, thoughts, and or ideas would be much appreciated.

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  • How do I become better in math, after being a programmer for several years.

    - by loxs
    I've had quite a weird career till now. First I graduated from a medical school. Then I went into marketing (pharmaceuticals). And then umm, after some time, I decided to go for my (till then) hobby and became a "professional" programmer. I've been quite successful at this ever since. I have quite some languages "under my belt". I earn not bad and I have been involved in the opensource community quite heavily. The thing is that I suck at math :). Well, not totally of course, as I get my work done. But I don't know how much I suck. And I don't know how to find out. Math has never really been of any priority during my middle/high school years. I only picked as little as I could afford, because I was always getting ready to go for Medicine. Of course I know the basics of algebra. Things like "normal" and square equations. Also the basics of geometry. But well, there are things that I have missed. And lately I am being fascinated by things like probability theory, infinity, chaos/order etc. But every time I try to learn something about these topics, I hit a wall of terminology, special symbols, and some special kind of thinking, that is quite like mine (a programmer), but also a lot different (and appears weird to me). So, what kinds of books would you recommend me? It's very hard to find something suitable. All that I find are either too easy (and boring) or totally impenetrable.

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  • .NET Remoting: Getting underlying socket?

    - by Alan
    Hi, I'm writing a light remoting app to assist in debugging a problem with remoting communication. This app mimics much of what a larger application does: Periodically sends a heartbeat to another peer application, and periodically verifies that a heartbeat has been received within some time threshold. What we're seeing is in our big application, the heartbeats seem to get dropped. One peer will go for long periods of time without seeing heartbeats from another peer, until the peer that is "dead" is restarted. The big application is responsive in all other ways. We believe it has something to do with the network setup. We were able to repro the problem locally, and fixed it by making some configuration changes to our test environment. To help our customer diagnose the issue, the mini-remoting app needs to log as much information as possible. So, is there a way to get the underlying socket for the remoting connection? I'm aware that I could write a custom sink for this, but I'd like to keep the actual remoting process as close to what is implemented in the big app as possible. Also as an aside, any ideas why the big-app might be "dropping" heartbeats?

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  • ActiveRecord Validations for Models with has_many, belongs_to associations and STI

    - by keruilin
    I have four models: User Award Badge GameWeek The associations are as follows: User has many awards. Award belongs to user. Badge has many awards. Award belongs to badge. User has many game_weeks. GameWeek belongs to user. GameWeek has many awards. Award belongs to game_week. Thus, user_id, badge_id and game_week_id are foreign keys in awards table. Badge implements an STI model. Let's just say it has the following subclasses: BadgeA and BadgeB. Some rules to note: The game_week_id fk can be nil for BadgeA, but can't be nil for BadgeB. Here are my questions: For BadgeA, how do I write a validation that it can only be awarded one time? That is, the user can't have more than one -- ever. For BadgeB, how do I write a validation that it can only be awarded one time per game week?

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  • CREATE VIEW called multiple times not creating all views

    - by theninepoundhammer
    Noticing strange behavior in SQL 2005, both Express and Enterprise Edition: In my code I need to loop through a series of values (about five in a row), and for each value, I need to insert the value into a table and dynamically create a new view using that value as part of the where clause and the name of the view. The code runs pretty quickly, but what I'm noticing is that all the values are inserted into the table correctly but only the LAST view is being created. Every time. For example, if the values I'm using are X1, X2, X3, X4, and X5, I'll run the process, open up Mgmt Studio, and see five rows in the table with the correct five values, but only one view named MyView_x5 that has the correct WHERE clause. At first, I had this loop in an SSIS package as part of a larger data flow. When I started noticing this behavior, I created a stored proc that would create the CREATE VIEW statement dynamically after the insert and called EXECUTE to create the view. Same result. Finally, I created some C# code using the Enterprise Library DAAB, and did the insert and CREATE VIEW statements from my DLL. Same result every time. Most recently, I turned on Profiler while running against the Enterprise Edition and was able to verify that the Batch Started and Batch Completed events were being fired off for each instance of the view. However, like I said, only the last view is actually being created. Does anyone have any idea why this might be happening? Or any suggestions about what else to check or profile? I've profiled for error messages, exceptions, etc. but don't see any in my trace file. My express edition is 9.00.1399.06. Not sure about the Enterprise edition but think it is SP2.

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  • jQuery validate problem

    - by tohop
    Hi there. I have a jquery dialog box that pops up and takes user data through a form. Once the user is finished s/he clicks the 'ok' button. This dialog box has a few 'tabs' such that when 'ok' is clicked, we want to validate all the data given in each tab. If anything is invalid, we take the user to that tab and tell them what's wrong. However, it takes 2 clicks of 'ok' to achieve this. Here is the offending jquery: if(errors){ // display the tab with the error jQuery('#recording_tabs > div').each( function(i){ alert('we are here'); if(jQuery(this).find('*').not('label').hasClass('invalid')){ jQuery('#recording_tabs').tabs('option','selected', i); return false;// prevent further processing } }); } So what happens in the above code is that when we click 'ok' we get a 'we are here' alert for each div (tab) and then nothing happens. Clicking 'ok' again gives us the 'we are here' alert up until we are taken to the tab with the errors. So obviously the first time round the inner if statement is false for each tab which probably means jQuery hasn't registered the 'invalid' classes in time. So I tried a blank each() statement just before the main one in the hope that it would fix the problem jQuery('#recording_tabs > div').each( function(i){} ); But I got the same result. Can anyone spot anything I am missing?

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  • JPA returning null for deleted items from a set

    - by Jon
    This may be related to my question from a few days ago, but I'm not even sure how to explain this part. (It's an entirely different parent-child relationship.) In my interface, I have a set of attributes (Attribute) and valid values (ValidValue) for each one in a one-to-many relationship. In the Spring MVC frontend, I have a page for an administrator to edit these values. Once it's submitted, if any of these fields (as <input> tags) are blank, I remove the ValidValue object like so: Set<ValidValue> existingValues = new HashSet<ValidValue>(attribute.getValidValues()); Set<ValidValue> finalValues = new HashSet<ValidValue>(); for(ValidValue validValue : attribute.getValidValues()) { if(!validValue.getValue().isEmpty()) { finalValues.add(validValue); } } existingValues.removeAll(finalValues); for(ValidValue removedValue : existingValues) { getApplicationDataService().removeValidValue(removedValue); } attribute.setValidValues(finalValues); getApplicationDataService().modifyAttribute(attribute); The problem is that while the database is updated appropriately, the next time I query for the Attribute objects, they're returned with an extra entry in their ValidValue set -- a null, and thus, the next time I iterate through the values to display, it shows an extra blank value in the middle. I've confirmed that this happens at the point of a merge or find, at the point of "Execute query ReadObjectQuery(entity.Attribute). Here's the code I'm using to modify the database (in the ApplicationDataService): public void modifyAttribute(Attribute attribute) { getJpaTemplate().merge(attribute); } public void removeValidValue(ValidValue removedValue) { ValidValue merged = getJpaTemplate().merge(removedValue); getJpaTemplate().remove(merged); } Here are the relevant parts of the entity classes: Entity @Table(name = "attribute") public class Attribute { @OneToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, fetch = FetchType.LAZY, mappedBy = "attribute") private Set<ValidValue> validValues = new HashSet<ValidValue>(0); } @Entity @Table(name = "valid_value") public class ValidValue { @ManyToOne(fetch = FetchType.LAZY) @JoinColumn(name = "attr_id", nullable = false) private Attribute attribute; }

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  • Getting moved out of a development job

    - by Jay
    I'm a year out of college and I started my first dev job at a small (<15 people) company several months ago. It was an internship position that recently turned full time. The position started out as development but for full time I got offered a grab bag of positions: qa, docs, call support and some dev work. It's clear that my employers feel I am lacking dev skills, which is true. I did not major in CS in college and did not have much dev experience. However, I'm convinced that I can be a good developer and I will be a good developer once given the chance to write lots of code. My question is simple: what should I do? As I see it, there are two options. Work hard in the non-dev duties so that my employers may eventually give me significant dev responsibilities. Look for a new job where I will be a developer first and an all purpose guy second (if at all). Thanks guys.

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  • When clicking on ajax.actionlink in its oncomplete function I can't update the html of a div whith requested data

    - by Milka Salkova
    In one partial view I've got some ajax.ActionLinks which when clicked update the div 'importpartupdate' (they just updates the div whith new ajax.actionLinks with other routevalues). The problem is that when this update is competed I have to update another div - depending on which link is clicked . That's why in my OnComplete function of my ajax.ActionLink I make an ajax request to the action'GridViewLanguage' which returns me the partial view which should uodate this other div which claass .floatLanguage. So the first time when I click a link eeverything works correctly and my two divs are correctly updated. But the second time I click a new link it seems the the floatlanguuage div is not updated like somehow the browser is caching the previous info I don't know. \i tried with cache:false- nothing worked. @model MvcBeaWeb.GroupMenu <nav class="sidebar-nav"> <div class="divLeftShowMenu"> <ul> @{ if (Model != null) { foreach (MvcBeaDAL.WebServiceBeaMenu item in Model.MenuLeft) { <li> @Ajax.ActionLink(@item.SpecialWord, "ImportShow", new { id = Model.LanguageName, menuID = item.ID, articlegroupID = item.ArticlegroupID, counter = 1 }, new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "importPartUpdate", HttpMethod = "GET", InsertionMode = InsertionMode.Replace, OnComplete = "success("[email protected]+")" }, new { id=item.ID}) </li> } } } </ul> </div> </nav> <script> function success(ids) { var nocache = new Date().getTime(); jQuery.ajax({ url: '@Url.Action("GridLanguageView")/?menuID='+ids }).done(function (data) { $(".floatLanguage").replaceWith(data); alert(data); }); } </script>

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  • PHP Game weapon accuracy

    - by noko
    I'm trying to come up with a way for players to fire their weapons and only hit for a certain percentage. For example, one gun can only hit 70% of the time while another only hits 34% of the time. So far all I could come up with is weighted arrays. Attempt 1: private function weighted_random(&$weight) { $weights = array(($weight/100), (100-$weight)/100); $r = mt_rand(1,1000); $offset = 0; foreach($weights as $k => $w) { $offset += $w*1000; if($r <= $offset) return $k; } } Attempt 2: private function weapon_fired(&$weight) { $hit = array(); for($i = 0; $i < $weight; $i++) $hit[] = true; for($i = $weight; $i < 100; $i++) $hit[] = false; shuffle($hit); return $hit[mt_rand(0,100)]; } It doesn't seem that the players are hitting the correct percentages but I'm not really sure why. Any ideas or suggestions? Is anything glaringly wrong with these? Thanks

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  • Entity Framework not populating context

    - by stimms
    I'm just starting out with some entity framework exploration, I figured it was time to see what everybody was complaining about. I am running into an issue where the entities don't seem to be returning any of the object context. I generated the model from a database with three tables which link to one another. Courses Instructors CanTeach Relationships are as you would expect: a course can relate to multiple CanTeach entities and an instructor can also relate to multiple CanTeach entities. I also added an OData service to my project which also makes use of the same model. So I can run queries like from a in CanTeach where a.Instructor.FirstName == "Barry" select new { Name = a.Instructor.FirstName + " " + a.Instructor.LastName, Course = a.Course.Name} without issue against the OData endpoint using LINQPad. However when I do a simple query like public Instructor GetInstructorFromID(int ID) { return context.Instructors.Where(i => i.ID == ID).FirstOrDefault(); } The CanTeach list is empty. I know everything in EF is lazy loaded and it is possible that my context is out of scope by the time I look at the object context, however even trying to get the object context as soon as the query is run results in and empty object context. What am I doing wrong?

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  • What should I use to increase performance. View/Query/Temporary Table

    - by Shantanu Gupta
    I want to know the performance of using Views, Temp Tables and Direct Queries Usage in a Stored Procedure. I have a table that gets created every time when a trigger gets fired. I know this trigger will be fired very rare and only once at the time of setup. Now I have to use that created table from triggers at many places for fetching data and I confirms it that no one make any changes in that table. i.e ReadOnly Table. I have to use this tables data along with multiple tables to join and fetch result for further queries say select * from triggertable By Using temp table select ... into #tx from triggertable join t2 join t3 and so on select a,b, c from #tx --do something select d,e,f from #tx ---do somethign --and so on --around 6-7 queries in a row in a stored procedure. By Using Views create view viewname ( select ... from triggertable join t2 join t3 and so on ) select a,b, c from viewname --do something select d,e,f from viewname ---do somethign --and so on --around 6-7 queries in a row in a stored procedure. This View can be used in other places as well. So I will be creating at database rather than at sp By Using Direct Query select a,b, c from select ... into #tx from triggertable join t2 join t3 join ... --do something select a,b, c from select ... into #tx from triggertable join t2 join t3 join ... --do something . . --and so on --around 6-7 queries in a row in a stored procedure. Now I can create a view/temporary table/ directly query usage in all upcoming queries. What would be the best to use in this case.

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  • Does anyone know why jquery dialog is showing stale content on ajax update ?

    - by oo
    I have a series of links and when i click on a link i want to show a dialog with detail information. This detail is returned from an jquery ajax request. I am using the following code below to show a partial result through ajax onto a jquery dialog. Here is the jquery code: $(document).ready(function() { $('a.click').live('click', function() { var url = '/Tracker/Info?id=' + $(this).attr("id"); var dialogOpts = { modal: true, bgiframe: true, autoOpen: false, height: 600, width: 450, overlay: { opacity: 0.7, background: "black" }, draggable: true, resizeable: true, open: function() { //display correct dialog content $("#dialogDiv").load(url); } }; $("#dialogDiv").dialog(dialogOpts); //end dialog $("#dialogDiv").dialog("open"); }); }); Here is my controller action code: public ActionResult Info(int id) { return PartialView("LabelPartialView", _Repository.GetItem(id)); } Here is the issue: When i click this the first time (lets say i send id = 1234) it works fine. When i click on another item (lets say i send id = 4567) it shows the content from 1234 still. Which i click this second item again (again its 4567), then it will show the content from 4567. Does anyone know why it might not be refreshed the first time? Is this a timing issue?

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  • Strange Access Denied warning when running the simplest C++ program.

    - by DaveJohnston
    I am just starting to learn C++ (coming from a Java background) and I have come across something that I can't explain. I am working through the C++ Primer book and doing the exercises. Every time I get to a new exercise I create a new .cpp file and set it up with the main method (and any includes I think I will need) e.g.: #include <list> #include <vector> int main(int argc, char **args) { } and just to make sure I go to the command prompt and compile and run: g++ whatever.cpp a.exe Normally this works just fine and I start working on the exercise, but I just did it and got a strange error. It compiles fine, but when I run it it says Access Denied and AVG pops up telling me that a threat has been detected 'Trojan Horse Generic 17.CKZT'. I tried compiling again using the Microsoft Compiler (cl.exe) and it runs fines. So I went back, and added: #include <iostream> compiled using g++ and ran. This time it worked fine. So can anyone tell me why AVG would report an empty main method as a trojan horse but if the iostream header is included it doesn't?

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  • Minimizing server load in case of many XMLHttpRequest calls

    - by user1888975
    I am making a website where users are to like some articles. Whenever the like button is clicked I am sending a XMLHttpRequest to the server to run a file called like_clicked.php along with the get data of article id and user id. This file takes article id and user id and updates the sql database and also adds a node in an xml file related to the user. This is the first time I am doing something for mass usage. I am worried about the server load when too many users call the like_clicked.php file. Please help me, if this method is ok. I am also thinking of an alternative in case the above method fails. I am thinking of making many like_clicked files (namely like_clicked1.php, like_clicked2.php ... ) to minimize load on a single i-node. Is there a method to detect that it is better to call the next like_clicked file. Here we would need to detect how many calls per unit time are coming for the particular file. How do we handle this? Thanks in advance.

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  • Why can’t PHP script write a file on server 2008 via command line or task scheduler?

    - by rg89
    I created a question on serverfault.com, and it was recommended that I ask here. http://serverfault.com/questions/140669/why-cant-php-script-write-a-file-on-server-2008-via-command-line-or-task-schedul I have a PHP script. It runs well when I use a browser. It writes an XML file in the same directory. The script takes ~60 seconds to run, and the resulting XML file is ~16 MB. I am running PHP 5.2.13 via FastCGI on Windows Server Web edition SP1 64 bit. The code pulls inventory from SQL server, runs a loop to build an XML file for a third party. I created a task in task scheduler to run c:\php5\php.exe "D:\inetpub\tools\build.php" The task scheduler shows a time lapse of about a minute, which is how long the script takes to run in a browser. No error returned, but no file created. Each time I make a change to the scheduled task properties, a user password box comes up and I enter the administrator account password. If I run this same path and argument at a command line it does not error and does not create the file. When I right click run command prompt as an administrator, the file is still not created. I get my echo statement "file published" that is after the file creation and no error is returned. I am doing a simple fopen fwrite fclose to save the contents of a php variable to a .xml file, and the file only gets created when the script is run through the browser. Here's what happens after the xml-building loop: $feedContent .= "</feed"; sqlsrv_close( $conn ); echo "<p>feed built</p>"; $feedFile = "feed.xml"; $handler = fopen($feedFile, 'w'); fwrite( $handler, $feedContent ); fclose( $handler ); echo "<p>file published</p>"; Thanks

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  • Parallel doseq for Clojure

    - by andrew cooke
    I haven't used multithreading in Clojure at all so am unsure where to start. I have a doseq whose body can run in parallel. What I'd like is for there always to be 3 threads running (leaving 1 core free) that evaluate the body in parallel until the range is exhausted. There's no shared state, nothing complicated - the equivalent of Python's multiprocessing would be just fine. So something like: (dopar 3 [i (range 100)] ; repeated 100 times in 3 parallel threads... ...) Where should I start looking? Is there a command for this? A standard package? A good reference? So far I have found pmap, and could use that (how do I restrict to 3 at a time? looks like it uses 32 at a time - no, source says 2 + number of processors), but it seems like this is a basic primitive that should already exist somewhere. clarification: I really would like to control the number of threads. I have processes that are long-running and use a fair amount of memory, so creating a large number and hoping things work out OK isn't a good approach (example which uses a significant chunk available mem). update: Starting to write a macro that does this, and I need a semaphore (or a mutex, or an atom i can wait on). Do semaphores exist in Clojure? Or should I use a ThreadPoolExecutor? It seems odd to have to pull so much in from Java - I thought parallel programming in Clojure was supposed to be easy... Maybe I am thinking about this completely the wrong way? Hmmm. Agents?

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  • How should approach allowing users to create notes with revisions?

    - by Magicked
    I'm working on a Rails project where I want to allow users to create individual notes, which are really just text fields at this time. With each note, the user can edit what they have previously written, but the old version is kept in a revision table. I'm trying to figure out the best way to approach this. My initial thoughts are to have the following relationships: class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :notes end class Note < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :note_revisions belongs_to :user end class NoteRevision < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :note_revision end The Note model will only contain a timestamp of when the note was first created. The NoteRevision model will contain the text, as well as a timestamp for each revision. This way, every time a new revision is made, a new entry is created into the NoteRevision table which is tracked through the Note table. Hopefully this makes sense! First, does this look like a good way to do this? If so, I'm having trouble figuring out how the controller and view will present this information in one form. Are there any good tutorials or has someone seen anything similar that can point me in the right direction? Thanks in advance!

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  • What should I do from here?

    - by Sunscreen
    Hi all, First of all, the site rocks. You can ask and get specific answers, mainly, for programming issues. This question is more generic. I studied Physics for my bachelors and Digital Image Processing for my masters, ended on September 2001. From then on I started working as a developer and software analyst. I worked, and working, witn C, C++, AIX OS, XP OS, MFC 4.21. I also did some data translations from EDIFACT to XML and viceversa. I trained users for the applications that I was running, I created documents (detailed design docs mainly), though most of the time I wrote, and I still write, code. Recently I applied for the best greek, graduate university for my MBA and they accepted me, starting on Jan 2011. I am a developer with no specific insight with the languages I work. I can be very productive with some subsets of the languages that the companies I worked for use, though this is a limited thing for a developer. If I get my MBA I can be a semi-businees analyst ot consultant, as I am now a semi-developer. The problem is that I can do some but not all in a designated working area. What should I do from here? Should I get my MBA and look forswitching industries? Should I read and excersise myself with new languages and frameworks? Should I be more focussed to the deligations from my current job (currently I work with MFC)? Just for the note, I am 32 and I feel I am wasting my time. I am not getting the best that I can get from is current position (and I work here for 3+ years). Thanks all, Sun

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  • Jquery find first visible element after horizontal scroll

    - by lolo flores
    I’m new (only two weeks old) in Jquery, so please bear with me. I know that a very similar question was asked some time ago but I do not know how to adapt the answer to my problem. I have a very wide multicolumn layout something like this: | aaaa | bbbb | cccc | … | | aaaa | b | cc | … | | aaa | cccc | ddd | … | The code looks like: <div id="container"> <p>aaaaaaaaaaa</p> <p>bbbbb</p> <p>ccccccccccc</p> <p>dddddddddd</p> ... <p>xxxxxx</p> </div> There is no vertical scrolling and the container width is set in such a way that only two columns are shown. The user scrolls left or right to see the relevant text. What I want is to get the position currently on display, store it (maybe in a cookie) and retrieve it the next time the user opens the page. I think that I need a way of finding out what paragraph is currently the left-top most, but other suggestions are very welcome. Any ideas? btw: this is an internal project, so Mozilla only :-) Thanks Lolo

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  • Can FFT length affect filtering accuracy?

    - by Charles
    Hi, I am designing a fractional delay filter, and my lagrange coefficient of order 5 h(n) have 6 taps in time domain. I have tested to convolute the h(n) with x(n) which is 5000 sampled signal using matlab, and the result seems ok. When I tried to use FFT and IFFT method, the output is totally wrong. Actually my FFT is computed with 8192 data in frequency domain, which is the nearest power of 2 for 5000 signal sample. For the IFFT portion, I convert back the 8192 frequency domain data back to 5000 length data in time domain. So, the problem is, why this thing works in convolution, but not in FFT multiplication. Does converting my 6 taps h(n) to 8192 taps in frequency domain causes this problem? Actually I have tried using overlap-save method, which perform the FFT and multiplication with smaller chunks of x(n) and doing it 5 times separately. The result seems slight better than the previous, and at least I can see the waveform pattern, but still slightly distorted. So, any idea where goes wrong, and what is the solution. Thank you.

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  • Fast (de)serialization on iPhone

    - by Jacob Kuypers
    I'm developing a game/engine for iPhone OS. It's the first time I'm using Objective-C. I made my own binary format for geometry data and for textures I'm focusing on PVRTC. That should be the optimal approach as far as speed and space are concerned. I really want to keep loading time to a minimum and - if possible - be able to save very fast as well. So now I'm trying to make my "Entity" stuff persistent without sacrificing performance. First I wanted to use NSKeyedArchiver. From what I've heard, it's not very fast. Also, what I want to serialize is mostly structs made of floats with some ints and strings, so there isn't really a need for all that "object graph" overhead. NSArchiver would have been more appropriate, but they kicked that off the iphone for some reason. So now I'm thinking about making my own serialization scheme again. Am I wrong in thinking that NSKeyedArchiver is slow (I only read that, haven't tested it myself)? If so, what's the best way to encode/decode structs (with no pointers, mostly floats) without sacrificing speed?

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  • how can you have the same form handle by javascript multiple times on the same page?

    - by DeChamp
    I have a thumb gallery where I am using ajax/javascript to submit a form per image to report the image as broken seamlessly along with php. The form and script is templated so the script is in the header and then the form is printed multiple times on the same page with a hidden field with a different id for the value per thumb. So basically this is what i have. javascript in header just a quick idea of the forms i have. Just a quick idea not what I actually have. image1 followed by the form image2 followed by the form So when you hit the button it basically submits all of the forms at the same time. I am sure it can be fixed with a (this) or something like that so it only submits a single form at a time. Let me know please. $(function() { $(".submit").click(function() { var imgId = $("#imgId").val(); var dataString = 'imgId='+ imgId; if(imgId==''){ $('.success').fadeOut(200).hide(); $('.error').fadeIn(200).show(); $('.error').fadeOut(200).hide(); }else{ $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "inc/brokenImgReport.php", data: dataString, success: function(){ }); $('.error').fadeOut(200).hide(); $('.success').fadeIn(200).show(); setTimeout(function() { $('.success').fadeOut(200); }, 2000); } return false; }); });

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  • Multiple "ObjectChangeTracker" getting created, can it be avoided?

    - by user555937
    Hi, We are working on a POC where we have following architecture (MVVM), WPF(Client) + WCF + Model(DataAccess)+ ADO.Net Entity Framework 4.0 (with SQL Server 2008 R2 as DB) All are different projects. In the DataAccess layer we have created different Entity Models(edmx) based on the functionality. The tables under perticular flow are grouped and created different entity models. We are using self tracking entities to and fro to communicate with the WPF client through wcf service. For Single model everything works fine. But when we created a Multiple models then few issues started coming. Mutliple models have few duplicate tables/entities. Two probels are, 1) When we try to access entities from different models mutiple objects "ObjectChangeTracker" are getting created. E.g. CompanyModel(edmx) - Company(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker, ObjectState ProductModel(edmx) - Customer(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker1, ObjectState1 OrderModel(edmx) - Oder(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker2, ObjectState2 Is there any way to avoid this? 2) There are few tables which shared across the Models, E.g. Company(Entity) is used in All above mdoels. During compile time it does not thow any error. But run time It gives error saying "Schema specified is not valid. Errors: The mapping of CLR type to EDM type is ambiguous because multiple CLR types match the EDM type "Company"".. To resolve this, we renamed the entities with some prefix to make them Unique. Is there any other way we can resolve this without changing the name of the entity in the same assembly? Thanks in advance and appreciate if anyone has approach for these issues. Thanks, Kiran

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  • Setup for games animation: How do I know JFrame is finished setting itself up?

    - by Jokkel
    I'm using javax.swing.JFrame to draw game animations using double buffer strategy. First, I set up the frame. JFrame frame = new JFrame(); frame.setVisible(true); Now, I draw an object (let it be a circle, doesn't matter) like this. frame.createBufferStrategy(2); bufferStrategy = frame.getBufferStrategy(); Graphics g = bufferStrategy.getDrawGraphics(); circle.draw(g); bufferStrategy.show(); The problem is that the frame is not always fully set-up when the drawing takes place. Seems like JFrame needs up to three steps in resizing itself, until it reaches it's final size. That makes the drawing slide out of frame or hinders it to appear completely from time to time. I already managed to delay things using SwingUtilities.invokeLater(). While this improved the result, there are still times when the drawing slides away / looks prematurely draw. Any idea / strategy? Thanks in advance. EDIT: Ok thanks so far. I didn't mention that I write a little Pong game in the first place. Sorry for the confusion What I actually looked for was the right setup for accelerated game animations done in Java. While reading through the suggestions I found my question answered (though indirectly) here and this example made things clear for me. A resume for this might be that for animating game graphics in Java, the first step is to get rid of the GUI logic overhead.

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