Search Results

Search found 22653 results on 907 pages for 'case insensitive'.

Page 772/907 | < Previous Page | 768 769 770 771 772 773 774 775 776 777 778 779  | Next Page >

• Multithreading: Read from / write to a pipe

  - by Tero Jokinen

  I write some data to a pipe - possibly lots of data and at random intervals. How to read the data from the pipe? Is this ok: in the main thread (current process) create two more threads (2, 3) the second thread writes sometimes to the pipe (and flush-es the pipe?) the 3rd thread has infinite loop which reads the pipe (and then sleeps for some time) Is this so far correct? Now, there are a few thing I don't understand: do I have to lock (mutex?) the pipe on write? IIRC, when writing to pipe and its buffer gets full, the write end will block until I read the already written data, right? How to check for read data in the pipe, not too often, not too rarely? So that the second thread wont block? Is there something like select for pipes? It is possible to set the pipe to unbuffered more or I have to flush it regularly - which one is better? Should I create one more thread, just for flushing the pipe after write? Because flush blocks as well, when the buffer is full, right? I just don't want the 1st and 2nd thread to block.... [Edit] Sorry, I thought the question is platform agnostic but just in case: I'm looking at this from Win32 perspective, possibly MinGW C...

  Read the article

• Replace field value(s) in a String

  - by xybrek

  Using Google Guava is there String utility to easily replace string field inside like this: String query = mydb..sp_mySP ${userId}, ${groupId}, ${someOtherField} Where I can do something like this: StringUtil.setString(query) .setField("userId", "123") .setField("groupId", "456") .setField("someOtherField", "12-12-12"); Then the resulting String would be: mydb..sp_mySP 123, 456, 12-12-12 Of course, setting the String field patter like ${<field>} before the operation... Anyway, this is my approach: public class StringUtil { public class FieldModifier { private String s; public FieldModifier(String s){ this.s = s; } public FieldModifier setField(String fieldName, Object fieldValue){ String value = String.valueOf(fieldValue); s = modifyField(s, fieldName, value); return new FieldModifier(s); } private String modifyField(String s, String fieldName, String fieldValue){ String modified = ""; return modified; } } public FieldModifier parse(String s){ FieldModifier fm = new FieldModifier(s); return fm; } } So in this case, I just need to put the actual code in the modifyField function that will modify the string in a straightforward way. Also if there's a way so the parse function be static so I can just do StringUtil.parse(...) without doing new StringUtil().parse(...) which really doesn't look good.

  Read the article

• Make conversion to a native type explicit in C++

  - by Tal Pressman

  I'm trying to write a class that implements 64-bit ints for a compiler that doesn't support long long, to be used in existing code. Basically, I should be able to have a typedef somewhere that selects whether I want to use long long or my class, and everything else should compile and work. So, I obviously need conversion constructors from int, long, etc., and the respective conversion operators (casts) to those types. This seems to cause errors with arithmetic operators. With native types, the compiler "knows" that when operator*(int, char) is called, it should promote the char to int and call operator*(int, int) (rather than casting the int to char, for example). In my case it gets confused between the various built-in operators and the ones I created. It seems to me like if I could flag the conversion operators as explicit somehow, that it would solve the issue, but as far as I can tell the explicit keyword is only for constructors (and I can't make constructors for built-in types). So is there any way of marking the casts as explicit? Or am I barking up the wrong tree here and there's another way of solving this? Or maybe I'm just doing something else wrong...

  Read the article

• Retrieving friend's likes from the Facebook Graph API

  - by Joe Frank

  Howdy- I have been tooling around with the Facebook Graph API and successfully retrieved back a list of my likes, and a list of my friends (once I authenticated using OAuth). But what I really want to achieve is pulling back my friend's likes. When I try and do that, obviously using the same URL that I use to pull back my own likes but subbing the friend's user id for "me", I don't get anything back, unless they have installed the app as well. Then I get them no problem. To be clear, I can only see the likes of friends who have installed my application. So clearly I am running into a security/rights issue of some sort. I could see where this would be the case; you simply aren't allowed to see your friend's likes unless they have installed the same app. Fair enough, but then how is blekko.com doing it? I even tried using FQL without much luck. I suspect I am missing something totally obvious. Anyone had any luck with this? Maybe with the Javascript API or one of the other access methods? Thanks in advance for any guidance.

  Read the article

• Iterate over defined elements of a JS array

  - by sibidiba

  I'm using a JS array to Map IDs to actual elements, i.e. a key-value store. I would like to iterate over all elements. I tried several methods, but all have its caveats: for (var item in map) {...} Does iterates over all properties of the array, therefore it will include also functions and extensions to Array.prototype. For example someone dropping in the Prototype library in the future will brake existing code. var length = map.lenth; for (var i = 0; i < length; i++) { var item = map[i]; ... } does work but just like $.each(map, function(index, item) {...}); They iterate over the whole range of indexes 0..max(id) which has horrible drawbacks: var x = []; x[1]=1; x[10]=10; $.each(x, function(i,v) {console.log(i+": "+v);}); 0: undefined 1: 1 2: undefined 3: undefined 4: undefined 5: undefined 6: undefined 7: undefined 8: undefined 9: undefined 10: 10 Of course my IDs wont resemble a continuous sequence either. Moreover there can be huge gaps between them so skipping undefined in the latter case is unacceptable for performance reasons. How is it possible to safely iterate over only the defined elements of an array (in a way that works in all browsers and IE)?

  Read the article

• regexp to match string with (comma-separated) number at start and to split into number and rest?

  - by mix

  Given a string such as: 23,234,456 first second third How can I split string this into two parts, where part 1 contains the number at the beginning and part 2 contains the rest---but only if the string STARTS with a number, and the number can be comma-separated or not? In other words, I want two results: 23,234,456 and first second third. If there's a number in that string that isn't part of the first number then it should be in the second result. My best stab at this so far, to grab the number at the beginning, is something like this: ^[0-9]+(,[0-9]{3})* Which seems to grab a comma-separated or non-comma-separated number that starts the line. However, when I run this in the Javascript console I get not only the full number, but also a match on just the last 3 digits with their preceeding ,. (e.g. 23,234,456 and ,456). As for getting the rest into another var I'm having trouble. I tried working with \b, etc., but I think I must be missing something fundamental about grabbing the rest of the line. I'm doing this in Javascript in case it matters. More examples of what to match and what not to match. 2 one two three should return 2 and one two three 2345 one two three should return 2345 and one two three 2 one 2 three should return 2 and one 2 three 2,234 one two 3,000 should return 2,234 and one two 3,000 The space between parts 1 and two could be included in the beginning of part 2.

  Read the article

• NULL pointer comparison fails

  - by Ilya

  Hello, I'm initializing in a class a pointer to be NULL. Afterwards I check if it is NULL in the same class. But it's not always 0x0. Sometimes it's 0x8 or 0xfeffffff or 0x3f800000 or 0x80 or other strange stuff. In most case the pointer is 0x0 but sometimes it gets altered somehow. I'm sure that I'm not changing it anywhere in my code. Is there a way it gets changed by "itself"? Here's my code: MeshObject::MeshObject() { mesh.vertexColors = NULL; } MeshObject::MeshObject(const MeshObject &_copyFromMe) { SimpleLog("vertexColors pointer: %p", _copyFromMe.mesh.vertexColors); if (_copyFromMe.mesh.vertexColors != NULL) { SimpleLog("vertexColors"); this->mesh.vertexColors = new tColor4i[_copyFromMe.mesh.vertexCount]; memcpy(this->mesh.vertexColors, _copyFromMe.mesh.vertexColors, _copyFromMe.mesh.vertexCount * sizeof(tColor4i) ); } } My application crashes, because vertexColors wasn't initialized and is being copied. However it is NULL and shouldn't be copied. Thanks.

  Read the article

• Best way to not update empty posts

  - by user1533106

  Hello, Im using codeigniter, and the page in case just update infos about an user. If the user go to the page and edit values and that posts come as "" or empty (samething) then no update it let the query pass it, i got a logic but its a bit ugly and ill take alot of time. $nome = "'nome' =>" . $this->input->post('nome') . "'"; $sobrenome = "'sobrenome' =>" . $this->input->post('sobrenome') . "'"; if($nome != ""){ $nome = "'nome' =>" . $this->input->post('nome') . "'"; }else{ $nome = ""; } if($sobrenome != ""){ $sobrenome = "'sobrenome' =>" . $this->input->post('sobrenome') . "'"; }else{ $sobrenome = ""; } $data = array($nome, $sobrenome); The problem is, i got alot of fields :( If anyone know a smart way or a better way, please i want know

  Read the article

• Preview of code-only WPF controls in VS2010 - how?

  - by Christian

  Hi, I hope I am able to illustrate the problem using a lot of images. First of all, I was no real fan of XAML (Silverlight issues, crashes in Preview, and so on...) Now, with VS2010 the situation has become better. There are still a lot of things I like better in code, but I also want a preview in my VS. So, take a look at the following control: It is really simple, a todo details list. The first screenshot shows the code of the control, pretty straighforward: There is no XAML, so obviously no preview. Of course, I could encapsulate it in another control, like shown in the next screenshot: But, in that case I have an additional file I do not want or need. So I had the idea to move the init stuff inside the contructor of a XAML control. For simplicity, I used simple elements. But they do not show up in the preview... Finally, I know I could use the controls in other parts of my app when creating UIs. But I am using layout manager, PRISM and a lot of other stuff, so I just want an easy preview of some specific control I created (without having to have a XAML wrapper file for each control) Thanks for help, and sorry for the post structure, but I though with images it is better to understand... Chris

  Read the article

• Entity Framework Decorator Pattern

  - by Anthony Compton

  In my line of business we have Products. These products can be modified by a user by adding Modifications to them. Modifications can do things such as alter the price and alter properties of the Product. This, to me, seems to fit the Decorator pattern perfectly. Now, envision a database in which Products exist in one table and Modifications exist in another table and the database is hooked up to my app through the Entity Framework. How would I go about getting the Product objects and the Modification objects to implement the same interface so that I could use them interchangeably? For instance, the kind of things I would like to be able to do: Given a Modification object, call .GetNumThings(), which would then return the number of things in the original object, plus or minus the number of things added by the modification. This question may be stemming from a pretty serious lack of exposure to the nitty-gritty of EF (all of my experience so far has been pretty straight-forward LOB Silverlight apps), and if that's the case, please feel free to tell me to RTFM. Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• Adding UIView on top of all views dynamically during runtime?

  - by Easwaramoorthy Kanagaraj

  Team, I am trying to bring a menu in top of all visible views during runtime. This menu should be easily addable and removable dynamically in certain conditions. To do this, I have tried adding a button view to the UIWindow as a subview during runtime. UIButton *button = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeRoundedRect]; [button addTarget:self action:nil forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchDown]; [button setTitle:@"Show View" forState:UIControlStateNormal]; button.frame = CGRectMake(80.0, 210.0, 160.0, 40.0); [window addSubview:button]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; [window bringSubviewToFront:button]; But it doesnt worked. Also I have tried to place this button in the root view controller, but no luck again. Edit - Note: This code is not from a UIViewController. I am trying to build a library this will be in that library code. Use case be like you could post NSNotification to enable and disable this menu dynamically during runtime. Please suggest. Thanks !

  Read the article

• Using a single texture image unit with multiple sampler uniforms

  - by bcrist

  I am writing a batching system which tracks currently bound textures in order to avoid unnecessary glBindTexture() calls. I'm not sure if I need to keep track of which textures have already been used by a particular batch so that if a texture is used twice, it will be bound to a different TIU for the second sampler which requires it. Is it acceptable for an OpenGL application to use the same texture image unit for multiple samplers within the same shader stage? What about samplers in different shader stages? For example: Fragment shader: ... uniform sampler2D samp1; uniform sampler2D samp2; void main() { ... } Main program: ... glActiveTexture(GL_TEXTURE0); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, tex_id); glUniform1i(samp1_location, 0); glUniform1i(samp2_location, 0); ... I don't see any reason why this shouldn't work, but what about if the shader program also included a vertex shader like this: Vertex shader: ... uniform sampler2D samp1; void main() { ... } In this case, OpenGL is supposed to treat both instances of samp1 as the same variable, and exposes a single location for them. Therefore, the same texture unit is being used in the vertex and fragment shaders. I have read that using the same texture in two different shader stages counts doubly against GL_MAX_COMBINED_TEXTURE_IMAGE_UNITS but this would seem to contradict that. In a quick test on my hardware (HD 6870), all of the following scenarios worked as expected: 1 TIU used for 2 sampler uniforms in same shader stage 1 TIU used for 1 sampler uniform which is used in 2 shader stages 1 TIU used for 2 sampler uniforms, each occurring in a different stage. However, I don't know if this is behavior that I should expect on all hardware/drivers, or if there are performance implications.

  Read the article

• Python - Access a class from a list using a key

  - by Fake Name

  Is there any way to make a list of classes behave like a set in python? Basically, I'm working on a piece of software that does some involved string comparison, and I have a custom class for handling the strings. Therefore, there is an instance of the class for each string. As a result, I have a large list containing all these classes. I would like to be able to access them like list[key], where in this case, the key is a string the class is based off of. It seems to me that I sould be able to do this somewhat easily, by adding something like __cmp__ to the class, but either I'm being obtuse (likely), or Im missing someting in the docs. Basically, I want to be able to do something like this (Python prompt example): >>class a: ... def __init__(self, x): ... self.var = x ... >>> from test import a >>> cl = set([a("Hello"), a("World"), a("Pie")]) >>> print cl set([<test.a instance at 0x00C866C0>, <test.a instance at 0x00C866E8>, <test.a instance at 0x00C86710>]) >>> cl["World"] <test.a instance at 0x00C866E8> Thanks!

  Read the article

• What is the worst gotcha in WPF?

  - by David

  Hi, I've started to make myself a list of "WPF gotchas": things that bug me and that I had to write down to remember because I fall for them every time.... Now, I'm pretty sure you all stumbled upon similar situations at one point, and I would like you to share your experience on the subject: What is the gotcha that gets you all the time? the one you find the most annoying? (I have a few issues that seem to be without explanation, maybe your submissions will explain them) Here are a few of my "personnal" gotchas (randomly presented): For a MouseEvent to be fired even when the click is on the "transparent" background of a control (e.g. a label) and not just on the content (the Text in this case), the control's Background has to be set to "Brushes.Transparent" and not just "null" (default value for a label) A WPF DataGridCell's DataContext is the RowView to whom the cell belong, not the CellView When inside a ScrollViewer, a Scrollbar is managed by the scrollviewer itself (i.e. setting properties such as ScrollBar.Value is without effect) Key.F10 is not fired when you press "F10", instead you get Key.System and you have to go look for e.SystemKey to get the Key.F10 ... and now you're on.

  Read the article

• How to access individual items in Android GridView?

  - by source.rar

  Hi, I'm trying to create a game with a 9x9 grid with GridView. Each item in the grid is a TextView. I am able to set the initial values of each item in the grid within the getView() method to "0", however I want to change the value of each grid individually after this but have been unable to do so. I tried adding an update() function in my extended GridAdapter class that takes a position and a number to update at that position but this doesnt seem to be working. public void update(int position, int number) { TextView cell; cell = (TextView) getItem(position); if (cell != null) { cell.setText(Integer.toString(number)); } } Doe anyone know how this can be achieved? Here's the whole GridAdapter class in case require, public class SudokuGridAdapter extends BaseAdapter { private Context myContext; private TextView[] myCells; public SudokuGridAdapter(Context c) { myContext = c; myCells = new TextView[9*9]; } @Override public int getCount() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return 9*9; } @Override public Object getItem(int position) { return myCells[position]; } @Override public long getItemId(int position) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return 0; } @Override public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { TextView cell; if (myCells[position] == null) { cell = myCells[position] = new TextView(myContext); cell.setText("0"); } else { cell = myCells[position]; } return cell; } public void update(int position, int number) { TextView cell; cell = (TextView) getItem(position); if (cell != null) { cell.setText(Integer.toString(number)); } } }

  Read the article

• Aliasing `T*` with `char*` is allowed. Is it also allowed the other way around?

  - by StackedCrooked

  Note: This question has been renamed and reduced to make it more focused and readable. Most of the comments refer to the old text. According to the standard objects of different type may not share the same memory location. So this would not be legal: int i = 0; short * s = reinterpret_cast<short*>(&i); // BAD! The standard however allows an exception to this rule: any object may be accessed through a pointer to char or unsigned char: int i = 0; char * c = reinterpret_cast<char*>(&i); // OK However, it is not clear to me if this is also allowed the other way around. For example: char * c = read_socket(...); unsigned * u = reinterpret_cast<unsigned*>(c); // huh? Summary of the answers The answer is NO for two reasons: You an only access an existing object as char*. There is no object in my sample code, only a byte buffer. The pointer address may not have the right alignment for the target object. In that case dereferencing it would result in undefined behavior. On the Intel and AMD platforms it will result performance overhead. On ARM it will trigger a CPU trap and your program will be terminated! This is a simplified explanation. For more detailed information see answers by @Luc Danton, @Cheers and hth. - Alf and @David Rodríguez.

  Read the article

• SQL aggregate query question

  - by Phil

  Hi, Can anyone help me with a SQL query in Apache Derby SQL to get a "simple" count. Given a table ABC that looks like this... id a b c 1 1 1 1 2 1 1 2 3 2 1 3 4 2 1 1 ** 5 2 1 2 ** ** 6 2 2 1 ** 7 3 1 2 8 3 1 3 9 3 1 1 How can I write a query to get a count of how may distinct values of 'a' have both (b=1 and c=2) AND (b=2 and c=1) to get the correct result of 1. (the two rows marked match the criteria and both have a value of a=2, there is only 1 distinct value of a in this table that match the criteria) The tricky bit is that (b=1 and c=2) AND (b=2 and c=1) are obviously mutually exclusive when applied to a single row. .. so how do I apply that expression across multiple rows of distinct values for a? These queries are wrong but to illustrate what I'm trying to do... "SELECT DISTINCT COUNT(a) WHERE b=1 AND c=2 AND b=2 AND c=1 ..." .. (0) no go as mutually exclusive "SELECT DISTINCT COUNT(a) WHERE b=1 AND c=2 OR b=2 AND c=1 ..." .. (3) gets me the wrong result. SELECT COUNT(a) (CASE WHEN b=1 AND c=10 THEN 1 END) FROM ABC WHERE b=2 AND c=1 .. (0) no go as mutually exclusive Cheers, Phil.

  Read the article

• Render different view depending on the type of the data

  - by Miau

  Hi there So lets suppose we have an action in a controller that looks a bit like this: public ViewResult SomeAction(int id) { var data = _someService.GetData(id); ... //create new view model based on the data here return View(viewModel); } What I m trying to figure out is the best way to render a diferent view based on the type fo the data. the "_someService.GetData method returns an data that knows its out type (ie not only you can do typeof(data) but also you can do data.DataType and you ll get an enum value so I could achieve what I m trying to do doing something kinda like this public ViewResult SomeAction(int id) { var data = _someService.GetData(id); //I m mapping fields to the viewModel here var viewModel = GetViewModel(data); swtich(data.DataType) case DataType.TypeOne: return View("TypeOne", viewModel); break; ... } But this does not seem to be the nicest way, (I dont event know if it would work) Is this the way to go? Should I use some sort of RenderPartial Aproach? after all , waht will change in the view is mostly the order of the data (ie the rest of the view would be quite similar) Cheers

  Read the article

• Pointer mysteriously moves

  - by Armen Ablak

  Hi, I have this code for Node rotation and in a line which is marked something happens and I don't really know what and why :). //Test case 30 \ 16 / 29 RotationRight(node->mParent); //call template<class T> void SplayTree<T>::RotationRight(SplayNode<T> *&node) const { SplayNode<T> *left = node->mLeft; SplayNode<T> *parent = node->mParent; node->mLeft = left->mRight; if(left->HasRight()) left->mRight->mParent = node; left->mRight = node; //node in this line points to 0x00445198 {30} left->mParent = node->mParent; //and in this line it points to 0x00444fb8 {16} (node, not node->mParent) node->mParent = left; node = left; } Well, left-mParent points to node also, so I basically do node = node-mParent. The problem is I can't find a work around - how to unpin in from node and change it's pointing address without changing it's.

  Read the article

• NSManagedObject How To Reload

  - by crissag

  I have a view that consists of a table of existing objects and an Add button, which allows the user to create a new object. When the user presses Add, the object is created in the list view controller, so that the object will be part of that managed object context (via the NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName: method). The Add view has a property for the managed object. In the list view controller, I create an Add view controller, set the property to the managed object I created, and then push the Add view on to the navigation stack. In the Add view, I have two buttons for save and cancel. In the save, I save the managed object and pass the managed object back to the list view controller via a delegate method. If the user cancels, then I delete the object and pass nil back to the list view controller. The complication I am having in the add view is related to a UIImagePickerController. In the Add view, I have a button which allows the user to take a photo of the object (or use an existing photo from the photo library). However, the process of transferring to the UIImagePickerController and having the user use the camera, is resulting in a didReceiveMemoryWarning in the add view controller. Further, the view was unloaded, which also caused my NSManagedObject to get clobbered. My question is, how to you go about reloading the NSManagedObject in the case where it was released because of the low memory situation?

  Read the article

• Canvas - @font-face doesn't work on IE9+

  - by iMoses

  I've created a widget which allows the user to locate free-text over an image using a textarea. When saving the image a background canvas application reads the text and calculates its position, then it draws the text to the canvas over the image and saves a new image file. The font I use for this widget is league-gothic which I am importing using the @font-face method. This seems to work great and without any issues on all browsers except (of-course) for IE9 and IE10. When using internet explorer you can clearly see that the font was indeed loaded since the textarea uses the same font, but when trying to draw the text onto the canvas the font-family reverts to one of its fallback, in this case Arial. I've searched quite a bit and found nothing. Unlike most font issues I found that concern the canvas element, I am completely sure that the font has indeed loaded as I am viewing it before saving the result. Anything at all will help me at the moment. If you have any insight, experience with similar bugs or whatever, please share :) Thanks in advance. P.S. I can't expose a code example at the moment, but if it becomes a problem I'll do my best to provide one.

  Read the article

• C Population Count of unsigned 64-bit integer with a maximum value of 15

  - by BitTwiddler1011

  I use a population count (hamming weight) function intensively in a windows c application and have to optimize it as much as possible in order to boost performance. More than half the cases where I use the function I only need to know the value to a maximum of 15. The software will run on a wide range of processors, both old and new. I already make use of the POPCNT instruction when Intel's SSE4.2 or AMD's SSE4a is present, but would like to optimize the software implementation (used as a fall back if no SSE4 is present) as much as possible. Currently I have the following software implementation of the function: inline int population_count64(unsigned __int64 w) { w -= (w 1) & 0x5555555555555555ULL; w = (w & 0x3333333333333333ULL) + ((w 2) & 0x3333333333333333ULL); w = (w + (w 4)) & 0x0f0f0f0f0f0f0f0fULL; return int(w * 0x0101010101010101ULL) 56; } So to summarize: (1) I would like to know if it is possible to optimize this for the case when I only want to know the value to a maximum of 15. (2) Is there a faster software implementation (for both Intel and AMD CPU's) than the function above?

  Read the article

• Prevent empty form input array from being posted?

  - by user355295

  Sorry if this has been answered somewhere; I'm not quite sure how to phrase the problem to even look for help. Anyway, I have a form with three text input boxes, where the user will input three song titles. I have simple PHP set up to treat those input boxes as an array (because I may want, say, 100 song titles in the future) and write the song titles to another document. <form method="post"> <input type="text" name="songs[]" value="" /> <input type="text" name="songs[]" value="" /> <input type="text" name="songs[]" value="" /> <button type="submit" name="submit" value="submit">Submit</button> </form> <?php if (isset($_POST['submit'])) { $open = fopen("test.html", "w"); if(empty($_POST['songs'])) { } else { $songs = $_POST['songs']; foreach($songs as $song) { fwrite($open, $song."<br />"); }; }; }; ?> This correctly writes the song titles to an external file. However, even when the input boxes are empty, the external file will still be written to (just with the <br />'s). I'd assumed that the if statement would ensure nothing would happen if the boxes were blank, but that's obviously not the case. I guess the array's not really empty like I thought it was, but I'm not really sure what implications that comes with. Any idea what I'm doing wrong? (And again, I am clueless when it comes to PHP, so forgive me if this has been answered a million times before, if I described it horribly, etc.)

  Read the article

• Making IE "forget" information entered in form when using back button.

  - by typoknig

  I have a page with a form where many of the fields are populated from variables passed in the URL. Those fields are disabled (NON-EDITABLE) and are only there for the user to view. The remaining fields require user input and are NOT disabled (EDITABLE). When the form is submitted a confirmation page comes up. It may be the case that the user needs to submit several of these forms where the NON-EDITABLE information is identical from form to form, so being able to go back to the form page from the confirmation page would save a lot of time. The way I want this to work is when a user presses the back button all the NON-EDITABLE fields are populated, but the EDITABLE fields are blank. This is what Firefox is doing, but IE8 is does not "forget" what has been entered in the EDITABLE fields. To disable the cache the following appears at the beginning of my page AND at the end of my page. <head> <meta http-equiv="Pragma" content="no-cache"/> <meta http-equiv="Cache-Control" content="no-store"/> <head/> What more must I do to make IE forget what was entered in the EDITABLE fields when the back button is pressed? All of my pages are generated with PHP if that matters. EDIT: It appears to me that this is a problem of IE caching my page even though I have told it not to. Are my meta tags correct? Do I need to do something else to prevent IE from caching my page?

  Read the article

• Ant Junit tests are running much slower via ant than via IDE - what to look at?

  - by Alex B

  I am running my junit tests via ant and they are running substantially slower than via the IDE. My ant call is: <junit fork="yes" forkmode="once" printsummary="off"> <classpath refid="test.classpath"/> <formatter type="brief" usefile="false"/> <batchtest todir="${test.results.dir}/xml"> <formatter type="xml"/> <fileset dir="src" includes="**/*Test.java" /> </batchtest> </junit> The same test that runs in near instantaneously in my IDE (0.067s) takes 4.632s when run through Ant. In the past, I've been able to speed up test problems like this by using the junit fork parameter but this doesn't seem to be helping in this case. What properties or parameters can I look at to speed up these tests? More info: I am using the reported time from the IDE vs. the time that the junit task outputs. This is not the sum total time reported at the end of the ant run. So, bizarrely, this problem has resolved itself. What could have caused this problem? The system runs on a local disk so that is not the problem.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 768 769 770 771 772 773 774 775 776 777 778 779  | Next Page >