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  • Java swing hold buttons

    - by Simon Charette
    Hi, I'm trying to create a subclass of JButton or AbstractButton that would call specified .actionPerformed as long as the mouse is held down on the button. So far I was thinking of extending JButton, adding a mouse listener on creation (inside constructor) and calling actionPerformed while the mouse is down. So far i came up with that but I was wondwering if I was on the right track and if so, how to correctly implement the "held down" logic. package components; import java.awt.event.ActionEvent; import java.awt.event.MouseEvent; import java.awt.event.MouseListener; import javax.swing.Action; import javax.swing.Icon; import javax.swing.JButton; public class HoldButton extends JButton { private class HeldDownMouseListener implements MouseListener { private boolean mouseIsHeldDown; private HoldButton button; private long millis; public HeldDownMouseListener(HoldButton button, long millis) { this.button = button; this.millis = millis; } @Override public void mouseClicked(MouseEvent arg0) { } @Override public void mouseEntered(MouseEvent arg0) { } @Override public void mouseExited(MouseEvent arg0) { } @Override public void mousePressed(MouseEvent arg0) { mouseIsHeldDown = true; // This should be run in a sub thread? // while (mouseIsHeldDown) { // button.fireActionPerformed(new ActionEvent(button, ActionEvent.ACTION_PERFORMED, "heldDown")); // try { // Thread.sleep(millis); // } catch (InterruptedException e) { // e.printStackTrace(); // continue; // } // } } @Override public void mouseReleased(MouseEvent arg0) { mouseIsHeldDown = false; } } public HoldButton() { addHeldDownMouseListener(); } public HoldButton(Icon icon) { super(icon); addHeldDownMouseListener(); } public HoldButton(String text) { super(text); addHeldDownMouseListener(); } public HoldButton(Action a) { super(a); addHeldDownMouseListener(); } private void addHeldDownMouseListener() { addMouseListener(new HeldDownMouseListener(this, 300)); } } Thanks a lot for your time.

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  • Control within another control in asp.net disables server-side events?

    - by Xaisoft
    I have a control which has a button on it. All the button does is redirect the user to another page. On this control I have another control which just display some stuff, nothing fancy. When I click on the button, it does nothing. When I remove or comment out the other control, the button event works. Is this by design? I am not sure how to fix it or what is causing it. ControlA.ascx contains a button with an event like so: protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Response.Redirect("~/Home.aspx"); } ControlA.ascx contains another control inside of it, lets call it ControlB.ascx. The Button1 click event does not fire when ControlB.ascx is in ControlA.ascx, but when I remove it or take it out, Button1 event fires and it goes to Home.aspx. This does not only happen for Button1, if I decide to add a second button and create an event for it, if ControlB is in ControlA, the second button event won't fire either.

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  • Customize jQuery.aptags plugin - mouseclick submit from .ac_results list

    - by atmorell
    Hello, I am using jquery.autocomplete.js and jquery.apitags to select a few elements from a div (.ac_results) This works great, and I can select multiple elements etc. However the jquery-aptags plugin does only fire when enter is pressed. This might confuse some users if they use the mouse to click instead of the arrows/enter on the keyboard. I think this is the code inside jquery.aptags that submits the tag. // // Hook to the keypress event. // $(this).bind('keypress', { __c: __c }, function (e) { var c = ''; var i = 0; var v = $(this).val(); if (e.keyCode == 13) { e.stopPropagation(); e.preventDefault(); __createSpans(this, v, e.data.__c, true); } }); I am wondering if it is possible to call the method directly from a new event. $('.ac_results > ul > li').livequery(function() { $(this).bind('click', function() { $('#address_city'). //how do I fire the "enter" event from here? }); }); Any thoughts?

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  • Linq: Why won't Group By work when Querying DataSets?

    - by jrcs3
    While playing with Linq Group By statements using both DataSet and Linq-to-Sql DataContext, I get different results with the following VB.NET 10 code: #If IS_DS = True Then Dim myData = VbDataUtil.getOrdersDS #Else Dim myData = VbDataUtil.GetNwDataContext #End If Dim MyList = From o In myData.Orders Join od In myData.Order_Details On o.OrderID Equals od.OrderID Join e In myData.Employees On o.EmployeeID Equals e.EmployeeID Group By FullOrder = New With { .OrderId = od.OrderID, .EmployeeName = (e.FirstName & " " & e.LastName), .ShipCountry = o.ShipCountry, .OrderDate = o.OrderDate } _ Into Amount = Sum(od.Quantity * od.UnitPrice) Where FullOrder.ShipCountry = "Venezuela" Order By FullOrder.OrderId Select FullOrder.OrderId, FullOrder.OrderDate, FullOrder.EmployeeName, Amount For Each x In MyList Console.WriteLine( String.Format( "{0}; {1:d}; {2}: {3:c}", x.OrderId, x.OrderDate, x.EmployeeName, x.Amount)) Next With Linq2SQL, the grouping works properly, however, the DataSet code doesn't group properly. Here are the functions that I call to create the DataSet and Linq-to-Sql DataContext Public Shared Function getOrdersDS() As NorthwindDS Dim ds As New NorthwindDS Dim ota As New OrdersTableAdapter ota.Fill(ds.Orders) Dim otda As New Order_DetailsTableAdapter otda.Fill(ds.Order_Details) Dim eda As New EmployeesTableAdapter eda.Fill(ds.Employees) Return ds End Function Public Shared Function GetNwDataContext() As NorthwindL2SDataContext Dim s As New My.MySettings Return New NorthwindL2SDataContext(s.NorthwindConnectionString) End Function What am I missing? If it should work, how do I make it work, if it can't work, why not (what interface isn't implemented, etc)?

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  • Unable to use stored procs in a generic repository for the entity framework. (ASP.NET MVC 2)

    - by Matt
    Hi, I have a generic repository that uses the entity framework to manipulate the database. The original code is credited to Morshed Anwar's post on CodeProject. I've taken his code and modified is slightly to fit my needs. Unfortunately I'm unable to call an Imported Function because the function is only recognized for my specific instance of the entity framework public class Repository<E, C> : IRepository<E, C>, IDisposable where E : EntityObject where C : ObjectContext { private readonly C _ctx; public ObjectResult<MyObject> CallFunction() { // This does not work because "CallSomeImportedFunction" only works on // My object. I also cannot cast it (TrackItDBEntities)_ctx.CallSomeImportedFunction(); // Not really sure why though... but either way that kind of ruins the genericness off it. return _ctx.CallSomeImportedFunction(); } } Anyone know how I can make this work with the repository I already have? Or does anyone know a generic way of calling stored procedures with entity framework? Thanks, Matt

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  • Exception handling in biztalk 2006 R2

    - by IB
    Hello I have a Biztalk 2006 R2 project (used with ESB Guidance 1) I am calling from orchstration to a static method in c# code, this method uses a class to load a file data into xlang message body at part 0 When i pass filepath which doesnt exists the inside class catch the exception but dont throw it up (in the static method there is a catch block and in the orchstration there is the real handling of the exception) The static method is : public static XLANGMessage LoadFileIntoMessage(XLANGMessage message, string filePath,Encoding encoding) { try { IStreamFactory sf = new FileStreamFactory(filePath,encoding); message[0].LoadFrom(sf); return message; } catch (Exception ex) { throw ex; } } The Class which load the file stream is : private class FileStreamFactory : IStreamFactory { string _fname; Encoding _encoding; public FileStreamFactory(string fname,Encoding encoding) { _fname = fname; _encoding = encoding; } public Stream CreateStream() { try { StreamReader sr; sr = new StreamReader ( _fname, _encoding ); return sr.BaseStream; } catch (Exception ex) { throw ex; } } } I call the static method from the orchstration and expect to catch the exception in my orchstration after the class and the emthod gets it

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  • PHP (CodeIgniter) Pass Object Through Session

    - by FranticPedantic
    I am using PHP5 and CodeIgniter and I am trying to implement a single-sign on feature with facebook (although I don't think that facebook is relevant to the question). I am somewhat of a novice with PHP and definitely one with CodeIgniter, so if you think my approach is just completely off telling me that would be helpful too. So here is in short what I am doing: //Controller 1 $this->load->plugin("facebook"); $facebook = new Facebook(array ( 'appId' => $fbconfig['appid'], 'secret' => $fbconfig['secret'], 'cookie' => true, ) ); $fbsession = $facebook->getSession(); //works fine $this->session->set_userdata('facebook', serialize($facebook); Now I would like to grab that facebook object in a different controller. //Controller 2 $facebook = unserialize($this->session->userdata('facebook')); $fbsession = $facebook->getSession(); Produces the error: Call to undefined method getSession. So I look up more about serialization and think that maybe it just doesn't know what the facebook object's attributes are. So I add in a $this->load->plugin('facebook'); To controller 2 as well and I get a "Cannot redeclare class facebook." I am strongly suspecting that I am misunderstanding sessions here. Do I have to somehow tell PHP what kind of object it is? Thanks for the help.

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  • Java library class to handle scheduled execution of "callbacks"?

    - by Hanno Fietz
    My program has a component - dubbed the Scheduler - that lets other components register points in time at which they want to be called back. This should work much like the Unix cron service, i. e. you tell the Scheduler "notify me at ten minutes past every full hour". I realize there are no real callbacks in Java. Here's my approach, is there a library which already does this stuff? Feel free to suggest improvements, too. Register call to Scheduler passes: a time specification containing hour, minute, second, year month, dom, dow, where each item may be unspecified, meaning "execute it every hour / minute etc." (just like crontabs) an object containing data that will tell the calling object what to do when it is notified by the Scheduler. The Scheduler does not process this data, just stores it and passes it back upon notification. a reference to the calling object Upon startup, or after a new registration request, the Scheduler starts with a Calendar object of the current system time and checks if there are any entries in the database that match this point in time. If there are, they are executed and the process starts over. If there aren't, the time in the Calendar object is incremented by one second and the entreis are rechecked. This repeats until there is one entry or more that match(es). (Discrete Event Simulation) The Scheduler will then remember that timestamp, sleep and wake every second to check if it is already there. If it happens to wake up and the time has already passed, it starts over, likewise if the time has come and the jobs have been executed. Edit: Thanks for pointing me to Quartz. I'm looking for something much smaller, however.

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  • UISlider how to set the initial value

    - by slim
    I'm pretty new at this iphone dev stuff and i'm working on some existing code at a company. The uislider i'm trying to set the initial value on is actually in a UITableViewCell and is a custom control. I was thinking in the cell init cell = (QuantitiesCell *)[self loadCellWithNibName:@"QuantitiesCell" forTableView:ltableView withStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault]; i could just call something like ((QuantitiesCell *)cell).value = 5; The actual QuantitiesCell class has the member value and the following functions -(void)initCell;{ if (listOfValues == nil) { [self initListOfValues]; } quantitiesSLider.maximumValue = [listOfValues count]-1; quantitiesSLider.minimumValue = 0; quantitiesSLider.value = self.value; } -(void)initListOfValues;{ listOfValues = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:10]; int j =0; for (float i = minValue; i <= maxValue+increment; i=i+increment) { [listOfValues addObject:[NSNumber numberWithFloat: i]]; if (i == value) { quantitiesSLider.value = j; } j++; } } like i said, i'm pretty new at this so if i need to post more of the code to show whats going to get help, let me know, This slider always is defaulting to 1, the slider ranges usually from 1-10, and i want to set it to a specific value of the item i'm trying to edit.

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  • UIWebview does not show up into UINavigationController

    - by Pato
    Hi I have a tabBar application. In the first tab, I have a navigation bar. In this navigation bar I have a table view. When the user clicks a cell of the table, it goes to another table view, and when the user clicks a cell in that table, it goes to a webview to open a web page. Basically, it goes fine until opening the webview. In the webview, viewDidLoad is called and seems to work properly. However, webViewDidStartLoad is never called and the web page never shows up. I am not using IB. I build the UITabBarController in the AppDelegate, where I also assign an instance of my UINavigationController for each tab. I call the webview from the second UITableViewController as follows: rssWebViewController = [[webViews objectAtIndex: indexPath.row] objectForKey:@"controller"]; [[self navigationController] pushViewController:rssWebViewController animated:YES]; I have checked that the navigationController is there and it seems just fine. The viewDidload of my webview is as follows: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; NSString *urlAddress = self.storyUrl; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:urlAddress]; NSURLRequest *requestObj = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; [[self rssWebView] setDelegate: self]; [[self view] addSubview:[self rssWebView]]; [rssWebView loadRequest:requestObj]; self.rssWebView.scalesPageToFit = YES; self.rssWebView.autoresizingMask = (UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleWidth | UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleHeight); } The web view controller interface is defined as follows: @interface RSSWebViewController : UIViewController <UIWebViewDelegate>{ IBOutlet UIWebView *rssWebView; IBOutlet NSString *storyUrl; IBOutlet NSString *feedName; } @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UIWebView *rssWebView; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet NSString *storyUrl; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet NSString *feedName; @end Any help is greatly appreciated.

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  • How to parameterize a path in ANT?

    - by strelokstrelok
    I have the following defined in a file called build-dependencies.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <project name="build-dependencies"> ... <path id="common-jars"> <fileset file="artifacts/project-1/jar/some*.jar" /> <fileset file="artifacts/project-2/jar/someother*.jar" /> </path> ... </project> I include it at the top of my build.xml file. Now I need to make the artifacts folder a parameter so it can be changed during execution of different targets. Having this... <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <project name="build-dependencies"> ... <path id="common-jars"> <fileset file="${artifacts}/project-1/jar/some*.jar" /> <fileset file="${artifacts}/project-2/jar/someother*.jar" /> </path> ... </project> ...and defining an "artifacts" property (and changing it) in the target does not work because it seems that the property substitution happens when the path is defined in build-dependencies.xml How can I solve this? One way I was thinking was to have a parameterized macro and call that before the path is actually used, but that seems not elegant. Something like this: <macrodef name="create-common-jars"> <attribute name="artifacts"/> <sequential> <path id="common-jars"> <fileset file="@{artifacts}/project-1/jar/some*.jar" /> <fileset file="@{artifacts}/project-2/jar/someother*.jar" /> </path> </sequential> </macrodef>

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  • How to have a where clause on an insert or an update in Linq to Sql?

    - by Kelsey
    I am trying to convert the following stored proc to a LinqToSql call (this is a simplied version of the SQL): INSERT INTO [MyTable] ([Name], [Value]) SELECT @name, @value WHERE NOT EXISTS(SELECT [Value] FROM [MyTable] WHERE [Value] = @value) The DB does not have a constraint on the field that is getting checked for so in this specific case the check needs to be made manually. Also there are many items constantly being inserted as well so I need to make sure that when this specific insert happens there is no dupe of the value field. My first hunch is to do the following: using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope()) { if (Context.MyTables.SingleOrDefault(t => t.Value == in.Value) != null) { MyLinqModels.MyTable t = new MyLinqModels.MyTable() { Name = in.Name, Value = in.Value }; // Do some stuff in the transaction scope.Complete(); } } This is the first time I have really run into this scenario so I want to make sure I am going about it the right way. Does this seem correct or can anyone suggest a better way of going about it without having two seperate calls? Edit: I am running into a similar issue with an update: UPDATE [AnotherTable] SET [Code] = @code WHERE [ID] = @id AND [Code] IS NULL How would I do the same check with Linqtosql? I assume I need to do a get and then set all the values and submit but what if someone updates [Code] to something other than null from the time I do the get to when the update executes? Same problem as the insert...

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  • Updating a specific key/value inside of an array field with MongoDB

    - by Jesta
    As a preface, I've been working with MongoDB for about a week now, so this may turn out to be a pretty simple answer. I have data already stored in my collection, we will call this collection content, as it contains articles, news, etc. Each of these articles contains another array called author which has all of the author's information (Address, Phone, Title, etc). The Goal - I am trying to create a query that will update the author's address on every article that the specific author exists in, and only the specified author block (not others that exist within the array). Sort of a "Global Update" to a specific article that affects his/her information on every piece of content that exists. Here is an example of what the content with the author looks like. { "_id" : ObjectId("4c1a5a948ead0e4d09010000"), "authors" : [ { "user_id" : null, "slug" : "joe-somebody", "display_name" : "Joe Somebody", "display_title" : "Contributing Writer", "display_company_name" : null, "email" : null, "phone" : null, "fax" : null, "address" : null, "address2" : null, "city" : null, "state" : null, "zip" : null, "country" : null, "image" : null, "url" : null, "blurb" : null }, { "user_id" : null, "slug" : "jane-somebody", "display_name" : "Jane Somebody", "display_title" : "Editor", "display_company_name" : null, "email" : null, "phone" : null, "fax" : null, "address" : null, "address2" : null, "city" : null, "state" : null, "zip" : null, "country" : null, "image" : null, "url" : null, "blurb" : null }, ], "tags" : [ "tag1", "tag2", "tag3" ], "title" : "Title of the Article" } I can find every article that this author has created by running the following command: db.content.find({authors: {$elemMatch: {slug: 'joe-somebody'}}}); So theoretically I should be able to update the authors record for the slug joe-somebody but not jane-somebody (the 2nd author), I am just unsure exactly how you reach in and update every record for that author. I thought I was on the right track, and here's what I've tried. b.content.update( {authors: {$elemMatch: {slug: 'joe-somebody'} } }, {$set: {address: '1234 Avenue Rd.'} }, false, true ); I just believe there's something I am missing in the $set statement to specify the correct author and point inside of the correct array. Any ideas? **Update** I've also tried this now: b.content.update( {authors: {$elemMatch: {slug: 'joe-somebody'} } }, {$set: {'authors.$.address': '1234 Avenue Rd.'} }, false, true );

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  • calling template function without <>; type inference

    - by Oops
    Hi, if I have a function template with typename T, where the compiler can set the type by itself, I do not have to write the type explicitely when I call the function like: template < typename T > T min( T v1, T v2 ) { return ( v1 < v2 ) ? v1: v2; } int i1 = 1, i2 = 2; int i3 = min( i1, i2 ); //no explicit <type> but if I have a function template with two different typenames like... template < typename TOut, typename TIn > TOut round( TIn v ) { return (TOut)( v + 0.5 ); } double d = 1.54; int i = round<int>(d); //explicit <int> Is it true that I have to specify at least 1 typename, always? I assume the reason is because C++ can not distinguish functions between different return types, true? but if I use a void function and handover a reference, again I must not explicitely specify the return typename: template < typename TOut, typename TIn > void round( TOut & vret, TIn vin ) { vret = (TOut)(vin + 0.5); } double d = 1.54; int i; round(i, d); //no explicit <int> should the conclusion be to avoid functions with return and more prefer void functions that return via a reference when writing templates? Or is there a possibility to avoid explicitely writing the return type? something like "type inference" for templates... is "type inference" possible in C++0x? I hope I was not too unclear. many thanks in advance Oops

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  • Using JQuery with dynamically added controls (MVC)

    - by Mario
    I have a set of radio buttons that are dynamically generated (via JSON call): StringBuilder sbEligAll = new StringBuilder(); sbEligAll.Append("<div id='currentselectiondepartment'>"); sbEligAll.Append(" <input type='radio' name='selectalldepartment' id='radCurrent' value='0' /><label for='radCurrent'>Current</label>"); sbEligAll.Append(" <input type='radio' name='selectalldepartment' id='radFuture' value='1' /><label for='radFuture'>Future</label>"); sbEligAll.Append(" <input type='radio' name='selectalldepartment' id='radCurrentAll' value='2' /><label for='radCurrentAll'>Current All</label>"); sbEligAll.Append(" <input type='radio' name='selectalldepartment' id='radFutureAll' value='3' /><label for='radFutureAll'>Future All</label>"); sbEligAll.Append("</div>"); Then: return Json(new { TableList = sbElig.ToString() }, JsonRequestBehavior.AllowGet); Is there a way to get jQuery to be able to interact with these? For example: $("input[name=selectalldepartment]").change(function() { var str = $('input[name=selectalldepartment]:checked').val(); $(".radiolist[value='" + str + "']").attr("checked", true); }); I've tried everything I know how to do, but the jQuery just doesnt fire. (I've added alerts to the jQuery code to see if it actually gets called, and it does not). Any thoughts?! Thanks!

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  • Installing a Windows Service from a separate GUI - how to install .config file along with it?

    - by Shaul
    I have written a GUI (call it MyGUI) for ClickOnce deployment on any given client site. That GUI installs and configures a Windows Service (MyService), using the method described here by @Marc Gravell. Here's my code, run from inside MyGUI, which contains a reference to MyService: using (var inst = new AssemblyInstaller(typeof(MyService.Program).Assembly, new string[] { })) { IDictionary state = new Hashtable(); inst.UseNewContext = true; try { if (uninstall) { inst.Uninstall(state); } else { inst.Install(state); inst.Commit(state); } } catch { try { inst.Rollback(state); } catch { } throw; } } Take note of that first line: I'm grabbing the assembly for MyService, and installing that. Now, trouble is, the way I've done the deployment, I'm effectively referencing the service's EXE file from the GUI's app folder. So now the service fires up and starts looking for stuff in the MyService.config file, and can't find it, because it's living in someone else's app folder, with only the GUI's MyGUI.config file present. So, how do I get MyService.config to be available to the service?

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  • Serializing a DataType="time" field using XmlSerializer

    - by CraftyFella
    Hi, I'm getting an odd result when serializing a DateTime field using XmlSerializer. I have the following class: public class RecordExample { [XmlElement("TheTime", DataType = "time")] public DateTime TheTime { get; set; } [XmlElement("TheDate", DataType = "date")] public DateTime TheDate { get; set; } public static bool Serialize(Stream stream, object obj, Type objType, Encoding encoding) { try { using (var writer = XmlWriter.Create(stream, new XmlWriterSettings { Encoding = encoding })) { var xmlSerializer = new XmlSerializer(objType); if (writer != null) xmlSerializer.Serialize(writer, obj); } return true; } catch (Exception) { return false; } } } When i call the use the XmlSerializer with the following testing code: var obj = new RecordExample {TheDate = DateTime.Now.Date, TheTime = new DateTime(0001, 1, 1, 12, 00, 00)}; var ms = new MemoryStream(); RecordExample.Serialize(ms, obj, typeof (RecordExample), Encoding.UTF8); txtSource2.Text = Encoding.UTF8.GetString(ms.ToArray()); I get some strange results, here's the xml that is produced: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <RecordExample xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <TheTime>12:00:00.0000000+00:00</TheTime> <TheDate>2010-03-08</TheDate> </RecordExample> Any idea's how i can get the "TheTime" element to contain a time which looks more like this: <TheTime>12:00:00.0Z</TheTime> ...as that's what i was expecting? Thanks Dave

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  • RichFaces a4j:support parameter passing

    - by Mark Lewis
    Hello I have a number of rich:inplaceInput tags in RichFaces which represent numbers in an array. The validator allows integers only. When a user clicks in an input and changes a value, how can I get the bean to sort the array given the new number and reRender the list of rich:inplaceInput tags so that they're in numerical order? EG <a4j:region> <rich:dataTable value="#{MyBacking.config}" var="feed" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" width="100%" border="0" columns="5" id="Admin"> ... <a4j:repeat... <a4j:region id="MsgCon"> <rich:inplaceInput value="#{h.id}" validator="#{MyBacking.validateID}" id="andID" showControls="true"> <a4j:support event="onviewactivated" action="#{MyBacking.sort}" reRender="Admin" /> </rich:inplaceInput> </a4j:region> </a4j:repeat> </data:Table> </a4j:region> Note I do NOT want to use dataTable sort functions. The table is complicated and I've specified id="Admin" (ie the whole table) to reRender as I've not found a way to send more localised values to the backing bean through the inplaceInput. This question is about how to use a4j:support action attribute to call the sort method so that when the reRender rerenders the component, it outputs the list in sorted order. I have the sort method working ok when I click a button to sort, but I want to have the list sorted automatically as soon as a new valid value is entered into the inplaceInput component. Thanks

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  • PHP - Best practice to retain form values across postback

    - by Adam
    Hello, Complete PHP novice here, almost all my previous work was in ASP.NET. I am now working on a PHP project, and the first rock I have stumbled upon is retaining values across postback. For the most simple yet still realistic example, i have 10 dropdowns. They are not even databound yet, as that is my next step. They are simple dropdowns. I have my entire page inclosed in a tag. the onclick() event for each dropdown, calls a javascript function that will populate the corrosponding dropdowns hidden element, with the dropdowns selected value. Then, upon page reload, if that hidden value is not empty, i set the selected option = that of my hidden. This works great for a single postback. However, when another dropdown is changed, the original 1'st dropdown loses its value, due to its corrosponding hidden value losing its value as well! This draws me to look into using querystring, or sessions, or... some other idea. Could someone point me in the right direction, as to which option is the best in my situation? I am a PHP novice, however I am being required to do some pretty intense stuff for my skill level, so I need something flexable and preferribly somewhat easy to use. Thanks! -----edit----- A little more clarification on my question :) When i say 'PostBack' I am referring to the page/form being submitted. The control is passed back to the server, and the HTML/PHP code is executed again. As for the dropdowns & hiddens, the reason I used hidden variables to retain the "selected value" or "selected index", is so that when the page is submitted, I am able to redraw the dropdown with the previous selection, instead of defaulting back to the first index. When I use the $_POST[] command, I am unable to retrieve the dropdown by name, but I am able to retrieve the hidden value by name. This is why upon dropdown-changed event, I call javascript which sets the selected value from the dropdown into its corrosponding hidden.

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  • navigateToURL with GET parameters in local SWF

    - by Michael Brewer-Davis
    I'm running a Flex application locally (local-with-filesystem or local-trusted), and I'm trying to call navigateToURL to a local page using GET parameters. Flash Player seems to be ignoring the parameters when opening the local page, though. I've been scouring the Flash security pages to find a documented prohibition for this, but haven't found anything. Pointers? How would you work around this issue? My Flex app: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ private function onClick(event:MouseEvent):void { var request:URLRequest = new URLRequest("target.html"); request.data = new URLVariables(); request.data.text = "stackoverflow.com"; navigateToURL(request); } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:Button label="Go" click="onClick(event)" /> </mx:Application> And my target.html: <html> <head> <script language="JavaScript"> <!-- function showURL() { alert(window.location.href); } //--> </script> </head> <body onload="showURL()" /> </html>

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  • Fabric "TypeError: not all arguments converted during string formatting"

    - by Brian Carpio
    I have the following fabric task: @task def deploy_west_ec2_ami(name, puppetClass, size='m1.small', region='us-west-1', basedn='joe', ldap='arch-ldap-01', secret='secret', subnet='subnet-d43b8ab d', sgroup='sg-926578fe'): execute(deploy_ec2_ami, name='%s',puppetClass='%s',size='%s',region='%s',basedn='%s',ldap='%s',secret='%s',subnet='%s',sgroup='%s' %(name, puppetClass , size, region, basedn, ldap, secret, subnet, sgroup)) However when I run the command: fab deploy_west_ec2_ami:test,java I get the following Traceback: Traceback (most recent call last): File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/fabric/main.py", line 710, in main *args, **kwargs File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/fabric/tasks.py", line 321, in execute results['<local-only>'] = task.run(*args, **new_kwargs) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/fabric/tasks.py", line 113, in run return self.wrapped(*args, **kwargs) File "/home/bcarpio/Projects/githubenterprise/awsdeploy/fabfile.py", line 35, in deploy_west_ec2_ami execute(deploy_ec2_ami, name='%s',puppetClass='%s',size='%s',region='%s',basedn='%s',ldap='%s',secret='%s',subnet='%s',sgroup='%s' %(name, puppetClass, size, region, basedn, ldap, secret, subnet, sgroup)) TypeError: not all arguments converted during string formatting I am not sure I understand why. I am pretty sure I have all the values defined here just fine. Also when I run the execute task deploy_ec2_ami as so: deploy_ec2_ami:test,java,m1.small,us-west-1,'dc\=test\,dc\=net',ldap-01,secret,subnet-d43b8abd,sg-926578fe It works just fine

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  • Capistrano fails for multiple host deployments

    - by morris082
    I be at a loss here, and after scouring the seas (read: internet) for solutions I am left with none other than to hit up the stack. any help appreciated. I have capistrano running locally for deployments onto several different environments. (I'm on windows 7, fwiw). All was well until I needed to deploy to multiple :app servers during a single deployment. Usually I'm prompted for my ssh passphrase once when I call 'cap deploy'. I have ssh-agent running (git never pesters for my pass) but despite this Capistrano has always bugged me once each deployment. Regardless, it always worked when deploying to ONE host. Now, when I attempt to deploy to multiple servers at once, it asks for my passphrase what appears to be multiple times: (ips removed by ME) servers: ["redacted", "redacted"]<br /> Enter passphrase for ~/.ssh/id_rsa: Enter passphrase for ~/.ssh/id_rsa: So with the above I enter my passphrase but this doesn't work. It waits as little while, then spits out this error: connection failed for: <one of the server ips> (NoMethodError: undefined method `overwrite' for nil:NilClass) And that's the end of that. I can "passwordless" ssh into the servers I'm deploying on just fine. I'm pretty certain the ssh-agent is running since I can hit Git w/out entering my passphrase every time Using 'forward_agent' setting in cap deploy did not work. This is my role: role :app, "ip 1 removed", "ip 2 removed" If i set default_run_options[:max_hosts] = 1, it works OK but it asks for my passphrase for every single connection to each host I'm deploying to.. which ends up being a lot. Essentially I'm looking for any of the below (but not limited to): - "You're never going to fix that on windows" - "This is how you get REAL passwordless deployment in capistrano" - "Have you overlooked this setting/feature?" - "I have a rock that can fix anything, you may borrow it" Thanks!

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  • iPhone OS: Why is my managedModelObject not complying with Key Value Coding?

    - by nickthedude
    Ok so I'm trying to build this stat tracker for my app and I have built a data model object called statTracker that keeps track of all the stuff I want it to. I can set and retrieve values using the selectors, but if I try and use KVC (ie setValue: forKey: ) everything goes bad and says my StatTracker class is not KVC compliant: valueForUndefinedKey:]: the entity StatTracker is not key value coding-compliant for the key "timesLauched".' 2010-05-18 15:55:08.573 here's the code that is triggering it: NSArray *statTrackerArray = [[NSArray alloc] init]; statTrackerArray = [[CoreDataSingleton sharedCoreDataSingleton] getStatTracker]; NSNumber *number1 = [[NSNumber alloc] init]; number1 = [NSNumber numberWithInt:(1 + [[(StatTracker *)[statTrackerArray objectAtIndex:0] valueForKey:@"timesLauched"] intValue])]; [(StatTracker *)[statTrackerArray objectAtIndex:0] setValue:number1 forKey:@"timesLaunched" ]; NSError *error; if (![[[CoreDataSingleton sharedCoreDataSingleton] managedObjectContext] save:&error]) { NSLog(@"error writing to db"); } Not sure if this is enough code for you folks let me know what you need if you do need more. This would be so sweet if I could use KVC because I could then abstract all this stat tracking stuff into a single method call with a string argument for the value in question. At least that is what I hope to accomplish here. I'm actually now understanding the power of KVC but now I'm just trying to figure out how to make it work. Thanks! Nick

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  • check whether mmap'ed address is correct

    - by reddot
    I'm writing a high-loaded daemon that should be run on the FreeBSD 8.0 and on Linux as well. The main purpose of daemon is to pass files that are requested by their identifier. Identifier is converted into local filename/file size via request to db. And then I use sequential mmap() calls to pass file blocks with send(). However sometimes there are mismatch of filesize in db and filesize on filesystem (realsize < size in db). In this situation I've sent all real data blocks and when next data block is mapped -- mmap returns no errors, just usual address (I've checked errno variable also, it's equal to zero after mmap). And when daemon tries to send this block it gets Segmentation Fault. (This behaviour is guarantedly issued on FreeBSD 8.0 amd64) I was using safe check before open to ensure size with stat() call. However real life shows to me that segfault still can be raised in rare situtaions. So, my question is there a way to check whether pointer is accessible before dereferencing it? When I've opened core in gdb, gdb says that given address is out of bound. Probably there is another solution somebody can propose.

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  • http-post request for a long String in iOS

    - by onkar
    I am looking to send a very long String, which is an image that is encoded into a String. I need to send that information using POST method. I have implemented the same in Android using key-value pair, I need to implement the same in iOS using key-value pair. Please help me with useful resources/approach. EDIT 1 What have I tried [dictionnary setObject:@"admin" forKey:@"username"]; [dictionnary setObject:@"123123" forKey:@"password"]; NSError *error = nil; NSData *jsonData = [NSJSONSerialization dataWithJSONObject:dictionnary options:kNilOptions error:&error]; NSString *urlString = @"MY CALL URL"; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:urlString]; NSMutableURLRequest *request = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; [request setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [request setHTTPBody:jsonData]; NSURLResponse *response = NULL; NSError *requestError = NULL; NSData *responseData = [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:request returningResponse:&response error:&requestError]; NSLog(@"response is obtained"); NSString *responseString = [[NSString alloc] initWithData:responseData encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding] ; NSLog(@"%@", responseString); EDIT 2 Error I am getting Request Error Error Domain=kCFErrorDomainCFNetwork Code=303 "The operation couldn’t be completed. (kCFErrorDomainCFNetwork error 303.)" UserInfo=0x7ba0120 {NSErrorFailingURLKey=http://yahoo.com/, NSErrorFailingURLStringKey=http://yahoo.com/}

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