Search Results

Search found 22104 results on 885 pages for 'programming language'.

Page 779/885 | < Previous Page | 775 776 777 778 779 780 781 782 783 784 785 786  | Next Page >

• Little help with some (simple) Javascript code

  - by lerac

  I'm a newb when it comes to javascript. Perhaps somebody could help me with this. I assume it is not very complicated. This is what I would like: <SCRIPT type=text/javascript> var StandardURL = "http://site/Lists/test/AllItems.aspx"; </script> <SCRIPT type=text/javascript> var FilterURL = "http://site/Lists/test//AllItems.aspx?FilterField1=Judge&FilterValue1="; </script> var DynamicURL = FilterURL + DynamicUserInf (no space between it should be like one url link), dynamicuserinf contains different value depending on the user that is logged in no need to worry what is in it. It already contains a value befor this runs Get current URL in [var CurrentURL] <script language="JavaScript" type="text/javascript"> if (CurrentURL == StandardURL) { location.href= (DynamicURL);} </script> ElSE do nothing (i assume this is not neccarry with only one if statement) Hopefully not much of a mess.

  Read the article

• IBOutlet instances are (null) after loading from NIB

  - by Zach

  I am working on an iPhone app and am getting (null) references to IBOutlet fields in my controller. I have a UIViewController subclass that is set as the File's Owner in my XIB. I have a set of UI elements that are wired into the controller. After loading from NIB and attempting to set properties on those UI elements, I find that they are (null). To clarify, some code: ExpandSearchPageController.h: @interface ExpandSearchPageController : UIViewController { IBOutlet UITextView * completeMessageView; } -(void)checkTextField; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UITextView * completeMessageView; ExpandSearchPageController.m: @implementation ExpandSearchPageController @synthesize completeMessageView; -(void)checkTextField { NSLog(@"text field: %@",completeMessageView); } ExpandSearchPageController is set as the File's Owner for ExpandSearchPage.xib. ExpandSearchPage.xib's UITextView is wired to the completeMessageView. When I call ExpandSearchPageController * searchExpanderPage = [[ExpandSearchPageController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ExpandSearchPage" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; [searchExpanderPage checkTextField]; the result is "text field: (null)" Sorry if this is a total newb question, but I guess I'm still a newb at iPhone programming! Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• How to reference using Entity Framework and Asp.Net Mvc 2

  - by Picflight

  Tables CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Users]( [UserId] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [UserName] [varchar](50) COLLATE SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS NULL, [Email] [varchar](255) COLLATE SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS NULL, [BirthDate] [smalldatetime] NULL, [CountryId] [int] NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Users] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ([UserId] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] CREATE TABLE [dbo].[TeamMember]( [UserId] [int] NOT NULL, [TeamMemberUserId] [int] NOT NULL, [CreateDate] [smalldatetime] NOT NULL CONSTRAINT [DF_TeamMember_CreateDate] DEFAULT (getdate()), CONSTRAINT [PK_TeamMember] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ([UserId] ASC, [TeamMemberUserId] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] dbo.TeamMember has both UserId and TeamMemberUserId as the index key. My goal is to show a list of Users on my View. In the list I want to flag, or highlight the Users that are Team Members of the LoggedIn user. My ViewModel public class UserViewModel { public int UserId { get; private set; } public string UserName { get; private set; } public bool HighLight { get; private set; } public UserViewModel(Users users, bool highlight) { this.UserId = users.UserId; this.UserName = users.UserName; this.HighLight = highlight; } } View <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<MvcPaging.IPagedList<MyProject.Mvc.Models.UserViewModel>>" %> <% foreach (var item in Model) { %> <%= item.UserId %> <%= item.UserName %> <%if (item.HighLight) { %> Team Member <% } else { %> Not Team Member <% } %> How do I toggle the TeamMember or Not If I add dbo.TeamMember to the EDM, there are no relationships on this table, how will I wire it to Users object? So I am comparing the LoggedIn UserId with this list(SELECT TeamMemberUserId FROM TeamMember WHERE UserId = @LoggedInUserId)

  Read the article

• Are women worse developers than men? [closed]

  - by Ekaterina

  Hi people, I am a software engineer and a woman. I constantly keep hearing all these jokes around me, about women in programming. They (they - stands for male colleagues) keep pointing out the differences in thinking between men and women. The truth is that when I started working as a developer, my colleagues gave a hard time only because I am a woman. They automatically assumed that I want to do only html and styling, and didn't even me giving me the chance to do something different. I am a .NET programmer and I really disliked (and still dislike) front-end developing. I do agree men and women think differently, but I don't agree that necessarily is a bad thing. Different approach of problems/goals brings more ideas and diversity. I really believe that there are good developer and bad developers despite the male/female factor. I am curious to hear overall opinion though. Would you not hire a woman developer only because is a woman? Cheers!

  Read the article

• Submit form using javascript, work in FF but not in IE

  - by Permana

  I have this code. The code below is working in Firefox, but it is not in IE <body> <?php $data = getLoginData($_SESSION['whoyouare']); ?> <form name="frm_redirect_dfr" action="<?php echo $data['url']; ?>" method="POST" id="frm_redirect_dfr" style="display: none;"> <input name="DFRNet_User" value="<?php echo $data['username']; ?>" type="hidden" /> <input name="DFRNet_Pass" value="<?php echo $data['password']; ?>" type="hidden" /> <input name="tbllogin" value="login" type="hidden" /> <input type="submit" value="submit" /> </form> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> document.forms["frm_redirect_dfr"].submit(); </script> </body> What I want to do is, when user access the page, it first will try to get login data, echo it in the form, and submit the form automatically using javascript

  Read the article

• Why doesn't my test run tearDownAfterTestClass when it fails

  - by Memor-X

  in a test i am writing the setUpBeforeTests creates a new customer in the database who is then used to perform the tests with so naturally when i finish the test i should get rid of this test customer in tearDownAfterTestClass so that i can create then anew when i rerun the test and not get any false positives how when the tests all run fine i have no problem but if a test fails and i go to rerun it my setUpBeforeTests fails because i check for mysql errors in it like this try { if(!mysqli_query($connection,$query)) { $this->assertTrue(false); } } catch (Exception $exc) { $msg = '[tearDownAfterTestClass] Exception Error' . PHP_EOL . PHP_EOL; $msg .= 'Could not run query - '.mysqli_error($connection). PHP_EOL;; $this->fail($msg); } the error i get is that there is a primary key violation which is expected cause i'm trying to create a new customer using the same data (primary key is on email which is also used to log in) however that means when the test failed it didn't run tearDownAfterTestClass now i could just move everything in tearDownAfterTestClass to the start of setUpBeforeTests however to me that seems like bad programming since it defeates the purpose of even have tearDownAfterTestClass so i am wondering, why isn't my tearDownAfterTestClass running when a test fails NOTE: the database is a fundamental part of the system i'm testing and the database and system are on a separate development environment not the live one, the backup files for the database are almost 2 GBs and takes almost 1/2 an hour to restore, the purpose of the tear down is to remove any data we have added because of the test so that we don't have to restore the database every time we run the tests

  Read the article

• Scala and Java BigDecimal

  - by geejay

  I want to switch from Java to a scripting language for the Math based modules in my app. This is due to the readability, and functional limitations of mathy Java. For e.g, in Java I have this: BigDecimal x = new BigDecimal("1.1"); BigDecimal y = new BigDecimal("1.1"); BigDecimal z = x.multiply(y.exp(new BigDecimal("2")); As you can see, without BigDecimal operator overloading, simple formulas get complicated real quick. With doubles, this looks fine, but I need the precision. I was hoping in Scala I could do this: var x = 1.1; var y = 0.1; print(x + y); And by default I would get decimal-like behaviour, alas Scala doesn't use decimal calculation by default. Then I do this in Scala: var x = BigDecimal(1.1); var y = BigDecimal(0.1); println(x + y); And I still get an imprecise result. Is there something I am not doing right in Scala? Maybe I should use Groovy to maximise readability (it uses decimals by default)?

  Read the article

• Catch a thread's exception in the caller thread in Python

  - by Mikee

  Hi Everyone, I'm very new to Python and multithreaded programming in general. Basically, I have a script that will copy files to another location. I would like this to be placed in another thread so I can output "...." to indicate that the script is still running. The problem that I am having is that if the files cannot be copied it will throw an exception. This is ok if running in the main thread; however, having the following code does not work: try: threadClass = TheThread(param1, param2, etc.) threadClass.start() ##### **Exception takes place here** except: print "Caught an exception" In the thread class itself, I tried to re-throw the exception, but it does not work. I have seen people on here ask similar questions, but they all seem to be doing something more specific than what I am trying to do (and I don't quite understand the solutions offered). I have seen people mention the usage of sys.exc_info(), however I do not know where or how to use it. All help is greatly appreciated! EDIT: The code for the thread class is below: class TheThread(threading.Thread): def __init__(self, sourceFolder, destFolder): threading.Thread.__init__(self) self.sourceFolder = sourceFolder self.destFolder = destFolder def run(self): try: shul.copytree(self.sourceFolder, self.destFolder) except: raise

  Read the article

• can javascript process binary data?

  - by Johnny

  admit me describe my questions in situation-oriented way: assume IE is still the dominate web browser(the firefox have document for binary processing): the XMLHttpRequest.responseText or XMLHttpRequest.responseXML in ie desire txt or xml/xhtml/html,but what about the server response the xmlHttprequest whith MIME TYPE application/octet ? would the response string all little than 256 ?(every char of that string < 256), thanks very much for a straight answer, i have no webserver env,so i don't know how to test it out. because use txt or xml have a issue of character set encode, and i don't know how to process #[[[CDDATA node of one encoded xml(ex : utf-8,ascii,gb18030) with javascript, when i getNodeText, does the docObj return me byte or decoded char ? if it was decoded char which according to the header indicated charSet in the httpresponse , it would be all wrong. to avoid mess up with charSet ,i would like the server to response octet data and force strings data to be encoded as utf-8 but another charSet in the binary format. if the response is octal, so i guess the browser would not try to decode the response"txt" does this weird? or miss understanding the fundamental things? EDIT: I believe the question is asking this: Can Javascript safely process strings that aren't encoded in Unicode? What are the problems with trying to do so? EDIT: no no no , i means if http-header: content-type is "application/octet" , would the ie try to decoded it as (16bits Unicode | ie local setting charset ) when i get XMLHttpRequestobj.responseText use javascript ? or it(ie) just wrap every single byte of the response body as a javascript string, then every char in that string little than or equal 256 (char<=256), am i talking Mars language? sadly, if i were Marsizen,i would come as tourist without fuzzy questions. however i am in a country which share at least one property with Mars : RED

  Read the article

• Checking for nil in view in Ruby on Rails

  - by seaneshbaugh

  I've been working with Rails for a while now and one thing I find myself constantly doing is checking to see if some attribute or object is nil in my view code before I display it. I'm starting to wonder if this is always the best idea. My rationale so far has been that since my application(s) rely on user input unexpected things can occur. If I've learned one thing from programming in general it's that users inputting things the programmer didn't think of is one of the biggest sources of run-time errors. By checking for nil values I'm hoping to sidestep that and have my views gracefully handle the problem. The thing is though I typically for various reasons have similar nil or invalid value checks in either my model or controller code. I wouldn't call it code duplication in the strictest sense, but it just doesn't seem very DRY. If I've already checked for nil objects in my controller is it okay if my view just assumes the object truly isn't nil? For attributes that can be nil that are displayed it makes sense to me to check every time, but for the objects themselves I'm not sure what is the best practice. Here's a simplified, but typical example of what I'm talking about: controller code def show @item = Item.find_by_id(params[:id]) @folders = Folder.find(:all, :order => 'display_order') if @item == nil or @item.folder == nil redirect_to(root_url) and return end end view code <% if @item != nil %> display the item's attributes here <% if @item.folder != nil %> <%= link_to @item.folder.name, folder_path(@item.folder) %> <% end %> <% else %> Oops! Looks like something went horribly wrong! <% end %> Is this a good idea or is it just silly?

  Read the article

• ASP.NET MVC editor template for property

  - by Idsa

  Usually I render my forms by @Html.RenderModel, but this time I have a complex rendering logic and I render it manually. I decided to create a editor template for one property. Here is the code (copy pasted from default object editor template implementation): <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl" %> <% var modelMetadata = ViewData.ModelMetadata; %> <% if (modelMetadata.HideSurroundingHtml) { %> <%= Html.Editor(modelMetadata.PropertyName) %> <% } else { %> <% if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(Html.Label(modelMetadata.PropertyName).ToHtmlString())) { %> <div class="editor-label"><%= Html.Label(modelMetadata.PropertyName) %></div> <% } %> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.Editor(modelMetadata.PropertyName) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage(modelMetadata.PropertyName) %> </div> <% } %> And here is how I use it: @Html.EditorFor(x => x.SomeProperty, "Property") //"Property" is template above But it didn't work: labels are rendered regardless of DisplayName and editors are not rendered at all (in Watches Html.Editor(modelMetadata.PropertyName shows empty string). What am I doing wrong?

  Read the article

• Obfuscating ASP.Net dll breaks web application.

  - by uriDium

  I wouldn't usually bother to obfuscate a web application DLL but right now I have to share some server space with someone who might have a conflict of interest and might be tempted to steal the deal and decompile it. Not an ideal solution I know but hey. So I am using VS 2005, a web deployment project (which compiles into a single DLL) and Dotfuscator community edition. When I obfuscate the DLL the web application breaks and I get some message like Could not load type 'Browse' from assembly MyAssembly So I searched around and found that if I disable renaming then it should fix it. Which it does. But now when I look at the DLL using .Net reflector I can see everything again. So this seems kind of pointless. Is there a way to get this to work? Is there a better way to protect my DLL from someone I have to share a server with? UPDATE: I figured out my problem. All the classnames have changed but now all my <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="mycode.aspx.cs" Inherits="mycode" % is incorrect because mycode no longer exists. It is now aef or something. Is there any tool out there that will also change the names of the Codefile and Inherits tags?

  Read the article

• Question about cloning in Java

  - by devoured elysium

  In Effective Java, the author states that: If a class implements Cloneable, Object's clone method returns a field-by-field copy of the object; otherwise it throws CloneNotSupportedException. What I'd like to know is what he means with field-by-field copy. Does it mean that if the class has X bytes in memory, it will just copy that piece of memory? If yes, then can I assume all value types of the original class will be copied to the new object? class Point { private int x; private int y; @Override public Point clone() { return (Point)super.clone(); } } If what Object.clone() does is a field by field copy of the Point class, I'd say that I wouldn't need to explicitly copy fields x and y, being that the code shown above will be more than enough to make a clone of the Point class. That is, the following bit of code is redundant: @Override public Point clone() { Point newObj = (Point)super.clone(); newObj.x = this.x; //redundant newObj.y = this.y; //redundant } Am I right? I know references of the cloned object will point automatically to where the original object's references pointed to, I'm just not sure what happens specifically with value types. If anyone could state clearly what Object.clone()'s algorithm specification is (in easy language) that'd be great. Thanks

  Read the article

• Why Illegal cookies are send by Browser and received by web servers (rfc2109)?

  - by Artyom

  Hello, According to RFC 2109 cookie's value can be either HTTP token or quoted string, and token can't include non-ASCII characters. Cookie's RFC 2109: http://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc2109#page-3 HTTP's RFC 2068 token definition: http://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc2068#page-16 However I had found that Firefox browser (3.0.6) sends cookies with utf-8 string as-is and three web servers I tested (apache2, lighttpd, nginx) pass this string as-is to the application. For example, raw request from browser: $ nc -l -p 8080 GET /hello HTTP/1.1 Host: localhost:8080 User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (X11; U; Linux x86_64; en-US; rv:1.9.0.9) Gecko/2009050519 Firefox/2.0.0.13 (Debian-3.0.6-1) Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language: en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: windows-1255,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 300 Connection: keep-alive Cookie: wikipp=1234; wikipp_username=?????? Cache-Control: max-age=0 And raw response of apache, nginx and lighttpd HTTP_COOKIE CGI variable: wikipp=1234; wikipp_username=?????? What do I miss? Can somebody explain me?

  Read the article

• Why doesn't C# do "simple" type inference on generics?

  - by Ken Birman

  Just curious: sure, we all know that the general case of type inference for generics is undecidable. And so C# won't do any kind of subtyping at all: if Foo<T> is a generic, Foo<int> isn't a subtype of Foo<T>, or Foo<Object> or of anything else you might cook up. And sure, we all hack around this with ugly interface or abstract class definitions. But... if you can't beat the general problem, why not just limit the solution to cases that are easy. For example, in my list above, it is OBVIOUS that Foo<int> is a subtype of Foo<T> and it would be trivial to check. Same for checking against Foo<Object>. So is there some other deep horror that would creep forth from the abyss if they were to just say, aw shucks, we'll do what we can? Or is this just some sort of religious purity on the part of the language guys at Microsoft?

  Read the article

• How can I reorder an mbox file chronologically?

  - by Joshxtothe4

  Hello, I have a single spool mbox file that was created with evolution, containing a selection of emails that I wish to print. My problem is that the emails are not placed into the mbox file chronologically. I would like to know the best way to place order the files from first to last using bash, perl or python. I would like to oder by received for files addressed to me, and sent for files sent by me. Would it perhaps be easier to use maildir files or such? The emails currently exist in the format: From [email protected] Fri Aug 12 09:34:09 2005 Message-ID: <[email protected]> Date: Fri, 12 Aug 2005 09:34:09 +0900 From: me <[email protected]> User-Agent: Mozilla Thunderbird 1.0.6 (Windows/20050716) X-Accept-Language: en-us, en MIME-Version: 1.0 To: someone <[email protected]> Subject: Re: (no subject) References: <[email protected]> In-Reply-To: <[email protected]> Content-Type: text/plain; charset=ISO-8859-1; format=flowed Content-Transfer-Encoding: 8bit Status: RO X-Status: X-Keywords: X-UID: 371 X-Evolution-Source: imap://[email protected]/ X-Evolution: 00000002-0010 Hey the actual content of the email someone wrote: > lines of quotedtext I am wondering if there is a way to use this information to easily reorganize the file, perhaps with perl or such.

  Read the article

• Regex: match a non nested code block

  - by Sylvanas Garde

  I am currently writing a small texteditor. With this texteditor users are able to create small scripts for a very simple scripting engine. For a better overview I want to highlight codeblocks with the same command like GoTo(x,y) or Draw(x,y). To achieve this I want to use Regular Expresions (I am already using it to highlight other things like variables) Here is my Expression (I know it's very ugly): /(?<!GoTo|Draw|Example)(^(?:GoTo|Draw|Example)\(.+\)*?$)+(?!GoTo|Draw|Example)/gm It matches the following: lala GoTo(5656) -> MATCH 1 sdsd GoTo(sdsd) --comment -> MATCH 2 GoTo(23329); -> MATCH 3 Test() GoTo(12) -> MATCH 4 LALA Draw(23) -> MATCH 5 Draw(24) -> MATCH 6 Draw(25) -> MATCH 7 But what I want to achieve is, that the complete "blocks" of the same command are matched. In this case Match 2 & 4 and Match 5 & 6 & 7 should be one match. Tested with http://regex101.com/, the programming lanuage is vb.net. Any advise would be very useful, Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• Using C code in c#

  - by karthik

  When i googled to find the way to change the window style i could find the code in "C" language How can i use the snippet below in my c# application, so that i can hide the Title Bar of external application ? I have not used "C" before.. //Finds a window by class name [DllImport("USER32.DLL")] public static extern IntPtr FindWindow(string lpClassName, string lpWindowName); //Sets a window to be a child window of another window [DllImport("USER32.DLL")] public static extern IntPtr SetParent(IntPtr hWndChild, IntPtr hWndNewParent); //Sets window attributes [DllImport("USER32.DLL")] public static extern int SetWindowLong(IntPtr hWnd, int nIndex, int dwNewLong); //Gets window attributes [DllImport("USER32.DLL")] public static extern int GetWindowLong(IntPtr hWnd, int nIndex); //assorted constants needed public static int GWL_STYLE = -16; public static int WS_CHILD = 0x40000000; //child window public static int WS_BORDER = 0x00800000; //window with border public static int WS_DLGFRAME = 0x00400000; //window with double border but no title public static int WS_CAPTION= WS_BORDER | WS_DLGFRAME; //window with a title bar /* This function sets the parent of the window with class ClassClass to the form/control the method is in. */ public void Reparent() { //get handle of parent form (.net property) IntPtr par = this.Handle; //get handle of child form (win32) IntPtr child = FindWindow("ClassClass", null); //set parent of child form SetParent(child, par); //get current window style of child form int style = GetWindowLong(child, GWL_STYLE); //take current window style and remove WS_CAPTION from it SetWindowLong(child, GWL_STYLE, (style & ~WS_CAPTION)); }

  Read the article

• Creating futures using Apple's GCD

  - by jer

  I'm working on a library which implements the actor model on top of Grand Central Dispatch (specifically the C level API libdispatch). Basically a brief overview of my system is as such: Communication happens between actors using messages Multicast communication only (one actor to many actors) Senders and receivers are decoupled from one another using a blackboard where messages are pushed to. Messages are sent in the default queue asynchronously using dispatch_group_async() once a message gets pushed onto the blackboard. I'm trying to implement futures in the language right now, so I've created a new type which holds some information: A group of its own The value being 'returned' However, I have a problem since dispatch_block_t is of type void (^)(void) so it doesn't return anything. So my idea of in my future_new() function of setting up another group which can be used to execute a block returning a result, which I can store in my "value" member in my future_t structure, isn't going to work. The rest of the futures implementation is very clear, except it all depends on being able to get the value into the future back from the actor, acting on the message. When using the library, it would greatly reduce its usefulness if I had to ask users (and myself) to be aware when futures were going to be used by other parts of the system—It just isn't practical. I'm wondering if anyone can think of a way around this?

  Read the article

• PHP Socket Server vs node.js: Web Chat

  - by Eliasdx

  I want to program a HTTP WebChat using long-held HTTP requests (Comet), ajax and websockets (depending on the browser used). Userdatabase is in mysql. Chat is written in PHP except maybe the chat stream itself which could also be written in javascript (node.js): I don't want to start a php process per user as there is no good way to send the chat messages between these php childs. So I thought about writing an own socket server in either PHP or node.js which should be able to handle more then 1000 connections (chat users). As a purely web developer (php) I'm not much familiar with sockets as I usually let web server care about connections. The chat messages won't be saved on disk nor in mysql but in RAM as an array or object for best speed. As far as I know there is no way to handle multiple connections at the same time in a single php process (socket server), however you can accept a great amount of socket connections and process them successive in a loop (read and write; incoming message - write to all socket connections). The problem is that there will most-likely be a lag with ~1000 users and mysql operations could slow the whole thing down which will then affect all users. My question is: Can node.js handle a socket server with better performance? Node.js is event-based but I'm not sure if it can process multiple events at the same time (wouldn't that need multi-threading?) or if there is just an event queue. With an event queue it would be just like php: process user after user. I could also spawn a php process per chat room (much less users) but afaik there are singlethreaded IRC servers which are also capable to handle thousands of users. (written in c++ or whatever) so maybe it's also possible in php. I would prefer PHP over Node.js because then the project would be php-only and not a mixture of programming languages. However if Node can process connections simultaneously I'd probably choose it.

  Read the article

• How to call a function from another class file

  - by Guy Parker

  I am very familiar with writing VB based applications but am new to Xcode (and Objective C). I have gone through numerous tutorials on the web and understand the basics and how to interact with Interface Builder etc. However, I am really struggling with some basic concepts of the C language and would be grateful for any help you can offer. Heres my problem… I have a simple iphone app which has a view controller (FirstViewController) and a subview (SecondViewController) with associated header and class files. In the FirstViewController.m have a function defined @implementation FirstViewController (void) writeToServer:(const uint8_t ) buf { [oStream write:buf maxLength:strlen((char)buf)]; } It doesn't really matter what the function is. I want to use this function in my SecondViewController, so in SecondViewController.m I import FirstViewController.h import "SecondViewController.h" import "FirstViewController.h" @implementation SecondViewController -(IBAction) SetButton: (id) sender { NSString *s = [@"Fill:" stringByAppendingString: FillLevelValue.text]; NSString *strToSend = [s stringByAppendingString: @":"]; const uint8_t *str = (uint8_t *) [strToSend cStringUsingEncoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding]; FillLevelValue.text = strToSend; [FirstViewController writeToServer:str]; } This last line is where my problem is. XCode tells me that FirstViewController may not respond to writeToServer. And when I try to run the application it crashes when this function is called. I guess I don't fully understand how to share functions and more importantly, the relationship between classes. In an ideal world I would create a global class to place my functions in and call them as required. Any advice gratefully received.

  Read the article

• [Javascript] Linux Ajax (mootools Request.JSON) Header error

  - by VDVLeon

  Hi all, I use the following code to get some json data: var request = new Request.JSON( { 'url': sourceURI, 'onSuccess': onPageData } ); request.get(); Request.JSON is a class from Mootools (a javascript library). But on linux (ubuntu on firefox 3.5 and Chrome) the request always fails. So i tried to display the http request ajax is sending. (I used netcat to display it) The request is like this: OPTIONS /the+url HTTP/1.1 Host: example.com Connection: keep-alive User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (X11; U; Linux i686; en-US) AppleWebKit/532.3 (KHTML, like Gecko) Chrome/4.0.226.0 Safari/532.3 Referer: http://example.com/ref... Access-Control-Request-Method: GET Origin: http://example.com Access-Control-Request-Headers: X-Request, X-Requested-With, Accept Accept: */* Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Language: en-US,en;q=0.8 Accept-Charset: ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.3 The HTTP request (first line) is not how it should be: OPTIONS /the+url HTTP/1.1 It should be: GET /the+url HTTP/1.1 Does anybody know why this problem is and how to fix it?

  Read the article

• How to convert many thousands of lines of VBScript to C#?

  - by Ross Patterson

  I have a collection of about 10,000 small VBScript programs (50-100 lines each) and a small collection of larger ones, and I'm looking for a way to convert them to C# without resorting to by-hand transliteration. The programs are automated test cases for a web application, written for HP/Mercury's QuickTest Pro, and I'm trying to turn them into test cases for Selenium. Luckily, the tests appear to be well-written, using a library of building blocks and idioms (the larger programs), so the test cases actually resemble a domain-specific language more than they do VBScript, and the QTP-ness is well-buried inside the libraries. Ideally, what I'm searching for is a tool that can do the syntactic transformation from VBScript to C# for both the dsl-ish test cases and also the more complicated building-block libraries. That would leave me with a manual cleanup of the libraries, and probably very little work on the test cases. If I could find a VBScript-to-VB.NET translator, I'd take that also, as I suspect I could compile the VB.NET and then de-compile to C# using .NET Relector or something similar. Plan B is to write a translator of my own for the test cases, since they're in a very straight-line style, but it wouldn't help with the libraries. Any suyggestions? I haven't written a compiler in at least 15 years, and while I haven't forgotten how, I'm not looking forward to it - least of all for VBScript!

  Read the article

• problem with image gallery using fancybox jquery

  - by Alexander

  I am trying to use fancybox for one of my image galery and my code is the following.. this is the code for my Gallery.aspx where it inherits from a master page... For some reason it doesn't work.. can you guys tell me what the problem is? <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Global.Master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="Gallery.aspx.cs" Inherits="Permias.Gallery" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="head" runat="server"> <script src="jquery.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="./fancybox/jquery.fancybox-1.3.1.pack.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="./fancybox/jquery.easing-1.3.pack.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="./fancybox/jquery.mousewheel-3.0.2.pack.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" href="./fancybox/jquery.fancybox-1.3.1.css" type="text/css" media="screen" /> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content3" ContentPlaceHolderID="splash" runat="server"> <div id="splash">&nbsp;</div> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder1" runat="server"> <a class="grouped_elements" rel="group1" href="http://farm5.static.flickr.com/4058/4252054277_f0fa91e026.jpg"><img src="http://farm5.static.flickr.com/4058/4252054277_f0fa91e026.jpg" alt=""/></a> </asp:Content>

  Read the article

• MS Word opens documents hosted on WebDav share read-only on Windows Vista and 7 but only if no other

  - by rjmunro

  We have a WebDav server with some Word documents on it. (We are using PHP's HTTP_WebDAV_Server but get the same issue on tests with Apache mod_dav - both use digest authentication, basic auth doesn't work on Vista or later) We have a web page that opens the word documents using javascript like: Doc = new ActiveXObject("Sharepoint.OpenDocuments.3"); Doc.EditDocument(url, 'Word.Document'); which causes word to connect to the webdav server and open the document, bypassing IE and most of windows built in WebDav client. On Windows XP, this works perfectly, and (after prompting you to log in) allows you to edit the word document and save it back to the server. On Windows 7 and Windows Vista, this usually opens the document read only, but not in all cases. After quite a bit of trial and error, we found that it worked (i.e. opened read/write) if Explorer happened to be already connected to a WebDav server. Note that this works with any Webdav server, not neccesarily the one with the document that you are trying to edit. So other than telling our users to change settings on their machine, is there anything we can do in the javascript sharepoint call, or on the WebDav server that will fix this issue. Ps. We have the same problem when launching Word from an HTA file version of our system, with javascript like: wordApp = new ActiveXObject("Word.application"); wordApp = new ActiveXObject("Word.application"); wordApp.Visible = true; doc = wordApp.Documents.Open(url); Pps. Sorry if you think this question should be on Serverfault (or even SuperUser). I couldn't decide, but because we are programming the WebDav server ourself (in PHP) and I have more rep on this site than the others, I decided to post it here :-)

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 775 776 777 778 779 780 781 782 783 784 785 786  | Next Page >