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  • JSON or YAML encoding in GWT/Java on both client and server

    - by KennethJ
    I'm looking for a super simple JSON or YAML library (not particularly bothered which one) written in Java, and can be used in both GWT on the client, and in its original Java form on the server. What I'm trying to do is this: I have my models, which are shared between the client and the server, and these are the primary source of data interchange. I want to design the web service in between to be as simple as possible, and decided to take the RESTful approach. My problem is that I know our application will grow substantially in the future, and writing all the getters, setters, serialization, factories, etc. by hand fills me with absolute dread. So in order to avoid it, I decided to implement annotations to keep track of attributes on the models. The reason I can't just serialize everything directly, using GWT's own one, or one which works through reflection, is because we need a certain amount of logic going on in the serialization process. I.e. whether references to other models get serialized during the serialization of the original model, or whether an ID is just passed, and general simple things like that. I've then written an annotation processor to preprocess my shared models and generate an implementing class with all the getters, setters, serialization, lazy-loading, etc. To make a long story short, I need some type of simple YAML or JSON library, which allows me to encode and decode manually, so I can generate this code through my annotation processor. I have had a look around the interwebs, but every single one I ran into supported some reflection which, while all fine and dandy, make it pretty much useless for GWT. And in the case of GWT's own JSON library, it uses JSNI for speed purposes, making it useless server side. One solution I did think about involved writing writing two sets of serialization methods on the models, one for the client and one for the server, but I'd rather not do that. Also, I'm pretty new to GWT, and even though I have done a lot of Java, it was back in the 1.2 days, so it's a bit rusty. So if you think I'm going about this problem completely the wrong way, I'm open to suggestions.

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  • What is a proper way to store site-level global variables in a SharePoint site?

    - by ccomet
    One thing that has driven me nuts about SharePoint2007 is the apparent inability to have defineable settings that apply specifically to a site or site collection itself, and not the content. I mean, you have some pre-defined settings like the Site Logo, the Site Name, and various other things, but there doesn't appear to be anywhere to add new kinds of settings. The application I am working on needs to be able to create multiple kinds of "project site collections" that all follow a basic template, but have certain additional settings that apply specifically to that site collection and that one alone. In addition to the standard site name we also need to define the Project Number, the Project Name, and the Client Name. And given the requests of some of our clients, we also reach a point where we have to have configurable settings that alter how some of the workflows work, like whether files are marked with Letters or Numbers. Our current solution, which I'm hesitant about, has been to store an XML file on the SharePoint server. This file contains one node for each site collection, identified by the URL of the root site. Inside the node are all of the elements that need to be defined for that site collection. When we need them, we have to access the XML file (which will always require SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges to access files right on the server) every time to load it and retrieve the data. There are a lot of automated processes which will have to do this, and I'm hesitant about the stability of this method when we reach hundreds of sites with thousands of files running tens of thousands of workflows, all wanting to access this file. Maybe they're unfounded worries, but I'd rather worry than risk everything breaking in a couple years. I was looking into the SPWeb object and found the AllProperties hashtable. It looks like just the kind of thing which might work, but I don't know how safe it is to be modifying this. I read through both MSDN and the WSS SDK but found nothing that clarified on adding completely new properties into AllProperties. Is it safe to use AllProperties for this kind of thing? Or is there yet another feature that I am missing, which could handle the concept of global variables at the site collection or site scope?

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  • Unset/Change Binding in WPF

    - by captcalamares
    How can I unset the binding applied to an object so that I can apply another binding to it from a different location? Suppose I have two data templates binded to the same object reference. Data Template #1 is the default template to be loaded. I try to bind a button command to a Function1 from my DataContext class: <Button Content="Button 1" CommandParameter="{Binding }" Command="{Binding DataContext.Function1, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}"/> This actually works and the function gets binded. However, when I try to load Data Template # 2 to the same object (while trying to bind another button command to a different function (Function2) from my DataContext class): <Button Content="Button 2" CommandParameter="{Binding }" Command="{Binding DataContext.Function2, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}" /> It doesn't work and the first binding is still the one executed. Is there a workaround to this? EDIT (for better problem context): I defined my templates in my Window.Resources: <Window.Resources> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type local:ViewModel1}"> <local:View1 /> </DataTemplate> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type local:ViewModel2}"> <local:View2 /> </DataTemplate> </Window.Resources> The View1.xaml and the View2.xaml contain the button definitions that I described above (I want them to command the control of my process flow). ViewModel1 and ViewModel2 are my ViewModels that implement the interface IPageViewModel which is the type of my variable CurrentPageViewModel. In my XAML, I binded ContentControl to the variable CurrentPageViewModel: <ContentControl Content="{Binding CurrentPageViewModel}" HorizontalAlignment="Center"/> In my .CS, I have a list defined as List<IPageViewModel> PageViewModels, which I use to contain the instances of my two View Models: PageViewModels.Add(new ViewModel1()); PageViewModels.Add(new ViewModel2()); // Set starting page CurrentPageViewModel = PageViewModels[0]; When I try to change my CurrentPageViewModel to the other view model, this is when I want the new binding to work. Unfortunately, it doesn't. Am I doing things the right way?

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  • Precise explanation of JavaScript <-> DOM circular reference issue

    - by Joey Adams
    One of the touted advantages of jQuery.data versus raw expando properties (arbitrary attributes you can assign to DOM nodes) is that jQuery.data is "safe from circular references and therefore free from memory leaks". An article from Google titled "Optimizing JavaScript code" goes into more detail: The most common memory leaks for web applications involve circular references between the JavaScript script engine and the browsers' C++ objects' implementing the DOM (e.g. between the JavaScript script engine and Internet Explorer's COM infrastructure, or between the JavaScript engine and Firefox XPCOM infrastructure). It lists two examples of circular reference patterns: DOM element → event handler → closure scope → DOM DOM element → via expando → intermediary object → DOM element However, if a reference cycle between a DOM node and a JavaScript object produces a memory leak, doesn't this mean that any non-trivial event handler (e.g. onclick) will produce such a leak? I don't see how it's even possible for an event handler to avoid a reference cycle, because the way I see it: The DOM element references the event handler. The event handler references the DOM (either directly or indirectly). In any case, it's almost impossible to avoid referencing window in any interesting event handler, short of writing a setInterval loop that reads actions from a global queue. Can someone provide a precise explanation of the JavaScript ↔ DOM circular reference problem? Things I'd like clarified: What browsers are effected? A comment in the jQuery source specifically mentions IE6-7, but the Google article suggests Firefox is also affected. Are expando properties and event handlers somehow different concerning memory leaks? Or are both of these code snippets susceptible to the same kind of memory leak? // Create an expando that references to its own element. var elem = document.getElementById('foo'); elem.myself = elem; // Create an event handler that references its own element. var elem = document.getElementById('foo'); elem.onclick = function() { elem.style.display = 'none'; }; If a page leaks memory due to a circular reference, does the leak persist until the entire browser application is closed, or is the memory freed when the window/tab is closed?

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  • Why do some questions get closed for no reason? [closed]

    - by IVlad
    Recently there was a question asking about generating all subsets of a set using a stack and a queue, which was closed (and now deleted it seems) as not a real question for no good reason, since it didn't fit into any of these conditions: It's difficult to tell what is being asked here. No, it was clear what was being asked. This question is ambiguous, vague, incomplete, or rhetorical and cannot be reasonably answered in its current form. Not ambiguous, not vague, not incomplete, definitely not rhetorical and could easily be answered if one knew the solution. Now, the exact same thing has happened with this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2791982/a-shortest-path-problem-with-superheroes-and-intergalactic-journeys/2793746#2793746 I am interested in hearing a logical argument for why that question is either ambiguous, vague, incomplete, rhetorical or cannot reasonably be answered in its current form. It seems that (the same bunch of) people like to close questions that they think are homework questions, especially when they think people want to be served the solution on a platter, which is also not the case: Any suggestions or ideas of how this problem might be solved would be most welcomed. Most of the time the people asking these questions are very reasonable and appreciate even the most vague idea, yet their question is closed. Let's go further and assume that it IS a homework problem. So what? When I registered here I didn't see any rule that said not to post homework problems, nor do I see such a rule now. What is wrong with posting homework problems that makes people hunt them down with a passion to close them without even reading the entire question body? This site is full of questions asked by people who get paid to know the things they are asking, yet their questions are considered fine. How is solving someone's homework problem worse? In some places (like where I live), computer science is a mandatory high school subject, and not everyone is interested in it. How is helping at least those people worse than doing someone's JOB? Not answering homework questions is fine and it's everyone's choice, but I consider closing them to be an act of power abuse, selfishness, and an insult to the fellow community members who are also interested in a solution or want feedback on their proposed solution. So my questions are: - Why do questions like the above get closed for reasons that do not apply? Why do you close them? Why don't you? - Why doesn't a vote to reopen a question reopen it automatically? Needing 5 votes for a reopen takes too long, and it's not fair because one reopen vote basically cancels out a close vote, making it 4 close votes (or 5 to 1, which is the same as only 4 people wanting to close the question), which isn't enough to close the question. I think a question should only be closed when CloseVotes - ReopenVotes >= 5. I'm hoping this will stay up, but I realize it probably won't. In either case, I think this is worth saying and discussing, since it IS community-related.

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  • "Access violation reading location" while accessing a global vector..

    - by djzmo
    Hello there, -- First of all, I don't know whether the vector can be called as a "global vector" if I declared it under a namespace, but not in a class or function. -- I'm now writing a simple Irrlicht (http://irrlicht.sourceforge.net) wrapper for my game to make things simpler and easier, but recently I got an "Access violation reading location" error when trying to push_back a vector declared in the global scope. Here is my code so far: irrwrap.cpp: namespace irrw { //......... IrrlichtDevice *device; IVideoDriver *driver; irr::core::array<irr::video::ITexture*> TextureCollector; vector<int> TextureConnector; //......... } //.............. void irrInit(int iGraphicsDriver, int iWindowWidth, int iWindowHeight, int iScreenDepth, bool bFullScreen) { E_DRIVER_TYPE drvT; if(iGraphicsDriver == GD_SOFTWARE) drvT = EDT_SOFTWARE; else if(iGraphicsDriver == GD_D3D8) drvT = EDT_DIRECT3D8; else if(iGraphicsDriver == GD_D3D9) drvT = EDT_DIRECT3D9; else if(iGraphicsDriver == GD_OPENGL) drvT = EDT_OPENGL; //.............. irrw::device = createDevice(drvT, dimension2d<u32>(iWindowWidth, iWindowHeight), iScreenDepth, bFullScreen); irrw::driver = irrw::device->getVideoDriver(); //.................. } void irrLoadImage(irr::core::stringc szFileName, int iID, int iTextureFlag) { //........ irrw::TextureCollector.push_back(irrw::driver->getTexture(szFileName)); // the call stack pointed to this line irrw::TextureConnector.push_back(iID); } main.cpp: //......... INT WINAPI WinMain(HINSTANCE hInst, HINSTANCE, LPSTR strCmdLine, INT) { //......... irrInit(GD_OPENGL, 800, 600, 16, false); irrLoadImage("picture.jpg", 100, 1); //......... } and the error: Unhandled exception at 0x692804d6 in Game.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0x00000558. Now I really got no idea on how to fix the problem. Any kind of help would be appreciated :) Here are some prototypes: virtual ITexture* getTexture(const io::path& filename) = 0; typedef core::string<fschar_t> path; // under 'io' namespace typedef char fschar_t; typedef string<c8> stringc; typedef char c8; Just FYI, I am using MSVC++ 2008 EE. (CODE UPDATED)

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  • Should I add try/catch around when casting on an attribute of JSP implicit object?

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: Basically what I mean is like this: List<String[]> routes = (List<String[]>)application.getAttribute("routes"); For the above code, it tries to get an attribute named "routes" from the JSP implicit object - application. But as everyone knows, after this line of code, routes may very well contains a null - which means this application hasn't got an attribute named "routes". Is this "casting on null" good programming practice in Java or not? Basically I try to avoid exceptions such as java.io.InvalidCastException I reckon things like this are more as "heritage" of Java 1.4 when generic types were not introduced to this language. So I guess everything stored in application attributes as Objects (Similar to traditional ArrayList). And when you do "downcast", there might be invalid casts. What would you do in this case? Update: Just found that although in the implicit object application I did store a List of String arrays, when I do this : List<double[]> routes = (List<double[]>)application.getAttribute("routes"); It doesn't produce any error... And I felt not comfortable already... And even with this code: out.print(routes.get(0)); It does print out something strange : [Ljava.lang.String;@18b352f Am I printing a "pointer to String"? I can finally get an exception like this: out.print(routes.get(0)[1]); with error : java.lang.ClassCastException: [Ljava.lang.String; Because it was me to add the application attribute, I know which type should it be cast to. I feel this is not "good enough", what if I forget the exact type? I know there are still some cases where this sort of thing would happen, such as in JSP/Servlet when you do casting on session attributes. Is there a better way to do this? Before you say:"OMG, why you don't use Servlets???", I should justify my reason as this: - because my uni sucks, its server can only work with Servlets generated by JSP, and I don't really want to learn how to fix issues like that. look at my previous question on this , and this is uni homework, so I've got no other choice, forget all about war, WEB-INF,etc, but "code everything directly into JSP" - because the professors do that too. :)

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  • Embedded QGraphicsView do not hide after Dialog closes

    - by torsten
    I call a QDialog in to modes, showNormal and showFullscreen. In normal mode all works fine. With a Keyevent the Dialog closes as expected. In Fullscreen, after a keyevent the Dialog closes, but the QGraphicsView will stay on top. All things i've tried (like closing/updating the view) failed. the View sta on top. view = new QGraphicsView(scene); view->setViewport(new QGLWidget(QGLFormat(QGL::SampleBuffers))); view->setHorizontalScrollBarPolicy(Qt::ScrollBarAlwaysOff); view->setVerticalScrollBarPolicy(Qt::ScrollBarAlwaysOff); view->setViewportUpdateMode(QGraphicsView::FullViewportUpdate); view->setFrameStyle(QFrame::NoFrame); view->setBackgroundBrush(Qt::white); view->setRenderHints(QPainter::Antialiasing); view->setSceneRect(0,0,resolution.x(),resolution.y()); Maybe my structure will help to solve the Problem: This call the QDialog named GraphicsWidgetDialog. void DemoArrowDialog::setDemo() { gwd->graphicsWidget->setListenKeyEvents(true); gwd->setWindowTitle("Demo"); gwd->setFixedSize(500,500); gwd->restoreGeometry(settings); gwd->setContentsMargins(0,0,0,0); gwd->setModal(false); gwd->showNormal(); gwd->graphicsWidget->show(); gwd->setFocus(); } void DemoArrowDialog::setFullScreenDemo() { settings = gwd->saveGeometry(); gwd->graphicsWidget->setListenKeyEvents(true); gwd->setContentsMargins(0,0,0,0); gwd->setModal(true); gwd->graphicsWidget->showFullScreen(); gwd->showFullScreen(); gwd->setFocus(); } This is the Definition of the GraphicsWidgetDialog GraphicsWidgetDialog::GraphicsWidgetDialog(QWidget *parent) : QDialog(parent) { graphicsWidget = new GraphicsWidget; QGridLayout *layout = new QGridLayout; layout->addWidget(graphicsWidget); layout->setContentsMargins(0,0,0,0); graphicsWidget->loadConfig(); graphicsWidget->loadArrowConfig("Arrow"); graphicsWidget->setArrowPosition(arrowPosition(arrowCenter)); graphicsWidget->update(); setLayout(layout); connect(graphicsWidget,SIGNAL(closeEvent()),this,SLOT(reject())); } The GraphicsWidget is the Widget that contains the QGraphcisView and Scene On keyPessEvent it will emit the closeEvent(). Any Idea?

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  • XmlHttpRequest bug?

    - by valdo
    Hello all. I'm writing a program that among other things needs to download a file given its URL. I'm too lazy to implement the Http/Https protocols manually, so that I needed some library/object/function that'll do the job. Critical requirement: The download must be asynchronous. That is, the thread that issued the download must be able to do something else "while" downloading the file, plus the download must be able to be aborted anytime without any barbaric side effects (such as internal call to TerminateThread). Nice-to-have requirements: Should be able to download the file "into memory". Means - read the contents of the file as they arrive, not necessarily save it into some "file system" file. It'd be nice to have some convenient Win32 progress notification mechanism (waitable event, semahpore, completion port, etc.), rather than just periodically polling the download status. I've chosen the XmlHttpRequest COM object to do the work. It seemed to work fine enough, plus it supported asynchronous mode. However I noticed that after some period it just stops working. That is, after several successful file downloads it stops downloading anything. I periodically poll it to get its status, it reports "in-progress", but nothing actually happens, and there's no network activity. Moreover, when the same process creates another instance of XmlHttpRequest object to perform new downloads - the effect is the same. The object reports "in progress", whereas it doesn't even try to connect to the server (according to network sniffers and system TCP state). The only way to make this object work back is to restart the process. This makes me suspect that there's a sort of a bug (sorry, I meant undocumented feature) in the object. Also it's not a bug at the level of an individual object, since the problem persists when the object is destroyed and another one is created. It's probably some global state of the DLL that implements this object. Does anyone know something about this? Is this a known bug? I'm pretty sure there's no chance that I have another bug in my code, because of which it seems to me to be the bug is in the XmlHttpRequest. I've done enoughtests and spent time with the debugger to conclude without reasonable doubt that it's just the object stops working. BTW, while the object should work, I do all the waiting via MsgWaitXXXX API calls. So that if this object needs the message loop to work properly (for instance, it may create a hidden notification window and bind it to a socket via WSAAsyncSelect) - I give it the opportunity.

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  • SVN: Branches for Every Little Change?

    - by yar
    Hi. We have a client (who has a client, who has a client) who is driving us mad with change requests to a code base (in PHP). Our first response was to just work in a main trunk in SVN, but the client often comes back and requests that a certain change needs to get pushed to the live servers ASAP. On the other hand, other changes get reduced in priority suddenly, which originally came grouped with other changes (seemingly). We are thinking of using a branch for every change request. Is this mad? What other solutions might work? Thanks! Edit: This is a really hard question to choose the correct answer for. Thanks to everybody for your great answers. Edit: I know that the best answer I chose was not particularly popular. I too wanted to find a technical solution to this problem. But now I think that if the client wants software with features that can be deployed in a modular fashion... this problem should not be solved in our use of the version control system. It would have to be designed into the software. Edit: Now it's almost a month later and my coworker/client has convinced me that multiple branches is the way to go. This is not just due to the client's insanity, but also based on our need to be able to determine if a feature is "ready to go" or "needs more work" or whatever. I don't have the SVN with me, but we merge using the advice from the SVN Cookbook: you merge the branch from the revision it was branched to the head revision. Also, using this system, we merge all branches at some point and that becomes the new QA and then live build. Then we branch from that. Last Edit (Perhaps): Months later, this system is still working out for us. We create branches for every ticket and rarely have problems. On the other hand, we do try to keep things separate as far as what people are working on... Two Years Later: We use GIT now, and now this system is actually quite reasonable.

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  • Classes to Entities; Like-class inheritence problems

    - by Stacey
    Beyond work, some friends and I are trying to build a game of sorts; The way we structure some of it works pretty well for a normal object oriented approach, but as most developers will attest this does not always translate itself well into a database persistent approach. This is not the absolute layout of what we have, it is just a sample model given for sake of representation. The whole project is being done in C# 4.0, and we have every intention of using Entity Framework 4.0 (unless Fluent nHibernate can really offer us something we outright cannot do in EF). One of the problems we keep running across is inheriting things in database models. Using the Entity Framework designer, I can draw the same code I have below; but I'm sure it is pretty obvious that it doesn't work like it is expected to. To clarify a little bit; 'Items' have bonuses, which can be of anything. Therefore, every part of the game must derive from something similar so that no matter what is 'changed' it is all at a basic enough level to be hooked into. Sounds fairly simple and straightforward, right? So then, we inherit everything that pertains to the game from 'Unit'. Weights, Measures, Random (think like dice, maybe?), and there will be other such entities. Some of them are similar, but in code they will each react differently. We're having a really big problem with abstracting this kind of thing into a database model. Without 'Enum' support, it is proving difficult to translate into multiple tables that still share a common listing. One solution we've depicted is to use a 'key ring' type approach, where everything that attaches to a character is stored on a 'Ring' with a 'Key', where each Key has a Value that represents a type. This works functionally but we've discovered it becomes very sluggish and performs poorly. We also dislike this approach because it begins to feel as if everything is 'dumped' into one class; which makes management and logical structure difficult to adhere to. I was hoping someone else might have some ideas on what I could do with this problem. It's really driving me up the wall; To summarize; the goal is to build a type (Unit) that can be used as a base type (Table per Type) for generic reference across a relatively global scope, without having to dump everything into a single collection. I can use an Interface to determine actual behavior so that isn't too big of an issue. This is 'roughly' the same idea expressed in the Entity Framework.

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  • How do I do high quality scaling of a image?

    - by pbhogan
    I'm writing some code to scale a 32 bit RGBA image in C/C++. I have written a few attempts that have been somewhat successful, but they're slow and most importantly the quality of the sized image is not acceptable. I compared the same image scaled by OpenGL (i.e. my video card) and my routine and it's miles apart in quality. I've Google Code Searched, scoured source trees of anything I thought would shed some light (SDL, Allegro, wxWidgets, CxImage, GD, ImageMagick, etc.) but usually their code is either convoluted and scattered all over the place or riddled with assembler and little or no comments. I've also read multiple articles on Wikipedia and elsewhere, and I'm just not finding a clear explanation of what I need. I understand the basic concepts of interpolation and sampling, but I'm struggling to get the algorithm right. I do NOT want to rely on an external library for one routine and have to convert to their image format and back. Besides, I'd like to know how to do it myself anyway. :) I have seen a similar question asked on stack overflow before, but it wasn't really answered in this way, but I'm hoping there's someone out there who can help nudge me in the right direction. Maybe point me to some articles or pseudo code... anything to help me learn and do. Here's what I'm looking for: 1. No assembler (I'm writing very portable code for multiple processor types). 2. No dependencies on external libraries. 3. I am primarily concerned with scaling DOWN, but will also need to write a scale up routine later. 4. Quality of the result and clarity of the algorithm is most important (I can optimize it later). My routine essentially takes the following form: DrawScaled( uint32 *src, uint32 *dst, src_x, src_y, src_w, src_h, dst_x, dst_y, dst_w, dst_h ); Thanks! UPDATE: To clarify, I need something more advanced than a box resample for downscaling which blurs the image too much. I suspect what I want is some kind of bicubic (or other) filter that is somewhat the reverse to a bicubic upscaling algorithm (i.e. each destination pixel is computed from all contributing source pixels combined with a weighting algorithm that keeps things sharp. EXAMPLE: Here's an example of what I'm getting from the wxWidgets BoxResample algorithm vs. what I want on a 256x256 bitmap scaled to 55x55. And finally: the original 256x256 image

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  • Implicit vs explicit getters/setters in AS3, which to use and why?

    - by James
    Since the advent of AS3 I have been working like this: private var loggy:String; public function getLoggy ():String { return loggy; } public function setLoggy ( loggy:String ):void { // checking to make sure loggy's new value is kosher etc... this.loggy = loggy; } and have avoided working like this: private var _loggy:String; public function get loggy ():String { return loggy; } public function set loggy ( loggy:String ):void { // checking to make sure loggy's new value is kosher etc... this.loggy = loggy; } I have avoided using AS3's implicit getters/setters partly so that I can just start typing "get.." and content assist will give me a list of all my getters, and likewise for my setters. I also dislike underscores in my code which turned me off the implicit route. Another reason is that I prefer the feel of this: whateverObject.setLoggy( "loggy's awesome new value!" ); to this: whateverObject.loggy = "loggy's awesome new value!"; I feel that the former better reflects what is actually happening in the code. I am calling functions, not setting values directly. After installing Flash Builder and the great new plugin SourceMate ( which helps to get some of the useful features that FDT is famous into FB ) I realized that when I use SourceMate's "generate getters and setters" feature it automatically sets my code up using the implicit route: private var _loggy:String; public function get loggy ():String { return loggy; } public function set loggy ( loggy:String ):void { // do whatever is needed to check to make sure loggy is an acceptable value this.loggy = loggy; } I figure that these SourceMate people must know what they are doing or they wouldn't be writing workflow enhancement plugins for coding in AS3, so now I am questioning my ways. So my question to you is: Can anyone give me a good reason why I should give up my explicit g/s ways, start using the implicit technique, and embrace those stinky little _underscores for my private vars? Or back me up in my reasons for doing things the way that I do?

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  • JAVA - Strange problem (probably thread problem) with JTable & Model

    - by Stefanos Kargas
    I am using 2 Tables (JTable) with their DefaultTableModels. The first table is already populated. The second table is populated for each row of the first table (using an SQL Query). My purpose is to export every line of the first table with it's respective lines of the second in an Excel File. I am doing it with a for (for each line of 1st table), in which I write a line of the 1st table in the Excel File, then I populate the 2nd table (for this line of 1st Table), I get every line from the Table (from it's Model actually) and put it in the Excel File under the current line of 1st table. This means that if I have n lines in first table I will clear and populate again the second table n times. All this code is called in a seperate thread. THE PROBLEM IS: Everything works perfectly fine ecxept that I am getting some exceptions. The strange thing is that I'm not getting anything false in my result. The Excel file is perfect. Some of the lines of the exceptions are: Exception in thread "AWT-EventQueue-0" java.lang.ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException: 0 = 0 at java.util.Vector.elementAt(Vector.java:427) at javax.swing.table.DefaultTableModel.getValueAt(DefaultTableModel.java:632) at javax.swing.JComponent.paint(JComponent.java:1017) at javax.swing.RepaintManager.paint(RepaintManager.java:1220) at javax.swing.RepaintManager.paintDirtyRegions(RepaintManager.java:803) I am assuming that the problem lies in the fact that the second table needs some more time to be populated before I try to get any data from it. That's why I see RepaintManager and paintDirtyRegions in my exceptions. Another thing I did is that I ran my program in debug mode and I put a breakpoint after each population of the 2nd table. Then I pressed F5 to continue for each population of 2nd table and no exception appeared. The program came to it's end without any exceptions. This is another important fact that tells me that maybe in this case I gave the table enough time to be populated. Of course you will ask me: If your program works fine, why do you care about the exceptions? I care for avoiding any future problems and I care to have a better understanding of Java and Java GUI and threads. Why do you depend on a GUI component (and it's model) to get your information and why don't you recreate the resultset that populates your tables using an SQL Query and get your info from the resultset? That would be the best and the right way. The fact is that I have the tables code ready and it was easier for me to just get the info from them. But the right way would be to get everything direct from database. Anyway what I did brought out my question, and answering it would help me understand more things about java. So I posted it.

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  • Loading the last related record instantly for multiple parent records using Entity framework

    - by Guillaume Schuermans
    Does anyone know a good approach using Entity Framework for the problem described below? I am trying for our next release to come up with a performant way to show the placed orders for the logged on customer. Of course paging is always a good technique to use when a lot of data is available I would like to see an answer without any paging techniques. Here's the story: a customer places an order which gets an orderstatus = PENDING. Depending on some strategy we move that order up the chain in order to get it APPROVED. Every change of status is logged so we can see a trace for statusses and maybe even an extra line of comment per status which can provide some extra valuable information to whoever sees this order in an interface. So an Order is linked to a Customer. One order can have multiple orderstatusses stored in OrderStatusHistory. In my testscenario I am using a customer which has 100+ Orders each with about 5 records in the OrderStatusHistory-table. I would for now like to see all orders in one page not using paging where for each Order I show the last relevant Status and the extra comment (if there is any for this last status; both fields coming from OrderStatusHistory; the record with the highest Id for the given OrderId). There are multiple scenarios I have tried, but I would like to see any potential other solutions or comments on the things I have already tried. Trying to do Include() when getting Orders but this still results in multiple queries launched on the database. Each order triggers an extra query to the database to get all orderstatusses in the history table. So all statusses are queried here instead of just returning the last relevant one, plus 100 extra queries are launched for 100 orders. You can imagine the problem when there are 100000+ orders in the database. Having 2 computed columns on the database: LastStatus, LastStatusInformation and a regular Linq-Query which gets those columns which are available through the Entity-model. The problem with this approach is the fact that those computed columns are determined using a scalar function which can not be changed without removing the formula from the computed column, etc... In the end I am very familiar with SQL and Stored procedures, but since the rest of the data-layer uses Entity Framework I would like to stick to it as long as possible, even though I have my doubts about performance. Using the SQL approach I would write something like this: WITH cte (RN, OrderId, [Status], Information) AS ( SELECT ROW_NUMBER() OVER (PARTITION BY OrderId ORDER BY Id DESC), OrderId, [Status], Information FROM OrderStatus ) SELECT o.Id, cte.[Status], cte.Information AS StatusInformation, o.* FROM [Order] o INNER JOIN cte ON o.Id = cte.OrderId AND cte.RN = 1 WHERE CustomerId = @CustomerId ORDER BY 1 DESC; which returns all orders for the customer with the statusinformation provided by the Common Table Expression. Does anyone know a good approach using Entity Framework?

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  • Dealing with personal failure

    - by codeelegance
    A while ago I was given the task of updating and extending the functionality of a software project. I was given a year to make the needed changes working solo. A month into development I came to the conclusion that it would take longer to change the existing product than to rewrite it from the ground up. I'd never attempted a complete rewrite so I talked with my boss about it and he was thrilled with the idea. I'm a fan of agile development but had never had the opportunity to take advantage of all of the prescribed practices so when I set to work I tried to incorporate as many as I could. I didn't have direct access to the customer and my coworkers (non-programmers) knew the business domain but were already so busy they didn't really have time to participate in design meetings so I resigned to working in the dark and occasionally calling one of them over to my desk to get feedback on my progress. I used TDD and refactored mercilessly and even tried taking a domain driven design approach. Things went well for a while. As the deadline came closer and the complexity of the project grew my productivity start slipping. I found myself cutting corners and ignoring the practices I had established as the pressure increased to meet the deadline. I also started working late nights and weekends to keep up with the load. In the end it made little difference how hard I worked. The project missed its deadline and what was completed wasn't enough to give to the customer. I had failed. Not only had I not finished on time but the previous version had sat untouched for almost a year so it wouldn't be of any help. Luckily we had another product that offered some of the same functionality. My boss decided to cancel the project entirely and moved all our orphaned customers to the other product. I spent weeks (along with everyone else at the company) manning the phones providing technical support for those customers. After it was all over, my boss was gracious enough not to fire me for nearly ruining the company. I was moved to the other product and have been trying to redeem myself ever since. Where did I go wrong? Has anyone else had to deal with this kind of defeat? How did you recover?

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  • Polymorphic :has_many, :through as module in Rails 3.1 plugin

    - by JohnMetta
    I've search everywhere for a pointer to this, but can't find one. Basically, I want to do what everyone else wants to do when they create a polymorphic relationship in a :has_many, :through way… but I want to do it in a module. I keep getting stuck and think I must be overlooking something simple. To wit: module ActsPermissive module PermissiveUser def self.included(base) base.extend ClassMethods end module ClassMethods def acts_permissive has_many :ownables has_many :owned_circles, :through => :ownables end end end class PermissiveCircle < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :ownable, :polymorphic => true end end With a migration that looks like this: create_table :permissive_circles do |t| t.string :ownable_type t.integer :ownable_id t.timestamps end The idea, of course, is that whatever loads acts_permissive will be able to have a list of circles that it owns. For simple tests, I have it "should have a list of circles" do user = Factory :user user.owned_circles.should be_an_instance_of Array end which fails with: Failure/Error: @user.circles.should be_an_instance_of Array NameError: uninitialized constant User::Ownable I've tried: using :class_name => 'ActsPermissive::PermissiveCircle' on the has_many :ownables line, which fails with: Failure/Error: @user.circles.should be_an_instance_of Array ActiveRecord::HasManyThroughSourceAssociationNotFoundError: Could not find the source association(s) :owned_circle or :owned_circles in model ActsPermissive::PermissiveCircle. Try 'has_many :owned_circles, :through => :ownables, :source => <name>'. Is it one of :ownable? while following the suggestion and setting :source => :ownable fails with Failure/Error: @user.circles.should be_an_instance_of Array ActiveRecord::HasManyThroughAssociationPolymorphicSourceError: Cannot have a has_many :through association 'User#owned_circles' on the polymorphic object 'Ownable#ownable' Which seems to suggest that doing things with a non-polymorphic-through is necessary. So I added a circle_owner class similar to the setup here: module ActsPermissive class CircleOwner < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :permissive_circle belongs_to :ownable, :polymorphic => true end module PermissiveUser def self.included(base) base.extend ClassMethods end module ClassMethods def acts_permissive has_many :circle_owners, :as => :ownable has_many :circles, :through => :circle_owners, :source => :ownable, :class_name => 'ActsPermissive::PermissiveCircle' end end class PermissiveCircle < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :circle_owners end end With a migration: create_table :permissive_circles do |t| t.string :name t.string :guid t.timestamps end create_table :circle_owner do |t| t.string :ownable_type t.string :ownable_id t.integer :permissive_circle_id end which still fails with: Failure/Error: @user.circles.should be_an_instance_of Array NameError: uninitialized constant User::CircleOwner Which brings us back to the beginning. How can I do what seems to be a rather common polymorphic :has_many, :through on a module? Alternatively, is there a good way to allow an object to be collected by arbitrary objects in a similar way that will work with a module?

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  • user defined Copy ctor, and copy-ctors further down the chain - compiler bug ? programmers brainbug

    - by J.Colmsee
    Hi. i have a little problem, and I am not sure if it's a compiler bug, or stupidity on my side. I have this struct : struct BulletFXData { int time_next_fx_counter; int next_fx_steps; Particle particles[2];//this is the interesting one ParticleManager::ParticleId particle_id[2]; }; The member "Particle particles[2]" has a self-made kind of smart-ptr in it (resource-counted texture-class). this smart-pointer has a default constructor, that initializes to the ptr to 0 (but that is not important) I also have another struct, containing the BulletFXData struct : struct BulletFX { BulletFXData data; BulletFXRenderFunPtr render_fun_ptr; BulletFXUpdateFunPtr update_fun_ptr; BulletFXExplosionFunPtr explode_fun_ptr; BulletFXLifetimeOverFunPtr lifetime_over_fun_ptr; BulletFX( BulletFXData data, BulletFXRenderFunPtr render_fun_ptr, BulletFXUpdateFunPtr update_fun_ptr, BulletFXExplosionFunPtr explode_fun_ptr, BulletFXLifetimeOverFunPtr lifetime_over_fun_ptr) :data(data), render_fun_ptr(render_fun_ptr), update_fun_ptr(update_fun_ptr), explode_fun_ptr(explode_fun_ptr), lifetime_over_fun_ptr(lifetime_over_fun_ptr) { } /* //USER DEFINED copy-ctor. if it's defined things go crazy BulletFX(const BulletFX& rhs) :data(data),//this line of code seems to do a plain memory-copy without calling the right ctors render_fun_ptr(render_fun_ptr), update_fun_ptr(update_fun_ptr), explode_fun_ptr(explode_fun_ptr), lifetime_over_fun_ptr(lifetime_over_fun_ptr) { } */ }; If i use the user-defined copy-ctor my smart-pointer class goes crazy, and it seems that calling the CopyCtor / assignment operator aren't called as they should. So - does this all make sense ? it seems as if my own copy-ctor of struct BulletFX should do exactly what the compiler-generated would, but it seems to forget to call the right constructors down the chain. compiler bug ? me being stupid ? Sorry about the big code, some small example could have illustrated too. but often you guys ask for the real code, so well - here it is :D EDIT : more info : typedef ParticleId unsigned int; Particle has no user defined copyctor, but has a member of type : Particle { .... Resource<Texture> tex_res; ... } Resource is a smart-pointer class, and has all ctor's defined (also asignment operator) and it seems that Resource is copied bitwise. EDIT : henrik solved it... data(data) is stupid of course ! it should of course be rhs.data !!! sorry for huge amount of code, with a very little bug in it !!! (Guess you shouldn't code at 1 in the morning :D )

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  • Switch case assembly level code

    - by puffadder
    Hi All, I am programming C on cygwin windows. After having done a bit of C programming and getting comfortable with the language, I wanted to look under the hood and see what the compiler is doing for the code that I write. So I wrote down a code block containing switch case statements and converted them into assembly using: gcc -S foo.c Here is the C source: switch(i) { case 1: { printf("Case 1\n"); break; } case 2: { printf("Case 2\n"); break; } case 3: { printf("Case 3\n"); break; } case 4: { printf("Case 4\n"); break; } case 5: { printf("Case 5\n"); break; } case 6: { printf("Case 6\n"); break; } case 7: { printf("Case 7\n"); break; } case 8: { printf("Case 8\n"); break; } case 9: { printf("Case 9\n"); break; } case 10: { printf("Case 10\n"); break; } default: { printf("Nothing\n"); break; } } Now the resultant assembly for the same is: movl $5, -4(%ebp) cmpl $10, -4(%ebp) ja L13 movl -4(%ebp), %eax sall $2, %eax movl L14(%eax), %eax jmp *%eax .section .rdata,"dr" .align 4 L14: .long L13 .long L3 .long L4 .long L5 .long L6 .long L7 .long L8 .long L9 .long L10 .long L11 .long L12 .text L3: movl $LC0, (%esp) call _printf jmp L2 L4: movl $LC1, (%esp) call _printf jmp L2 L5: movl $LC2, (%esp) call _printf jmp L2 L6: movl $LC3, (%esp) call _printf jmp L2 L7: movl $LC4, (%esp) call _printf jmp L2 L8: movl $LC5, (%esp) call _printf jmp L2 L9: movl $LC6, (%esp) call _printf jmp L2 L10: movl $LC7, (%esp) call _printf jmp L2 L11: movl $LC8, (%esp) call _printf jmp L2 L12: movl $LC9, (%esp) call _printf jmp L2 L13: movl $LC10, (%esp) call _printf L2: Now, in the assembly, the code is first checking the last case (i.e. case 10) first. This is very strange. And then it is copying 'i' into 'eax' and doing things that are beyond me. I have heard that the compiler implements some jump table for switch..case. Is it what this code is doing? Or what is it doing and why? Because in case of less number of cases, the code is pretty similar to that generated for if...else ladder, but when number of cases increases, this unusual-looking implementation is seen. Thanks in advance.

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  • MVC Entity Framework: Cannot open user default database. Login failed.

    - by Michael
    This type of stuff drives me nuts. I'm having trouble finding the exact issue that I'm having, maybe I just don't know the terminology. Anyway, I had a working website using MVC and Entity Framework, but then I coded an error in a partial view page (ascx). Then all of a sudden I started to get this message. Cannot open user default database. Login failed. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM' I've found plenty of suggestions about opening SQL Server Management Studio, Double Click on Security, Double Click on Logins, Double click on NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM and then double click on User Mapping. In this view I'm suppose to check the box for my database so that this user is mapped to this login. However, since I created my database in Visio Studio 2008 as part of my solution, it doesn't show up to allow me to click on it. So what do I do now? What drives me nuts is that everything was working fine. I was using my computer name to access the website and everything was working fine until the coding error. I've fix the error but still getting the error. I should also mention that this error started yesterday too around the same time but later cleared itself up. If I use localhost to access the site, it works just fine. IIS7 configuration for my website: Application Pool = DefaultAppPool Physical Path Credentials Logon = ClearText With in connection strings. I do see the one for my database in this solution. Entry Type is local metadata=res://*/Models.DataModel.csdl|res://*/Models.DataModel.ssdl|res://*/Models.DataModel.msl; provider=System.Data.SqlClient; provider connection string="Data Source=.\SQLEXPRESS;AttachDbFilename=|DataDirectory|\FFBall.mdf;Integrated Security=True;User Instance=True;MultipleActiveResultSets=True" And somewhere I remember changing the identity from Network Service to LocalSystem. Because when I first stared I was getting this same message, but I changed this value and it started working. I saw that suggested somewhere too but I do not recall. Wait I remember now, I believe in IIS7, under Application Pools, DefaultAppPool identity is set to LocalSystem. Additional things I've tried. Restart the computer Recycle the application pool. Antivirus isn't running. Any help would be appreciated. Thank you in advance.

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  • Why does Scala apply thunks automatically, sometimes?

    - by Anonymouse
    At just after 2:40 in ShadowofCatron's Scala Tutorial 3 video, it's pointed out that the parentheses following the name of a thunk are optional. "Buh?" said my functional programming brain, since the value of a function and the value it evaluates to when applied are completely different things. So I wrote the following to try this out. My thought process is described in the comments. object Main { var counter: Int = 10 def f(): Int = { counter = counter + 1; counter } def runThunk(t: () => Int): Int = { t() } def main(args: Array[String]): Unit = { val a = f() // I expect this to mean "apply f to no args" println(a) // and apparently it does val b = f // I expect this to mean "the value f", a function value println(b) // but it's the value it evaluates to when applied to no args println(b) // and the evaluation happens immediately, not in the call runThunk(b) // This is an error: it's not println doing something funny runThunk(f) // Not an error: seems to be val doing something funny } }   To be clear about the problem, this Scheme program (and the console dump which follows) shows what I expected the Scala program to do. (define counter (list 10)) (define f (lambda () (set-car! counter (+ (car counter) 1)) (car counter))) (define runThunk (lambda (t) (t))) (define main (lambda args (let ((a (f)) (b f)) (display a) (newline) (display b) (newline) (display b) (newline) (runThunk b) (runThunk f)))) > (main) 11 #<procedure:f> #<procedure:f> 13   After coming to this site to ask about this, I came across this answer which told me how to fix the above Scala program: val b = f _ // Hey Scala, I mean f, not f() But the underscore 'hint' is only needed sometimes. When I call runThunk(f), no hint is required. But when I 'alias' f to b with a val then apply it, it doesn't work: the evaluation happens in the val; and even lazy val works this way, so it's not the point of evaluation causing this behaviour.   That all leaves me with the question: Why does Scala sometimes automatically apply thunks when evaluating them? Is it, as I suspect, type inference? And if so, shouldn't a type system stay out of the language's semantics? Is this a good idea? Do Scala programmers apply thunks rather than refer to their values so much more often that making the parens optional is better overall? Examples written using Scala 2.8.0RC3, DrScheme 4.0.1 in R5RS.

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  • Normalizing Item Names & Synonyms

    - by RabidFire
    Consider an e-commerce application with multiple stores. Each store owner can edit the item catalog of his store. My current database schema is as follows: item_names: id | name | description | picture | common(BOOL) items: id | item_name_id | picture | price | description | picture item_synonyms: id | item_name_id | name | error(BOOL) Notes: error indicates a wrong spelling (eg. "Ericson"). description and picture of the item_names table are "globals" that can optionally be overridden by "local" description and picture fields of the items table (in case the store owner wants to supply a different picture for an item). common helps separate unique item names ("Jimmy Joe's Cheese Pizza" from "Cheese Pizza") I think the bright side of this schema is: Optimized searching & Handling Synonyms: I can query the item_names & item_synonyms tables using name LIKE %QUERY% and obtain the list of item_name_ids that need to be joined with the items table. (Examples of synonyms: "Sony Ericsson", "Sony Ericson", "X10", "X 10") Autocompletion: Again, a simple query to the item_names table. I can avoid the usage of DISTINCT and it minimizes number of variations ("Sony Ericsson Xperia™ X10", "Sony Ericsson - Xperia X10", "Xperia X10, Sony Ericsson") The down side would be: Overhead: When inserting an item, I query item_names to see if this name already exists. If not, I create a new entry. When deleting an item, I count the number of entries with the same name. If this is the only item with that name, I delete the entry from the item_names table (just to keep things clean; accounts for possible erroneous submissions). And updating is the combination of both. Weird Item Names: Store owners sometimes use sentences like "Harry Potter 1, 2 Books + CDs + Magic Hat". There's something off about having so much overhead to accommodate cases like this. This would perhaps be the prime reason I'm tempted to go for a schema like this: items: id | name | picture | price | description | picture (... with item_names and item_synonyms as utility tables that I could query) Is there a better schema you would suggested? Should item names be normalized for autocomplete? Is this probably what Facebook does for "School", "City" entries? Is the first schema or the second better/optimal for search? Thanks in advance! References: (1) Is normalizing a person's name going too far?, (2) Avoiding DISTINCT

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  • Deterministic key serialization

    - by Mike Boers
    I'm writing a mapping class which uses SQLite as the storage backend. I am currently allowing only basestring keys but it would be nice if I could use a couple more types hopefully up to anything that is hashable (ie. same requirements as the builtin dict). To that end I would like to derive a deterministic serialization scheme. Ideally, I would like to know if any implementation/protocol combination of pickle is deterministic for hashable objects (e.g. can only use cPickle with protocol 0). I noticed that pickle and cPickle do not match: >>> import pickle >>> import cPickle >>> def dumps(x): ... print repr(pickle.dumps(x)) ... print repr(cPickle.dumps(x)) ... >>> dumps(1) 'I1\n.' 'I1\n.' >>> dumps('hello') "S'hello'\np0\n." "S'hello'\np1\n." >>> dumps((1, 2, 'hello')) "(I1\nI2\nS'hello'\np0\ntp1\n." "(I1\nI2\nS'hello'\np1\ntp2\n." Another option is to use repr to dump and ast.literal_eval to load. This would only be valid for builtin hashable types. I have written a function to determine if a given key would survive this process (it is rather conservative on the types it allows): def is_reprable_key(key): return type(key) in (int, str, unicode) or (type(key) == tuple and all( is_reprable_key(x) for x in key)) The question for this method is if repr itself is deterministic for the types that I have allowed here. I believe this would not survive the 2/3 version barrier due to the change in str/unicode literals. This also would not work for integers where 2**32 - 1 < x < 2**64 jumping between 32 and 64 bit platforms. Are there any other conditions (ie. do strings serialize differently under different conditions)? (If this all fails miserably then I can store the hash of the key along with the pickle of both the key and value, then iterate across rows that have a matching hash looking for one that unpickles to the expected key, but that really does complicate a few other things and I would rather not do it.) Any insights?

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  • Flipping OpenGL texture

    - by Mk12
    When I load textures from images normally, they are upside down because of OpenGL's coordinate system. What would be the best way to flip them? glScalef(1.0f, -1.0f, 1.0f); vertically flipping the image files manually (in Photoshop) flipping them programatically after loading them (I don't know how) This is the method I'm using to load png textures, in my Utilities.m file (Objective-C): + (GLuint)loadPngTexture:(NSString *)name { CFURLRef textureURL = CFBundleCopyResourceURL( CFBundleGetMainBundle(), (CFStringRef)name, CFSTR("png"), CFSTR("Textures")); NSAssert(textureURL, @"Texture name invalid"); CGImageSourceRef imageSource = CGImageSourceCreateWithURL(textureURL, NULL); NSAssert(imageSource, @"Invalid Image Path."); NSAssert((CGImageSourceGetCount(imageSource) > 0), @"No Image in Image Source."); CFRelease(textureURL); CGImageRef image = CGImageSourceCreateImageAtIndex(imageSource, 0, NULL); NSAssert(image, @"Image not created."); CFRelease(imageSource); NSUInteger width = CGImageGetWidth(image); NSUInteger height = CGImageGetHeight(image); void *data = malloc(width * height * 4); CGColorSpaceRef colorSpace = CGColorSpaceCreateDeviceRGB(); NSAssert(colorSpace, @"Colorspace not created."); CGContextRef context = CGBitmapContextCreate( data, width, height, 8, width * 4, colorSpace, kCGImageAlphaPremultipliedFirst | kCGBitmapByteOrder32Host); NSAssert(context, @"Context not created."); CGColorSpaceRelease(colorSpace); CGContextDrawImage(context, CGRectMake(0, 0, width, height), image); CGImageRelease(image); CGContextRelease(context); GLuint textureId; glGenTextures(1, &textureId); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, textureId); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_GENERATE_MIPMAP_SGIS, GL_TRUE); glTexImage2D( GL_TEXTURE_2D, 0, GL_RGBA, width, height, 0, GL_BGRA, GL_UNSIGNED_INT_8_8_8_8_REV, data); glTexParameteri( GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_S, GL_CLAMP_TO_EDGE_SGIS); glTexParameteri( GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_T, GL_CLAMP_TO_EDGE_SGIS); glTexParameteri( GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glTexParameteri( GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL_LINEAR_MIPMAP_LINEAR); free(data); return textureId; } Also, another thing I was wondering about: If I made a simple 2d game, with pixels mapped to units, would it be alright to set it up so that the origin is in the top-left corner, or would I run in to problems with other things (e.g. text rendering)? Thanks.

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  • ASP.NET MVC 4/Web API Single Page App for Mobile Devices ... Needs Authentication

    - by lmttag
    We have developed an ASP.NET MVC 4/Web API single page, mobile website (also using jQuery Mobile) that is intended to be accessed only from mobile devices (e.g., iPads, iPhones, Android tables and phones, etc.), not desktop browsers. This mobile website will be hosted internally, like an intranet site. However, since we’re accessing it from mobile devices, we can’t use Windows authentication. We still need to know which user (and their role) is logging in to the mobile website app. We tried simply using ASP.NET’s forms authentication and membership provider, but couldn’t get it working exactly the way we wanted. What we need is for the user to be prompted for a user name and password only on the first time they access the site on their mobile device. After they enter a correct user name and password and have been authenticated once, each subsequent time they access the site they should just go right in. They shouldn’t have to re-enter their credentials (i.e., something needs to be saved locally to each device to identify the user after the first time). This is where we had troubles. Everything worked as expected the first time. That is, the user was prompted to enter a user name and password, and, after doing that, was authenticated and allowed into the site. The problem is every time after the browser was closed on the mobile device, the device and user were not know and the user had to re-enter user name and password. We tried lots of things too. We tried setting persistent cookies in JavaScript. No good. The cookies weren’t there to be read the second time. We tried manually setting persistent cookies from ASP.NET. No good. We, of course, used FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(model.UserName, true); as part of the form authentication framework. No good. We tried using HTML5 local storage. No good. No matter what we tried, if the user was on a mobile device, they would have to log in every single time. (Note: we’ve tried on an iPad and iPhone running both iOS 5.1 and 6.0, with Safari configure to allow cookies, and we’ve tried on Android 2.3.4.) Is there some trick to getting a scenario like this working? Or, do we have to write some sort of custom authentication mechanism? If so, how? And, what? Or, should we use something like claims-based authentication and WIF? Or??? Any help is appreciated. Thanks!

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