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  • Write a completely fluid HTML page (using '%' instead of 'px' for EVERY element height/width)

    - by barak manos
    I am designing my HTML pages to be completely fluid: For every element in the mark-up (HTML), I am using 'style="height:%;width:%"' (instead of 'style="height:*px;width:*px"'). This approach seems to work pretty well, except for when changing the window measurements, in which case, the web page elements change their position and end up "on top of each other". I have come up with a pretty good run-time (java-script) solution to that: var elements = document.getElementsByTagName("*"); for (var i=0; i < elements.length; i++) { if (elements[i].style.height) elements[i].style.height = elements[i].offsetHeight+"px"; if (elements[i].style.width ) elements[i].style.width = elements[i].offsetWidth +"px"; } The only problem remaining is, that if the user opens up the website by entering the URL into a non-maximized window, then the page fits that portion of the window. Then, when maximizing the window, the page remains in its previous measurements. So in essence, I have solved the initial problem (when changing the window measurements), but only when the window is initially in its maximum size. Any ideas on how to tackle this problem? (given that I would like to keep my "% page-design" as is).

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  • Using Javascript to get URL Vars, not working when multiple values present in QueryString

    - by bateman_ap
    Hi, I am using a Javascript function to get the values of a URL to pass to jQuery using the function below: function getUrlVars() { var vars = [], hash; var hashes = window.location.href.slice(window.location.href.indexOf('?') + 1).split('&'); for(var i = 0; i < hashes.length; i++) { hash = hashes[i].split('='); vars.push(hash[0]); vars[hash[0]] = hash[1]; } return vars; } And then setting the value like this: var type = getUrlVars()["type"] This all works perfectly, however I have just come into a situation where I need to get multiple values, one of my form elements are checkboxes where multiple values can be checked, so my URL will look something like this: http://www.domain.com/test.php?type=1&cuisine[]=23&cuisine[]=43&name=test If I alert out the cuisine value using the function above I only ever get the final value: alert (getUrlVars()["cuisine[]"]); Would alert "43". What I would like it to be is a comma delimited string of all "cuisine" values. ie in the above example "23,43" Any help very welcome! In case any solution requires it I am using PHP 5.3 and Jquery 1.4

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  • More than one unique key for HashMap problem (Java)

    - by Alex Cheng
    This question is a continuation of this thread: In short: To solve my problem, I want to use Map<Set<String>, String>. However, after I sort my data entries in Excel, remove the unnecessary parameters, and the following came out: flow content ==> content content flow content ==> content depth distance flow content ==> content depth within flow content ==> content depth within distance flow content ==> content within flow content ==> content within distance I have more than one unique key for the hashmap if that is the case. How do I go around this... anyone have any idea? I was thinking of maybe Map<Set <String>, List <String>> so that I can do something like: Set <flow content>, List <'content content','content depth distance','content depth within ', ..., 'content within distance'> But because I am parsing the entries line by line I can't figure out the way how to store values of the same repeated keys (flow content) into the same list and add it to the map. Anyone have a rough logic on how can this be done in Java? Thanks in advance.

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  • Manipulating data in sql / asp.net / c# - how?

    - by SLC
    Not sure how to word the question... Basically, so far all my SQL stuff has been stored procedures and dumped into a gridview. The odd case where I had to perform an action based on a value (such as highlighting a row green if a certain value was true) were done as the gridview was rendering in one of the overrides. Now however I have to do something far more complicated - pull three sets of data down, run a series of checks on all three and some date related checks and stuff, then populate a gridview with some of the items. In logic terms, I want to run three queries, and store the lists of results (presumably in Lists?) then run some logic, then populate the gridview. Specifically what I don't know how to do is: Best way of pulling the data, and putting it into a List or other datastructure that lets me easily run through it, and retrieve data based on column (myList.age, or more likely, myList["Age"]). One I have compared the data, I assume I create a new list that will be put into the gridview... how do I put the contents of a list INTO a gridview? How would I add other stuff such as buttons or checkboxes at the same time? Any nudge in the right direction would be appreciated! Particularly doing cool stuff with lists and sql (if there is anything cool you can do with them)

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  • Credit card validation with regexp using test()

    - by Matt
    I'm trying to complete some homework and it appears the book might have gotten it wrong. I have a simple html page that allows user to pick a credit card in our case american express. The user then enters a number and evalutes that number based on a regular expression. My question ends up being when test() evaluates the number it returns a boolean or a string? I should then compare that string or boolean? True == true should fire off the code in a nested if statement. Heres what the book gives me as valid code: if(document.forms[0].cardName.value == "American Express") { var cardProtocol = new RegExp("^3[47][0-9]{13}$"); //REGEX ENTRY HERE if(cardProtocol.test(document.forms[0].cardNumber.value)) document.forms[0].ccResult.value = "Valid credit card number"; } The above code doesn't work in firefox. I've tried modifying it with 2 alerts to make sure the number is good and the boolean is good...and still no luck: if(document.forms[0].cardName.value == "American Express") { var cardProtocol = new RegExp("^3[47][0-9]{13}$"); //REGEX ENTRY HERE <------ alert(document.forms[0].cardNumber.value) alert(cardProtocol.test(document.forms[0].cardNumber.value)) if((cardProtocol.test(document.forms[0].cardNumber.value)) == true ) // <--Problem { document.forms[0].ccResult.value = "Valid credit card number"; } else { document.forms[0].ccResult.value = "Invalid credit card number"; } } Any ideas? the if loop is the culprit but I'm not figuring out why it is not working. Please throw up the code for the if loop! Thanks for the help!

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  • Fastest container or algorithm for unique reusable ids in C++

    - by gman
    I have a need for unique reusable ids. The user can choose his own ids or he can ask for a free one. The API is basically class IdManager { public: int AllocateId(); // Allocates an id void FreeId(int id); // Frees an id so it can be used again bool MarkAsUsed(int id); // Let's the user register an id. // returns false if the id was already used. }; Assume ids happen to start at 1 and progress, 2, 3, etc. This is not a requirement, just to help illustrate. IdManager mgr; mgr.MarkAsUsed(3); printf ("%d\n", mgr.AllocateId()); printf ("%d\n", mgr.AllocateId()); printf ("%d\n", mgr.AllocateId()); Would print 1 2 4 Because id 3 has already been declared used. What's the best container / algorithm to both remember which ids are used AND find a free id? If you want to know the a specific use case, OpenGL's glGenTextures, glBindTexture and glDeleteTextures are equivalent to AllocateId, MarkAsUsed and FreeId

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  • Is there a unique computer identifier that can be used reliably even in a virtual machine?

    - by SaUce
    I'm writing a small client program to be run on a terminal server. I'm looking for a way to make sure that it will only run on this server and in case it is removed from the server it will not function. I understand that there is no perfect way of securing it to make it impossible to ran on other platforms, but I want to make it hard enough to prevent 95% of people to try anything. The other 5% who can hack it is not my concern. I was looking at different Unique Identifiers like Processor ID, Windows Product ID, Computer GUID and other UIs. Because the terminal server is a virtual machine, I cannot locate anything that is completely unique to this machine. Any ideas on what I should look into to make this 95% secure. I do not have time or the need to make it as secure as possible because it will defeat the purpose of the application itself. I do not want to user MAC address. Even though it is unique to each machine it can be easily spoofed. As far as Microsoft Product ID, because our system team clones VM servers and we use corporate volume key, I found already two servers that I have access to that have same Product ID Number. I have no Idea how many others out there that have same Product ID By 95% and 5% I just simply wanted to illustrate how far i want to go with securing this software. I do not have precise statistics on how many people can do what. I believe I might need to change my approach and instead of trying to identify the machine, I will be better off by identifying the user and create group based permission for access to this software.

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  • Does BeginReceive() get everything sent by BeginSend()?

    - by IVlad
    I'm writing a program that will have both a server side and a client side, and the client side will connect to a server hosted by the same program (but by another instance of it, and usually on another machine). So basically, I have control over both aspects of the protocol. I am using BeginReceive() and BeginSend() on both sides to send and receive data. My question is if these two statements are true: Using a call to BeginReceive() will give me the entire data that was sent by a single call to BeginSend() on the other end when the callback function is called. Using a call to BeginSend() will send the entire data I pass it to the other end, and it will all be received by a single call to BeginReceive() on the other end. The two are basically the same in fact. If the answer is no, which I'm guessing is the case based on what I've read about sockets, what is the best way to handle commands? I'm writing a game that will have commands such as PUT X Y. I was thinking of appending a special character (# for example) to the end of each command, and each time I receive data, I append it to a buffer, then parse it only after I encounter a #.

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  • How to make Finder 'Open With' work for my application (XCode, OS X)?

    - by Adion
    I have created an application that is capable of playing audio files. This in itself works fine, and so does drag&drop from finder to my application. What I would like as well, is that people can use my application from Finder using the Open With menu (or even allow them to set my application as default for a certain file type) After a lot of searching, I found that I should configure a document type in XCode (Editing information property lists) I successfully added such a type named 'Music File', with UTI 'public.mp3' When I now right-click an MP3 file, my application is listed in the 'Open With' menu. Trying to use it, my app opens, but I get a warning message saying "The document could not be opened. App cannot open files in the 'Music File' format" It doesn't appear to be passed through the command line as is the case in Windows. My application does support drag&drop from Finder, and this is working fine too. I don't really know where to look next, so it would be great if anyone could point me in the right direction. My application isn't using NSDocument, so the 'Class' field doesn't apply for me I think (and according to the docs this field isn't required, but it doesn't say how to handle it without a Class)

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  • determining the starting speed for an accelerated animation (in flash/actionscript but it's a math question)

    - by vulkanino
    This question burns my brain. I have an object on a plane, but for the sake of simplicity let's work just on a single dimension, thus the object has a starting position xs. I know the ending position xe. The object has to move from starting to ending position with an accelerated (acceleration=a) movement. I know the velocity the object has to have at the ending position (=ve). In my special case the ending speed is zero, but of course I need a general formula. The only unknown is the starting velocity vs. The objects starts with vs in xs and ends with ve in xe, moving along a space x with an acceleration a in a time t. Since I'm working with flash, space is expressed in pixels, time is expressed in frames (but you can reason in terms of seconds, it's easy to convert knowing the frames-per-second). In the animation loop (think onEnterFrame) I compute the new velocity and the new position with (a=0.4 for example): vx *= a (same for vy) x += vx (same for y) I want the entire animation to last, say, 2 seconds, which at 30 fps is 60 frames. Now you know that in 60 frames my object has to move from xs to xe with a constant deceleration so that the ending speed is 0. How do I compute the starting speed vs? Maybe there's a simpler way to do this in Flash, but I am now interested in the math/physics behind this.

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  • generate k distinct number less then n

    - by davit-datuashvili
    hi i have following question task is this generate k distinct positive numbers less then n without duplication my method is following first create array size of k where we should write these numbers int a[]=new int[k]; //now i am going to cretae another array where i check if (at given number position is 1 then generate number again else put this number in a array and continue cycle i put here a piece of code and explanations int a[]=new int[k]; int t[]=new int[n+1]; Random r=new Random(); for (int i==0;i<t.length;i++){ t[i]=0;//initialize it to zero } int m=0;//initialize it also for (int i=0;i<a.length;i++){ m=r.nextInt(n);//random element between 0 and n if (t[m]==1){ //i have problem with this i want in case of duplication element occurs repeats this steps afain until there will be different number else{ t[m]=1; x[i]=m; } } so i fill concret my problem if t[m]==1 it means that this element occurs already so i want to generate new number but problem is that number of generated numbers will not be k beacuse if i==0 and occurs duplicate element and we write continue then it will switch at i==1 i need like goto for repeat step or for (int i=0;i<x.length;i++){ loop: m=r.nextInt(n); if ( x[m]==1){ continue loop; } else{ x[m]=1; a[i]=m; continue;//continue next step at i=1 and so on } } i need this code in java please help

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  • What is the best way to create a running integer id on the AppEngine data storage?

    - by Freed
    For various reasons, I need a unique running integer id for my entities stored on the Google AppEngine. The automatically generated key sort of has this behaviour, but it doesn't start from 1 (or 0) and doesn't guarantee that the generated integer part will come from a continuous sequence. What would be the best way to efficiently implement this on AppEngine? Is there any support from the storage system? To add to the complexity, I might need to do this over entities from different entity groups, meaning I can't just get the highest id right now and save an entity with the next id in a transaction. Might memcache be the way to go..? Edit: I havn't yet implemented this, but to clarify on the memcache idea. I know memcache is unreliable, but in practice it probably won't lose data "too often" to hurt performance. Basically, I would have a memcache entry for the last used id, update it (somehow atomically) whenever I create a new entity and use that id. In the case of memcache not having a value for this entry, I'd get the highest id so far by doing a query on my entities sorted by the id and update memcache (unless someone else had already done so). The only problem I can see with this right now would be atomicity of the operation as a whole if the save of my new entity was also part of a transaction. Thoughts..?

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  • Objects leaking immediately from allocation using either new or [[Object alloc] init];

    - by Sam
    While running Instruments to find leaks in my code, after I've loaded a file and populate an NSMutableArray with new objects, leaks pop up! I am correctly releasing the objects. Sample code below: //NSMutableArray declared as a retained property in the parent class if(!mutableArray) mutableArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:objectCount]; else [mutableArray removeAllObjects]; //Iterates through the read in data and populate the NSMutableArray for(int i = 0; i < objectCount; i++){ //Initializes a new object with data MyObject *object = [MyObject new]; //Adds the object to the mutableArray [mutableArray addObject:object]; //Releases the object [object release]; } I get a number of leaks from Instruments terminating at the addition of the 'object' into the 'mutableArray', but also including the allocation of the 'object' and the 'mutableArray'. I don't get it. Not to mention, this is happening on the first call of the enclosing method so the allocation of the NSMutableArray is being hit in the logic block, not the 'removeAllObjects' selector. Lastly, does Core Foundation have a major bug in it that randomly creates CFStrings and mismanages their memory? My code does not even use those, nor do the leaks where they occur have anything to do with my code. Almost all of my applications so far deal with OpenGL (in case anyone knows of a threading issue that arises from trying to synch the backend of the program with the front end of displaying the contents of an NSOpenGLView class or whatever it is).

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  • Hibernate Performance Best Practice?

    - by user829237
    Im writing a Web application using Hibernate 3. So, after a while i noticed that something was slow. So i tested hibernate profiler and found that hibernate will make unreasonably many db-calls for simple operation. The reason is ofcourse that i load an Object (this object has several "parents") and these "parents" have other "parents". So basicly hibernate loads them all, even though i just need the basic object. Ok, so i looked into lazy-loading. Which lead me into the Lazyloading-exception, because i have a MVC webapp. So now i'm a bit confused as to what is my best approach to this. Basicly all I need is to update a single field on an object. I already have the object-key. Should I: 1. Dig into Lazy-loading. And then rewrite my app for a open-session-view? 2. Dig into lazy-loading. And then rewrite my dao's to be more specific. E.g. writing DAO-methods that will return objects instanciated with only whats necessary for each use-case? Could be a lot of extra methods... 3. Scratch hibernate and do it myself? 4. Cant really think of other solutions right now. Any suggestions? What is the best practice?

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  • Writing all the html of a document with jquery instead of in the page body?

    - by Robert
    I'm a UI person currently working on a web application, where most of the people I work with are back end developers. I'm currently at a disagreement with them about whether or not the above is a prudent thing to do. This application doe use quite a bit of JavaScript, and wouldn't even work without it unfortunately. This being the case, One of the back end developers that I'm working with is claiming that pages could and even SHOULD be build completely with JavaScript or jquery. This caught me completely off guard. We're talking about div tags, lists, background images and text here. I'm trying to explain to him that this isn't the right way to do things at all, and from a best practices perspective: content(html) should be separate from presentation(css), and behavior(script etc.). I know that it's possible to write html in jquery, although I haven't done it, but am I wrong in my thinking that this isn't the way things should be done. Is it even possible to write ALL the code with jquery? would love to hear any thoughts either way, as I will be discussing this with him again tomorrow.

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  • rails route question

    - by badnaam
    I am trying to build a search functionality which at a high level works like this. 1 - I have a Search model, controller with a search_set action and search views/partial to render the search. 2 - At the home page a serach form is loaded with an empty search object or a search object initialized with session[:search] (which contains user search preferences, zip code, proximity, sort order, per page etc). This form has a post(:put) action to search_set. 3 - When a registered user performs a set the params of the search form are collected and a search record is saved against that user. If a unregistered user performs a search then the search set action simply stores the params in the session[:search]. In either case, the search is executed with the given params and the results are displayed. At this point the url of in the location bar is something like.. http://localhost:3000/searches/search_set?stype=1 At this point if the user simply hits enter on the location bar, I get an error that says "No action responded to show" I am guessing because the URL contains search_set which uses a put method and even though I have a search_show (:get) action (which simply reruns the search in the session or saved in the database) does not get called. How can I handle this situation where I can route a user hitting enter into the location bar to a get method? If this does not explain the problem , please let me know I can share more details/code etc. Thanks!

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  • SQL Server 2008, Books Online, and old documentation...

    - by Chris J
    [I have no idea if stackoverflow really is right right place for this, but don't know how many devs on here run into msi issues with SQL Server; suggest SuperUser or ServerFault if folk think it's better on either of those] About a year ago, when we were looking at moving our codebase forward and migrating to SQL Server 2008, I pulled down a copy of Books Online from the MSDN. Reviewed, did background research, fed results upstream, grabbed Express and tinkered with that. Then we got the nod to move forward (hurrah!) this past couple of weeks. So armed with Developer Edition, and running through the install, I've since found out I've zapped the Books Online MSI, no-ones got a copy of it, and Microsoft only have a later version (Oct 2009) available, so damned if I can update my SQL Server fully and properly... {mutter grumble}. Does anyone know if old versions of Books Online are available for download anywhere? Poking around the Microsoft download centre can't find it, neither is my google-fu finding it. For reference, I'm looking for SQLServer2008_BOL_August2008_ENU.msi ... This may just be a case of good ol' manual delete the files and (try) and clean up the registry :-(

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  • how to filter text of the selected value in drop down

    - by Carlos
    I have a drop down menu. Has product types. Product types have associated value (from drop down) values correspond to machine groups. So each option should have three variables--Machine name, values, machine group. I can get the Machine name and I can get the machine value (and display them in a different field)...what I have not been able to figure out is how to change the value into the Machine group. jQuery('#MachineName').bind('change', function() { //get selected value from drop down; var selectedValue = jQuery("#MachineName").val(); //populate a text field with the selected drop down value jQuery("#MachineValue").val(selectedValue); What I would like to do is keep that MachineValue but then populate another text field with the sorted MachineGroup I have been trying to run it through something like switch(jQuery(this).val()){ case "236" : newVal = "8"; break; But I don't want to "change" the value I just want to do an "if then" type filter, so maybe something like: '236' => "8", '237' => "5", I just don't know how to properly say "assign the MachineGroup based on the MachineValue" (and then have it populate a different text field) In the end I would have three fields. The drop down, the MachineValue and the MachineGroup. Drop down and value are done, I just need to do Group. (And I can sort Group based on MachineName...just not sure which would be easier)

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  • Why does defined(X) not work in a preprocessor definition without a space?

    - by Devin
    A preprocessor definition that includes defined(X) will never evaluate to true, but (defined X) will. This occurs in MSVC9; I have not tested other preprocessors. A simple example: #define FEATURE0 1 #define FEATURE1 0 #define FEATURE2 1 #define FEATURE3 (FEATURE0 && !FEATURE1 && (defined(FEATURE2))) #define FEATURE4 (FEATURE0 && !FEATURE1 && (defined FEATURE2)) #define FEATURE5 (FEATURE0 && !FEATURE1 && (defined (FEATURE2))) #if FEATURE3 #pragma message("FEATURE3 Enabled") #elif (FEATURE0 && !FEATURE1 && (defined(FEATURE2))) #pragma message("FEATURE3 Enabled (Fallback)") #endif #if FEATURE4 #pragma message("FEATURE4 Enabled") #elif (FEATURE0 && !FEATURE1 && (defined FEATURE2)) #pragma message("FEATURE4 Enabled (Fallback)") #endif #if FEATURE5 #pragma message("FEATURE5 Enabled") #elif (FEATURE0 && !FEATURE1 && (defined (FEATURE2))) #pragma message("FEATURE5 Enabled (Fallback)") #endif The output from the compiler is: 1FEATURE3 Enabled (Fallback) 1FEATURE4 Enabled 1FEATURE5 Enabled Working cases: defined (X), defined( X ), and defined X. Broken case: defined(X) Why is defined evaluated differently when part of a definition, as in the #if cases in the example, compared to direct evaluation, as in the #elif cases in the example?

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  • Java: GatheringByteChannel advantages?

    - by Jason S
    I'm wondering when the GatheringByteChannel's write methods (taking in an array of ByteBuffers) have advantages over the "regular" WritableByteChannel write methods. I tried a test where I could use the regular vs. the gathering write method on a FileChannel, with approx 400KB/sec total in ByteBuffers of between 23-27 bytes in length in both cases. Gathering writes used an array of 64. The regular method used up approx 12% of my CPU, and the gathering method used up approx 16% of my CPU (worse than the regular method!) This tells me it's NOT useful to use gathering writes on a FileChannel around this range of operating parameters. Why would this be the case, and when would you ever use GatheringByteChannel? (on network I/O?) Relevant differences here: public void log(Queue<Packet> packets) throws IOException { if (this.gather) { int Nbuf = 64; ByteBuffer[] bbufs = new ByteBuffer[Nbuf]; int i = 0; Packet p; while ((p = packets.poll()) != null) { bbufs[i++] = p.getBuffer(); if (i == Nbuf) { this.fc.write(bbufs); i = 0; } } if (i > 0) { this.fc.write(bbufs, 0, i); } } else { Packet p; while ((p = packets.poll()) != null) { this.fc.write(p.getBuffer()); } } }

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  • Mysterious combination

    - by pstone
    I decided to learn concurrency and wanted to find out in how many ways instructions from two different processes could overlap. The code for both processes is just a 10 iteration loop with 3 instructions performed in each iteration. I figured out the problem consisted of leaving X instructions fixed at a point and then fit the other X instructions from the other process between the spaces taking into account that they must be ordered (instruction 4 of process B must always come before instruction 20). I wrote a program to count this number, looking at the results I found out that the solution is n Combination k, where k is the number of instructions executed throughout the whole loop of one process, so for 10 iterations it would be 30, and n is k*2 (2 processes). In other words, n number of objects with n/2 fixed and having to fit n/2 among the spaces without the latter n/2 losing their order. Ok problem solved. No, not really. I have no idea why this is, I understand that the definition of a combination is, in how many ways can you take k elements from a group of n such that all the groups are different but the order in which you take the elements doesn't matter. In this case we have n elements and we are actually taking them all, because all the instructions are executed ( n C n). If one explains it by saying that there are 2k blue (A) and red (B) objects in a bag and you take k objects from the bag, you are still only taking k instructions when 2k instructions are actually executed. Can you please shed some light into this? Thanks in advance.

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  • form_form and custom parameter in path_prefix

    - by fguillen
    Hi people, I have this route: # config/routes.rb map.namespace :backshop, :path_prefix => '/:shop_id/admin' do |backshop| backshop.resources :items end And I want to use the form_for magic to reuse the same form on both: new and edit views: <% form_for [:backshop, @item] do |f| %> This used to works, and used to build a create url for the item or update url for the item depending on the status of the @item object. But this is not working on this case because the routes don't exists without the shop_id parameter, and I don't know how to say to the form_for something like this: <% form_for [:backshop, @item], :shop_id => @shop do |f| %> Because it tries to use the @item like the :shop_id parameter. Or like this <% form_for [:backshop, @shop, @item] do |f| %> Because it tries to build this url: backshop_shop_order_path I Know I can just to extract the form_for declaration from the partial and do different calls on depending if new or edit: <% form_for( @item, :url => backshop_items_path( @shop ) ) do |f| %> and <% form_for( @item, :url => backshop_item_path( @shop, @item ) ) do |f| %> But I just wanted don't do this because I have a bunch of models and is a few boring :) Thanks for any suggestion f.

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  • Modifying html of dom element that was created after page loaded

    - by Ben321
    I have two separate AJAX calls. One that gets a list of items from a txt file and creates an HTML table out of them and one that talks to a database to find how much each item costs and then lists this in the corresponding table cell for each item (I know this may sound like a strange approach, but it's a good option in our case...). The issue is that the price is not getting written to the table since the table is created (or to be precise, the rows of the table are created) after the page loads. I'm not sure how to fix this. $(document).ready(function() { makeItemTable(); listPrices(); ... }); function makeItemTable() { $.ajax({ url: 'products.php', type: 'GET' }) .done(function(response) { $('.price-table > tbody').html(response); }) } function listPrices() { .ajax({ url: 'prices.php', type: 'GET' }) .done(function(response) { priceData = $.parseJSON(response); $('.price-table tr').each(function() { var item = $(this).find('td:nth-child(1)').text(); if (priceData[item]) { var price = priceData[item]; $(this).find('td:nth-child(2)').text(price); } }) }

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  • Best method to cache objects in PHP?

    - by Martin Bean
    Hi, I'm currently developing a large site that handles user registrations. A social networking website for argument's sake. However, I've noticed a lag in page loads and deciphered that it is the creation of objects on pages that's slowing things down. For example, I have a Member object, that when instantiated with an ID passed as a construct parameter, it queries the database for that members' row in the members database table. Not bad, but this is created each time a page is loaded; and called more than once when say, calling an array of that particular members' friends, as a new Member object is created for each friend. So on a single page I can have upwards of seven of the same object, but containing different properties. What I'm wanting to do is to find a way to reduce the database load, and to allow persist objects between page loads. For example, the logged in user's object to be created on login (which I can do) but then stored somewhere for retrieval so I don't have to keep re-creating the object between page loads. What is the best solution for this? I've had a look at Memcache, but with it being a third-party module I can't have the web host install it on this occasion. What are my alternatives, and/or best practices in my case? Thanks in advance.

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  • ASP.NET configuration inheritance

    - by NowYouHaveTwoProblems
    I have an ASP.NET application that defines a custom configuration section in web.config. Recently I had a customer who wanted to deploy two instances of the application (for testing in addition to an existing production application). The configuration chosen by the customer was: foo.com - production application foo.com/Testing - test application In this case, the ASP.NET configuration engine decided to apply the settings at foo.com/web.config to foo.com/Testing/web.config. Thankfully this caused a configuration error because the section was redefined at the second level rather than giving the false impression that the two web applications were isolated. What I would like to do is to specify that my configuration section is not inherited and must be re-defined for any web application that requires it but I haven't been able to find a way to do this. My web.config ends up something like this <configuration> <configSections> <section name="MyApp" type="MyApp.ConfigurationSection"/> </configSections> <MyApp setting="value" /> <NestedSettingCollection> <Item key="SomeKey" value="SomeValue" /> <Item key="SomeOtherKey" value="SomeOtherValue" /> </NestedSettingCollection> </MyApp> </configuration>

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