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  • CSS overflow detection in JavaScript

    - by ring0
    In order to display a line of text (like in a forum), and end that line with "..." if the text would overflow the line (not truncating using the CSS overflow property), there are a number of ways. I'm still seeking the best solution. For instance, Adding in CSS a "..." as a background-image is a possibility, but it would appear all the time, and this is not a good solution. Some sites just count the characters and if over - say - 100, truncates the string to keep only 100 (or 97) chars and add a "..." at the end. But fonts are usually not proportional, so the result is not pretty. For instance the space - in pixels - taken by "AAA" and "iii" is clearly different "AAA" and "iii" via a proportional font have the same width There is another idea to get the exact size in pixels of the string: create in Javascript a DIV insert the text in it (via innerHTML for instance) measure the width (via .offsetWidth) which is not implemented yet. However, I wonder if there could be any browser compatibility problem? Did any one tried this solution? Other recommendations would be welcome.

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  • Resizing a container when child's visibility is changed?

    - by deux11
    When I set the visible property to false for a child in a container, how can I get the container to resize? In the example bellow, when clicking on "Toggle", "containerB" is hidden, but the main container's scrollable area is not resized. (I do not want to scroll through a lot of empty space.) <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ public function toggle():void { containerB.visible = !containerB.visible; } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:VBox height="300" width="200" horizontalAlign="center"> <mx:Button label="Toggle" click="toggle()" width="200"/> <mx:VBox id="containerA" height="400" width="150" horizontalAlign="center"> <mx:Button label="A" height="400" width="100"/> </mx:VBox> <mx:VBox id="containerB" height="400" width="150" horizontalAlign="center"> <mx:Button label="B" height="400" width="100"/> </mx:VBox> </mx:VBox>

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  • Can't combine "LINQ Join" with other tables

    - by FullmetalBoy
    The main problem is that I recieve the following message: "base {System.SystemException} = {"Unable to create a constant value of type 'BokButik1.Models.Book-Author'. Only primitive types ('such as Int32, String, and Guid') are supported in this context."}" based on this LinQ code: IBookRepository myIBookRepository = new BookRepository(); var allBooks = myIBookRepository.HamtaAllaBocker(); IBok_ForfattareRepository myIBok_ForfattareRepository = new Bok_ForfattareRepository(); var Book-Authors = myIBok_ForfattareRepository.HamtaAllaBok_ForfattareNummer(); var q = from booknn in allBooks join Book-Authornn in Book-Authors on booknn.BookID equals Book-Authornn.BookID select new { booknn.title, Book-AuthorID }; How shall I solve this problem to get a class instance that contain with property title and Book-AuthorID? // Fullmetalboy I also have tried making some dummy by using "allbooks" relation with Code Samples from the address http://www.hookedonlinq.com/JoinOperator.ashx. Unfortunately, still same problem. I also have taken account to Int32 due to entity framework http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb896317.aspx. Unfortunatley, still same problem. Using database with 3 tables and one of them is a many to many relationship. This database is used in relation with entity framework Book-Author Book-Author (int) BookID (int) Forfattare (int) Book BookID (int) title (string) etc etc etc

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  • Images not showing in ie7 using jquery cycle and jCarouselLite plugin

    - by Geetha
    Hi All, I am using jquery cycle and jCarouselLite plugin to display images as slide. Images are getting displayed in ie7. but working perfect in ie6. Image Property inside the cycle control: Protocol: Not available Type: Not available Address(url): Not available Size: Not available Dimensions: 100X100 but control having the url. if i tried that image url separate it showing the image. Code: $('#slide').cycle({ fx: 'fade', continuous: true, speed: 7500, timeout: 55000, sync: 1 }); Html Code: <div id="slide"> <img src="samp1.jpg" width="664" height="428" border="0" /> <img src="samp2.jpg" width="664" height="428" border="0" /> <img src="samp3.jpg" width="664" height="428" border="0" /> <img src="samp4.jpg" width="664" height="428" border="0" /> <img src="samp5.jpg" width="664" height="428" border="0" /> <img src="samp6.jpg" width="664" height="428" border="0" /> <img src="samp7.jpg" width="664" height="428" border="0" /> <img src="samp8.jpg" width="664" height="428" border="0" /> </div> Geetha.

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  • Best way to catch a WCF exception in Silverlight?

    - by wahrhaft
    I have a Silverlight 2 application that is consuming a WCF service. As such, it uses asynchronous callbacks for all the calls to the methods of the service. If the service is not running, or it crashes, or the network goes down, etc before or during one of these calls, an exception is generated as you would expect. The problem is, I don't know how to catch this exception. Because it is an asynchronous call, I can't wrap my begin call with a try/catch block and have it pick up an exception that happens after the program has moved on from that point. Because the service proxy is automatically generated, I can't put a try/catch block on each and every generated function that calls EndInvoke (where the exception actually shows up). These generated functions are also surrounded by External Code in the call stack, so there's nowhere else in the stack to put a try/catch either. I can't put the try/catch in my callback functions, because the exception occurs before they would get called. There is an Application_UnhandledException function in my App.xaml.cs, which captures all unhandled exceptions. I could use this, but it seems like a messy way to do it. I'd rather reserve this function for the truly unexpected errors (aka bugs) and not end up with code in this function for every circumstance I'd like to deal with in a specific way. Am I missing an obvious solution? Or am I stuck using Application_UnhandledException? [Edit] As mentioned below, the Error property is exactly what I was looking for. What is throwing me for a loop is that the fact that the exception is thrown and appears to be uncaught, yet execution is able to continue. It triggers the Application_UnhandledException event and causes VS2008 to break execution, but continuing in the debugger allows execution to continue. It's not really a problem, it just seems odd.

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  • How can I prevent a page to jump to top position after failed validation?

    - by Slauma
    I have a simple aspx page with a few TextBoxes and a submit button. Some fields are required and below the button is a ValidationSummary. The complete form is larger than screen height so one has to scroll down to reach the submit button. If I don't fill all required fields and click on submit validation fails as expected and the validation summary displays some info messages below the button. Validation happens on the client and no postback occurs. So this all works as wished. But disturbing is that the page moves ("jumps") to top position when I click on the submit button. To see the validation summary one has to move down the page again. I've tried to set the ShowSummary property to false (which doesn't make much sense): The validation still works (no postback) but in this case the page does not move to top position. So the problem seems to depend on rendering the validation texts. Is there a way to prevent this page jump? Thank you in advance!

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  • Deleting dynamic pageviews using Javascript

    - by user203127
    Hi, I created dynamic tab creation application using telerik radstrip. I can delete the tabs that are creating dynamically using crossbar option. When i am deleting the tabs its just deleting the tabs but not pageview corresponding to the tab. I have tried to delete the pageviews but i am getting error like "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object doesn't support this property or method" and pointing to multiPage.get_pageViews().remove(pageView); code. Can anyone help me how to delete pageviews. Thanks in advance. Javascript code. <script type="text/javascript"> /* <![CDATA[ */ function deleteTab(tabText) { var tabStrip = $find("<%= RadTabStrip1.ClientID %>"); var multiPage = $find("<%= RadMultiPage1.ClientID %>"); var tab = tabStrip.findTabByText(tabText); var pageView = tab.get_pageView(); var tabToSelect = tab.get_nextTab(); if (!tabToSelect) tabToSelect = tab.get_previousTab(); tabStrip.get_tabs().remove(tab); multiPage.get_pageView().remove(pageView); multiPage.get_pageViews().remove(pageView); if (tabToSelect) tabToSelect.set_selected(true); } /* ]]> */ </script>

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  • How to use a VB usercontrol on a C# page?

    - by ks78
    Hopefully someone will be able to point me in the right direction. I've created a usercontrol in VB that handles paging more efficiently than the DataPager (at least for very large datasets). I'd like to use it in a C# project, but I've been having trouble getting it to work. I've tried simply adding PagingControl.ascx to the C# project, but when I do that the markup and VB code behind don't seem to see each other. --Is this a namespace issue? I've tried adding the PagingControl.ascx to its own VB project, then adding that project to the C# project's solution, as well as a reference. --That almost works. I can register the PagingControl usercontrol in the markup. I can access the usercontrol's properties in the code behind, but any property that involves the UI of the usercontrol fails. Its seems as if the usercontrol's form hasn't had a chance to load by the time the C# page's Page_Load event handler fires. --Maybe this is an "order of operations" problem? At what point in the C# page's lifetime should a usercontrol's form be loaded? If anyone has any ideas or insight, I'd really appreciate it. Thanks in advance.

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  • LINQ to Entities question about orderby and null collections.

    - by Chevex
    I am currently developing a forum. I am new to LINQ and EF. In my forum I have a display that shows a list of topics with the most recent topics first. The problem is that "most recent" is relative to the topic's replies. So I don't want to order the list by the topic's posted date, rather I want to order the list by the topic's last reply's posted date. So that topics with newer replies pop back to the top of the list. This is rather simple if I knew that every topic had at least one reply; I would just do this: var topicsQuery = from x in board.Topics orderby x.Replies.Last().PostedDate descending select x; However, in many cases the topic has no replies. In which case I would like to use the topic's posted date instead. Is there a way within my linq query to order by x.PostedDate in the event that the topic has no replies? I'm getting confused by this and any help would be appreciated. With the above query, it breaks on topics with no replies because of the x.Replies.Last() which assumes there are replies. LastOrDefault() doesn't work because I need to access the PostedDate property which also assumes a reply exists. Thanks in advance for any insight.

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  • How to Resolve a Transformation Service with BRE that occurs after an Orchestration in an Itinerary?

    - by Maxime Labelle
    In trying to implement simple integration patterns with Biztalk ESB Toolkit 2.0, I'm facing a problem trying to resolve a Transformation Itinerary Service that occurs after an Orchestration. I'm using the BRE Resolver to execute rules that need to inspect the Context Message Type property to determine the appropriate map to use. However, once the message reaches the step in the Itinerary associated with the Transformation Service, the map fails to execute. From careful investigation, it appears that the message type is not supplied to the "Resolution" object that is used internally by the BRE resolver. Indeed, since the message leaving the preceding Orchestration is typed System.Xml.XmlDocument, the type of the message is "demoted" from the context. By tracking rules engine execution, I can observe that the type of the message is indeed lost when reaching the BRE resolver. The type of the message is empty, whereas the strongly-typed of the document is Microsoft.XLANGs.BaseTypes.Any. The Orchestration service that I use is taken straight from the samples that ship with ESB Toolkit 2.0. Is there a way to perform Context-Based BRE resolution after an Orchestration in an Itinerary?

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  • How does Backbone.js connect View to Model

    - by William Sham
    I am trying to learn backbone.js through the following example. Then I got stuck at the point ItemView = Backbone.View.extend why you can use this.model.get? I thought this is referring to the instance of ItemView that would be created. Then why would ItemView has a model property at all?!! (function($){ var Item = Backbone.Model.extend({ defaults: { part1: 'hello', part2: 'world' } }); var List = Backbone.Collection.extend({ model: Item }); var ItemView = Backbone.View.extend({ tagName: 'li', initialize: function(){ _.bindAll(this, 'render'); }, render: function(){ $(this.el).html('<span>'+this.model.get('part1')+' '+this.model.get('part2')+'</span>'); return this; } }); var ListView = Backbone.View.extend({ el: $('body'), events: { 'click button#add': 'addItem' }, initialize: function(){ _.bindAll(this, 'render', 'addItem', 'appendItem'); this.collection = new List(); this.collection.bind('add', this.appendItem); this.counter = 0; this.render(); }, render: function(){ $(this.el).append("<button id='add'>Add list item</button>"); $(this.el).append("<ul></ul>"); _(this.collection.models).each(function(item){ appendItem(item); }, this); }, addItem: function(){ this.counter++; var item = new Item(); item.set({ part2: item.get('part2') + this.counter }); this.collection.add(item); }, appendItem: function(item){ var itemView = new ItemView({ model: item }); $('ul', this.el).append(itemView.render().el); } }); var listView = new ListView(); })(jQuery);

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  • Reservation Solution for RealEstate integrating with Joomla

    - by Pennf0lio
    Hi, My client needs a Property (Just Land NO Houses) Reservation solution for their existing website (It runs in Joomla). I need some advice/Tips on what approach should I use. I'm looking for an Opensource solution that I can customize to my need. The Scenario: A buyer reserves a lot, A form appears gathers his details after that he/she pays for the reservation. FrontEnd: I need a form builder extension in Joomla that I could build custom form in gathering information (name, email, contact info, address...) from the buyer or the person who is reserving it. After I gather the info I need another extension that will handle the payment for reserving it. This is kinda shopping cart type approach, you see a product and the buy it. But would just need extra details. Backend: I can see all the details of the buyer from their name to the time they paid for a reservation. Thanks! P.S. I'm open to all Ideas. I'm not sure of this approach. Please let me know If you have some good Ideas or example.

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  • SPRING: How do you programmatically instantiate classes based on information passed from Flex UI

    - by babyangel86
    Imagine the UI passes back an XMl node as such: <properties> <type> Source </type> <name> Blooper </name> <delay> <type> Deterministic </type> <parameters> <param> 4 </param> </parameters> <delay> <batch> <type> Erlang </type> <parameters> <param> 4 </param> <param> 6 </param> </parameters> <batch> And behind the scene what it is asking that you instantiate a class as such: new Source("blooper", new Exp(4), new Erlang(4,6); The problem lies in the fact that you don't know what class you will need to processing, and you will be sent a list of these class definitions with instructions on how they can be linked to each other. I've heard that using a BeanFactoryPostProcessor might be helpful, or a property editor/convertor. However I am at a loss as to how best to use them to solve my problem. Any help you can provide will be much appreciated.

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  • .NET ValidationRule problem

    - by PaN1C_Showt1Me
    Hi ! I have a control with this validation <MyPicker.SelectedItem> <Binding Path="Person.Value" Mode="TwoWay" UpdateSourceTrigger="PropertyChanged" NotifyOnValidationError="True"> <Binding.ValidationRules> <rules:MyValidationRule ValidationType="notnull"/> </Binding.ValidationRules> </Binding> </MyPicker.SelectedItem> This is the Validation Class: class MyValidationRule : ValidationRule { private string _validationType; public string ValidationType { get { return _validationType; } set { _validationType = value; } } public override ValidationResult Validate(object value, CultureInfo cultureInfo) { ValidationResult trueResult = new ValidationResult(true, null); switch (_validationType.ToLower()) { case "notnull": return value == null ? new ValidationResult(false, "EMPTY FIELD") : trueResult; default: return trueResult; } } } Question: When the property is changed, then the Validate( ) method is called which is correct. But to call this method at the very beginning when the MyControl is created? I need to prove immediate after initialize if the there's a null value in the control (and display a validation error)

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  • NSTimer as a timeout mechanism

    - by alexantd
    I'm pretty sure this is really simple, and I'm just missing something obvious. I have an app that needs to download data from a web service for display in a UITableView, and I want to display a UIAlertView if the operation takes more than X seconds to complete. So this is what I've got (simplified for brevity): MyViewController.h @interface MyViewController : UIViewController <UITableViewDelegate, UITableViewDataSource> { NSTimer *timer; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSTimer *timer; MyViewController.m @implementation MyViewController @synthesize timer; - (void)viewDidLoad { timer = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:20 target:self selector:@selector(initializationTimedOut:) userInfo:nil repeats:NO]; [self doSomethingThatTakesALongTime]; [timer invalidate]; } - (void)doSomethingThatTakesALongTime { sleep(30); // for testing only // web service calls etc. go here } - (void)initializationTimedOut:(NSTimer *)theTimer { // show the alert view } My problem is that I'm expecting the [self doSomethingThatTakesALongTime] call to block while the timer keeps counting, and I'm thinking that if it finishes before the timer is done counting down, it will return control of the thread to viewDidLoad where [timer invalidate] will proceed to cancel the timer. Obviously my understanding of how timers/threads work is flawed here because the way the code is written, the timer never goes off. However, if I remove the [timer invalidate], it does.

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  • NHibernate query against the key field of a dictionary (map)

    - by Carl Raymond
    I have an object model where a Calendar object has an IDictionary<MembershipUser, Perms> called UserPermissions, where MembershipUser is an object, and Perms is a simple enumeration. This is in the mapping file for Calendar as <map name="UserPermissions" table="CalendarUserPermissions" lazy="true" cascade="all"> <key column="CalendarID"/> <index-many-to-many class="MembershipUser" column="UserGUID" /> <element column="Permissions" type="CalendarPermission" not-null="true" /> </map> Now I want to execute a query to find all calendars for which a given user has some permission defined. The permission is irrelevant; I just want a list of the calendars where a given user is present as a key in the UserPermissions dictionary. I have the username property, not a MembershipUser object. How do I build that using QBC (or HQL)? Here's what I've tried: ISession session = SessionManager.CurrentSession; ICriteria calCrit = session.CreateCriteria<Calendar>(); ICriteria userCrit = calCrit.CreateCriteria("UserPermissions.indices"); userCrit.Add(Expression.Eq("Username", username)); return calCrit.List<Calendar>(); This constructed invalid SQL -- the WHERE clause contained WHERE membership1_.Username = @p0 as expected, but the FROM clause didn't include the MemberhipUsers table. Also, I really had to struggle to learn about the .indices notation. I found it by digging through the NHibernate source code, and saw that there's also .elements and some other dotted notations. Where's a reference to the allowed syntax of an association path? I feel like what's above is very close, and just missing something simple.

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  • How do I initialize the controls in an InsertItemTemplate?

    - by Slauma
    I have - for instance - an asp:FormView which supports Read, Insert, Update, Delete and is bound to a DataSource: <asp:FormView ID="FormView1" runat="server" DataSourceID="ObjectDataSource1" > <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("MyText") %>' /> </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("MyText") %>' /> </EditItemTemplate> <InsertItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("MyText") %>' /> </InsertItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> If I am in Read-Mode or Edit-Mode the control is initialized with the property MyText of the current object which is bound to the FormView. But when I go to Insert-Mode I do not have a "current object" (FormView1.DataItem is indeed null) and the controls are empty. If I want to have my TextBox control initialized with a specific value how can I do that? In which event can I hook in to set default values to the controls in the InsertItemTemplate? Especially I have in mind using an ObjectDataSource. I was expecting that the InsertItemTemplate is initialized with a business object which underlies my ObjectDataSource and which is created by the ASP.NET framework simply by using its default constructor when the InsertItemTemplate gets activated. In the default constructor I would init the class members to the default values I'd like to have in my controls of the InsertItemTemplate. But unfortunately that's not the case: No "default" object is created and bound to the FormView. So it seems I have to initialize all controls separately or to create the default object manually and bind it to the InsertItemTemplate of the FormView. But how and where can I do that? Thanks in advance!

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  • How to synchronize Silverlight clients with WCF?

    - by user564226
    Hi, this is probably only some conceptual problem, but I cannot seem to find the ideal solution. I'd like to create a Silverlight client application that uses WCF to control a third party application via some self written webservice. If there is more than one Silverlight client, all clients should be synchronized, i.e. parameter changes from one client should be propagated to all clients. I set up a very simple Silverlight GUI that manipulates parameters which are passed to the server (class inherits INotifyPropertyChanged): public double Height { get { return frameworkElement.Height; } set { if (frameworkElement.Height != value) { frameworkElement.Height = value; OnPropertyChanged("Height", value); } } } OnPropertyChanged is responsible for transferring data. The WCF service (duplex net.tcp) maintains a list of all clients and as soon as it receives a data packet (XElement with parameter change description) it forwards this very packet to all clients but the one the packet was received from. The client receives the package, but now I'm not sure, what's the best way to set the property internally. If I use "Height" (see above) a new change message would be generated and sent to all other clients a.s.o. Maybe I could use the data field (frameworkElement.Height) itself or a function - but I'm not sure whether there would arise problems with data binding later on. Also I don't want to simply copy parts of the code properties, to prevent bugs with redundant code. So what would you recommend? Thanks!

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  • subquery in join with doctrine dql

    - by Martijn de Munnik
    I want to use DQL to create a query which looks like this in SQL: select e.* from e inner join ( select uuid, max(locale) as locale from e where locale = 'nl_NL' or locale = 'nl' group by uuid ) as e_ on e.uuid = e_.uuid and e.locale = e_.locale I tried to use QueryBuilder to generate the query and subquery. I think they do the right thing by them selves but I can't combine them in the join statement. Does anybody now if this is possible with DQL? I can't use native SQL because I want to return real objects and I don't know for which object this query is run (I only know the base class which have the uuid and locale property). $subQueryBuilder = $this->_em->createQueryBuilder(); $subQueryBuilder ->addSelect('e.uuid, max(e.locale) as locale') ->from($this->_entityName, 'e') ->where($subQueryBuilder->expr()->in('e.locale', $localeCriteria)) ->groupBy('e.uuid'); $queryBuilder = $this->_em->createQueryBuilder(); $queryBuilder ->addSelect('e') ->from($this->_entityName, 'e') ->join('('.$subQueryBuilder.') as', 'e_')->join ->where('e.uuid = e_.uuid') ->andWhere('e.locale = e_.locale');

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  • iPhone UISlider not visible

    - by John Qualis
    I want to add a UISlider to my app programmatically without using the IB. I am adding a UISlider to my UIViewController using the code below. However I don't see the slider when the view comes up. What am I missing? I am using iPhone SDK 3.1.2. Appreciate any help. @synthesize slider; .... - (void)viewDidLoad { ... ... slider = [[UISlider alloc] initWithFrame: CGRectMake(0, 480 - 80, 300, 20)]; slider.minimumValue = 0.0; slider.maximumValue = 100.0; slider.tag = 0; slider.value = 50; slider.continuous = YES; slider.enabled = YES; [slider addTarget:selfaction:@selector(handleSlider:)forControlEvents:UIControlEventValueChanged]; self.view addSubview:slider]; In the .h file ... UISlider *slider; ... @property (nonatomic, retain) UISlider *slider; - (void) handleSlider:(id)sender;

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  • LINQ-SQL Updating Multiple Rows in a single transaction

    - by RPM1984
    Hi guys, I need help re-factoring this legacy LINQ-SQL code which is generating around 100 update statements. I'll keep playing around with the best solution, but would appreciate some ideas/past experience with this issue. Here's my code: List<Foo> foos; int userId = 123; using (DataClassesDataContext db = new FooDatabase()) { foos = (from f in db.FooBars where f.UserId = userId select f).ToList(); foreach (FooBar fooBar in foos) { fooBar.IsFoo = false; } db.SubmitChanges() } Essentially i want to update the IsFoo field to false for all records that have a particular UserId value. Whats happening is the .ToList() is firing off a query to get all the FooBars for a particular user, then for each Foo object, its executing an UPDATE statement updating the IsFoo property. Can the above code be re-factored to one single UPDATE statement? Ideally, the only SQL i want fired is the below: UPDATE FooBars SET IsFoo = FALSE WHERE UserId = 123 EDIT Ok so looks like it cant be done without using db.ExecuteCommand. Grr...! What i'll probably end up doing is creating another extension method for the DLINQ namespace. Still require some hardcoding (ie writing "WHERE" and "UPDATE"), but at least it hides most of the implementation details away from the actual LINQ query syntax.

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  • Deal with undefined values in code or in the template?

    - by David
    I'm writing a web application (in Python, not that it matters). One of the features is that people can leave comments on things. I have a class for comments, basically like so: class Comment: user = ... # other stuff where user is an instance of another class, class User: name = ... # other stuff And of course in my template, I have <div>${comment.user.name}</div> Problem: Let's say I allow people to post comments anonymously. In that case comment.user is None (undefined), and of course accessing comment.user.name is going to raise an error. What's the best way to deal with that? I see three possibilities: Use a conditional in the template to test for that case and display something different. This is the most versatile solution, since I can change the way anonymous comments are displayed to, say, "Posted anonymously" (instead of "Posted by ..."), but I've often been told that templates should be mindless display machines and not include logic like that. Also, other people might wind up writing alternate templates for the same application, and I feel like I should be making things as easy as possible for the template writer. Implement an accessor method for the user property of a Comment that returns a dummy user object when the real user is undefined. This dummy object would have user.name = 'Anonymous' or something like that and so the template could access it and print its name with no error. Put an actual record in my database corresponding to a user with user.name = Anonymous (or something like that), and just assign that user to any comment posted when nobody's logged in. I know I've seen some real-world systems that operate this way. (phpBB?) Is there a prevailing wisdom among people who write these sorts of systems about which of these (or some other solution) is the best? Any pitfalls I should watch out for if I go one way vs. another? Whoever gives the best explanation gets the checkmark.

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  • Reverse geocode coordinates to street address and setting as subtitle in annotation?

    - by Krismutt
    Hey everybody! Basically I wanna reverse geocode my coordinates for my annotation and show the address as the subtitle for the annotation. I just cant figure out how to do it... savePosition.h #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import <MapKit/MapKit.h> #import <MapKit/MKReverseGeocoder.h> #import <AddressBook/AddressBook.h> @interface savePosition : NSObject <MKAnnotation, MKReverseGeocoderDelegate> { CLLocationCoordinate2D coordinate; } @property (nonatomic, readonly) CLLocationCoordinate2D coordinate; -(id)initWithCoordinate:(CLLocationCoordinate2D) coordinate; - (NSString *)subtitle; - (NSString *)title; @end savePosition.m @synthesize coordinate; -(NSString *)subtitle{ return [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%f", streetAddress]; } -(NSString *)title{ return @"Saved position"; } -(id)initWithCoordinate:(CLLocationCoordinate2D) coor{ coordinate=coor; NSLog(@"%f,%f",coor.latitude,coor.longitude); return self; MKReverseGeocoder *geocoder = [[MKReverseGeocoder alloc] initWithCoordinate:coordinate]; geocoder.delegate = self; [geocoder start]; } - (void)reverseGeocoder:(MKReverseGeocoder *)geocoder didFailWithError:(NSError *)error { } - (void)reverseGeocoder:(MKReverseGeocoder *)geocoder didFindPlacemark:(MKPlacemark *)placemark{ NSString *streetAddress = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@", [placemark.addressDictionary objectForKey:kABPersonAddressStreetKey]]; } @end any ideas?? Thanks in advance!

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  • Why does this program take up so much memory?

    - by Adrian
    I am learning Objective-C. I am trying to release all of the memory that I use. So, I wrote a program to test if I am doing it right: #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #define DEFAULT_NAME @"Unknown" @interface Person : NSObject { NSString *name; } @property (copy) NSString * name; @end @implementation Person @synthesize name; - (void) dealloc { [name release]; [super dealloc]; } - (id) init { if (self = [super init]) { name = DEFAULT_NAME; } return self; } @end int main (int argc, const char * argv[]) { NSAutoreleasePool * pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; Person *person = [[Person alloc] init]; NSString *str; int i; for (i = 0; i < 1e9; i++) { str = [NSString stringWithCString: "Name" encoding: NSUTF8StringEncoding]; person.name = str; [str release]; } [person release]; [pool drain]; return 0; } I am using a mac with snow leopard. To test how much memory this is using, I open Activity Monitor at the same time that it is running. After a couple of seconds, it is using gigabytes of memory. What can I do to make it not use so much?

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  • Is this a good decorator pattern for javascript?

    - by Kucebe
    I need some simple objects that could become more complex later, with many different properties, so i thought to decorator pattern. I made this looking at Crockford's power constructor and object augmentation: //add property to object Object.prototype.addProperty = function(name, func){ for(propertyName in this){ if(propertyName == name){ throw new Error(propertyName + " is already defined"); } } this[name] = func; }; //constructor of base object var BaseConstructor = function(param){ var _privateVar = param; return{ getPrivateVar: function(){ return _privateVar; } }; }; //a simple decorator, adds one private attribute and one privileged method var simpleDecorator = function(obj, param){ var _privateVar = param; var privilegedMethod1 = function(){ return "privateVar of decorator is: " + _privateVar; }; obj.addProperty("privilegedMethod1", privilegedMethod1); return obj; } //a more complex decorator, adds public and private properties var complexDecorator = function(obj, param1, param2){ //private properties var _privateVar = param1; var _privateMethod = function(x){ for(var i=0; i<x; i++){ _privateVar += x; } return _privateVar; }; //public properties var publicVar = "I'm public"; obj.addProperty("publicVar", publicVar); var privilegedMethod2 = function(){ return _privateMethod(param2); }; obj.addProperty("privilegedMethod2", privilegedMethod2); var publicMethod = function(){ var temp = this.privilegedMethod2(); return "do something: " + temp + " - publicVar is: " + this.publicVar; }; obj.addProperty("publicMethod", publicMethod); return obj; } //new basic object var myObj = BaseConstructor("obj1"); //the basic object will be decorated var myObj = simpleDecorator(obj, "aParam"); //the basic object will be decorated with other properties var myObj = complexDecorator(obj, 2, 3); Is this a good way to have Decorator Pattern in javascript? Are there other better ways to do this?

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