Search Results

Search found 22300 results on 892 pages for 'half bit'.

Page 782/892 | < Previous Page | 778 779 780 781 782 783 784 785 786 787 788 789  | Next Page >

  • Using before_create in Rails to normalize a many to many table

    - by weotch
    I am working on a pretty standard tagging implementation for a table of recipes. There is a many to many relationship between recipes and tags so the tags table will be normalized. Here are my models: class Recipe < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :tag_joins, :as => :parent has_many :tags, :through => :tag_joins end class TagJoin < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :parent, :polymorphic => true belongs_to :tag, :counter_cache => :usage_count end class Tag < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :tag_joins, :as => :parent has_many :recipes, :through => :tag_joins, :source => :parent , :source_type => 'Recipe' before_create :normalizeTable def normalizeTable t = Tag.find_by_name(self.name) if (t) j = TagJoin.new j.parent_type = self.tag_joins.parent_type j.parent_id = self.tag_joins.parent_id j.tag_id = t.id return false end end end The last bit, the before_create callback, is what I'm trying to get working. My goal is if there is an attempt to create a new tag with the same name as one already in the table, only a single row in the join table is produced, using the existing row in tags. Currently the code dies with: undefined method `parent_type' for #<Class:0x102f5ce38> Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • How do I setup model associations in an RSpec test?

    - by Eric M.
    I've pastied the specs I've written for the posts/show.html.erb view in an application I'm writing as a means to learn RSpec. I am still learning about mocks and stubbing. This question is specific to the "should list all related comments" spec. What I want is to test that the show view displays a post's comments. But what I'm not sure about is how to setup this test and then have the test iterate through with should contain('xyz') statements. Any hints? Other suggestions are also appreciated! Thanks. ---Edit Some more information. I have a named_scope applied to comments in my view (I know, I did this a bit backwards in this case), so @post.comments.approved_is(true). The code pastied responds with the error "undefined method `approved_is' for #", which makes sense since I told it stub comments and return a comment. I'm still not sure, however, how to chain the stubs so that @post.comments.approved_is(true) will return an array of comments.

    Read the article

  • CakePHP dropping session between pages

    - by DavidYell
    Hi, I have an application with multiple regions and various incoming links. The premise, well it worked before, is that in the app_controller, I break out these incoming links and set them in the session. So I have a huge beforeFilter() in my *app_controller* which catches these and sets two variables in the session. Viewing.region and Search.engine, no problem. The problem arises that the session does not seem to be persistant across page requests. So for example, going to /reviews/write (userReviews/add) should have a session available which was set when the user arrived at the site. Although it seems to have vanished! It would appear that unless $this-params is caught explicitly in the *app_controller* and a session variable written, it does not exist on other pages. So far I have tried, swapping between storing session in 'cake' and 'php' both seem to exhibit the same behaviour. I use 'php' as a default. My Session.timeout is '120', Session.checkAgent is False and Security.level is 'low'. All of which should give enough leniency to the framework to allow sessions the most room to live! I'm a bit stumped as to why the session seems to be either recreated or blanked when a new page is being requested. I have commented out the requestAction() calls to make sure that isn't confusing the session request object also, which doesn't seem to make a difference. Any help would be great, as I don't have to have to recode the site to pass all the various variables via parameters in the url, as that would suck, and it's worked before, thus switching on $this-Session-read('Viewing.region') in all my code!

    Read the article

  • Asynchronous Controller is blocking requests in ASP.NET MVC through jQuery

    - by Jason
    I have just started using the AsyncController in my project to take care of some long-running reports. Seemed ideal at the time since I could kick off the report and then perform a few other actions while waiting for it to come back and populate elements on the screen. My controller looks a bit like this. I tried to use a thread to perform the long task which I'd hoped would free up the controller to take more requests: public class ReportsController : AsyncController { public void LongRunningActionAsync() { AsyncManager.OutstandingOperations.Increment(); var newThread = new Thread(LongTask); newThread.Start(); } private void LongTask() { // Do something that takes a really long time //....... AsyncManager.OutstandingOperations.Decrement(); } public ActionResult LongRunningActionCompleted(string message) { // Set some data up on the view or something... return View(); } public JsonResult AnotherControllerAction() { // Do a quick task... return Json("..."); } } But what I am finding is that when I call LongRunningAction using the jQuery ajax request, any further requests I make after that back up behind it and are not processed until LongRunningAction completes. For example, call LongRunningAction which takes 10 seconds and then call AnotherControllerAction which is less than a second. AnotherControllerAction simply waits until LongRunningAction completes before returning a result. I've also checked the jQuery code, but this still happens if I specifically set "async: true": $.ajax({ async: true, type: "POST", url: "/Reports.aspx/LongRunningAction", dataType: "html", success: function(data, textStatus, XMLHttpRequest) { // ... }, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { // ... } }); At the moment I just have to assume that I'm using it incorrectly, but I'm hoping one of you guys can clear my mental block!

    Read the article

  • Design for fastest page download

    - by mexxican
    I have a file with millions of URLs/IPs and have to write a program to download the pages really fast. The connection rate should be at least 6000/s and file download speed at least 2000 with avg. 15kb file size. The network bandwidth is 1 Gbps. My approach so far has been: Creating 600 socket threads with each having 60 sockets and using WSAEventSelect to wait for data to read. As soon as a file download is complete, add that memory address(of the downloaded file) to a pipeline( a simple vector ) and fire another request. When the total download is more than 50Mb among all socket threads, write all the files downloaded to the disk and free the memory. So far, this approach has been not very successful with the rate at which I could hit not shooting beyond 2900 connections/s and downloaded data rate even less. Can somebody suggest an alternative approach which could give me better stats. Also I am working windows server 2008 machine with 8 Gig of memory. Also, do we need to hack the kernel so as we could use more threads and memory. Currently I can create a max. of 1500 threads and memory usage not going beyond 2 gigs [ which technically should be much more as this is a 64-bit machine ]. And IOCP is out of question as I have no experience in that so far and have to fix this application today. Thanks Guys!

    Read the article

  • Mgmt wants to re-title my position: Any help...? [closed]

    - by JohnFlyTN
    Management here wants to re-title my position, since I'm doing quite a bit of different work than was originally planned. They want my input. After a quick glance over my skill set and job duties, what would we need to describe this position as? I'll just list things I'm at least proficient in, I will not list things I have a passing knowledge of. About me : ~10 years software development. Languages : C, C++, Perl, PHP, C#, TCL, Unix shell scripting, SQL (TSQL, PLSQL) Systems : MS-Dos, Windows 3.1 to 7 for client, NT 4 to 2008 for server, OS/2, IBM MVS & z/OS, Linux ( multiple distros), AIX Current position: I do all sorts of in-house software. The range is single user apps to large systems spanning multiple OS's. One of the larger projects I've designed and coded is about 100k lines of C#, and a database where I have been the sole designer and maintainer. I have near total freedom to design as I see fit, restraints are usually budgetary. Skills required to replace me in my current role: Windows and Unix admin, Database design, .NET up to 3.5 (C#, ASP.NET), C++, Perl, good skills in designing large and efficient data processing systems. Given this small level of information what would you see this as being titled? (is more information required to render a decision?)

    Read the article

  • Does Monitor.Wait ensure that fields are re-read?

    - by Marc Gravell
    It is generally accepted (I believe!) that a lock will force any values from fields to be reloaded (essentially acting as a memory-barrier or fence - my terminology in this area gets a bit loose, I'm afraid), with the consequence that fields that are only ever accessed inside a lock do not themselves need to be volatile. (If I'm wrong already, just say!) A good comment was raised here, questioning whether the same is true if code does a Wait() - i.e. once it has been Pulse()d, will it reload fields from memory, or could they be in a register (etc). Or more simply: does the field need to be volatile to ensure that the current value is obtained when resuming after a Wait()? Looking at reflector, Wait calls down into ObjWait, which is managed internalcall (the same as Enter). The scenario in question was: bool closing; public bool TryDequeue(out T value) { lock (queue) { // arbitrary lock-object (a private readonly ref-type) while (queue.Count == 0) { if (closing) { // <==== (2) access field here value = default(T); return false; } Monitor.Wait(queue); // <==== (1) waits here } ...blah do something with the head of the queue } } Obviously I could just make it volatile, or I could move this out so that I exit and re-enter the Monitor every time it gets pulsed, but I'm intrigued to know if either is necessary.

    Read the article

  • Theme-aware XAML resources in a WP7 project

    - by SandRock
    I'm making a Windows Phone 7 application and I'm a bit confused with dark/light themes. With a panorama, you very often set a background image. The issue is it's very hard to make a picture which is right for both dark and light themes. How are we supposed to proceed? Is there a way to force a dark/light theme for a panorama? This will avoid making theme-specific panorama background pictures. Then how do I do? I found xaml files in C:\Program Files (x86)\Microsoft SDKs\Windows Phone\v7.0\Design. If this is a right way to proceed, how can I import them for my panorama? Or if there's no way (or if it's wrong) to force a dark/light theme: how to write conditional XAML to set correct resources? Now I have the following XAML which is fine with the dark theme: <ImageBrush x:Key="PageBackground" ImageSource="Resources/PageBackground.png" Stretch="None" /> <ImageBrush x:Key="PanoramaBackground" ImageSource="Resources/PanoramaBackground.png" Stretch="None" /> But when I use a light theme, black controls and black texts are hard to read with my dark background pictures. So I made different pictures that I can use this way: <ImageBrush x:Key="PageBackground" ImageSource="Resources/PageBackgroundLight.png" Stretch="None" /> <ImageBrush x:Key="PanoramaBackground" ImageSource="Resources/PanoramaBackgroundLight.png" Stretch="None" /> Now my issue is to make XAML conditionnal to declare the right thing depending on the current theme. I found no relevant way on the Internet. I would prefer not to use code or code-behind for that because I believe XAML is able to do this (I just don't know how).

    Read the article

  • Why does mmap() fail with ENOMEM on a 1TB sparse file?

    - by metadaddy
    I've been working with large sparse files on openSUSE 11.2 x86_64. When I try to mmap() a 1TB sparse file, it fails with ENOMEM. I would have thought that the 64 bit address space would be adequate to map in a terabyte, but it seems not. Experimenting further, a 1GB file works fine, but a 2GB file (and anything bigger) fails. I'm guessing there might be a setting somewhere to tweak, but an extensive search turns up nothing. Here's some sample code that shows the problem - any clues? #include <errno.h> #include <fcntl.h> #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <string.h> #include <sys/mman.h> #include <sys/types.h> #include <unistd.h> int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { char * filename = argv[1]; int fd; off_t size = 1UL << 40; // 30 == 1GB, 40 == 1TB fd = open(filename, O_RDWR | O_CREAT | O_TRUNC, 0666); ftruncate(fd, size); printf("Created %ld byte sparse file\n", size); char * buffer = (char *)mmap(NULL, (size_t)size, PROT_READ | PROT_WRITE, MAP_SHARED, fd, 0); if ( buffer == MAP_FAILED ) { perror("mmap"); exit(1); } printf("Done mmap - returned 0x0%lx\n", (unsigned long)buffer); strcpy( buffer, "cafebabe" ); printf("Wrote to start\n"); strcpy( buffer + (size - 9), "deadbeef" ); printf("Wrote to end\n"); if ( munmap(buffer, (size_t)size) < 0 ) { perror("munmap"); exit(1); } close(fd); return 0; }

    Read the article

  • Why can't we just use a hash of passphrase as the encryption key (and IV) with symmetric encryption algorithms?

    - by TX_
    Inspired by my previous question, now I have a very interesting idea: Do you really ever need to use Rfc2898DeriveBytes or similar classes to "securely derive" the encryption key and initialization vector from the passphrase string, or will just a simple hash of that string work equally well as a key/IV, when encrypting the data with symmetric algorithm (e.g. AES, DES, etc.)? I see tons of AES encryption code snippets, where Rfc2898DeriveBytes class is used to derive the encryption key and initialization vector (IV) from the password string. It is assumed that one should use a random salt and a shitload of iterations to derive secure enough key/IV for the encryption. While deriving bytes from password string using this method is quite useful in some scenarios, I think that's not applicable when encrypting data with symmetric algorithms! Here is why: using salt makes sense when there is a possibility to build precalculated rainbow tables, and when attacker gets his hands on hash he looks up the original password as a result. But... with symmetric data encryption, I think this is not required, as the hash of password string, or the encryption key, is never stored anywhere. So, if we just get the SHA1 hash of password, and use it as the encryption key/IV, isn't that going to be equally secure? What is the purpose of using Rfc2898DeriveBytes class to generate key/IV from password string (which is a very very performance-intensive operation), when we could just use a SHA1 (or any other) hash of that password? Hash would result in random bit distribution in a key (as opposed to using string bytes directly). And attacker would have to brute-force the whole range of key (e.g. if key length is 256bit he would have to try 2^256 combinations) anyway. So either I'm wrong in a dangerous way, or all those samples of AES encryption (including many upvoted answers here at SO), etc. that use Rfc2898DeriveBytes method to generate encryption key and IV are just wrong.

    Read the article

  • How to run a javascript function before postback of asp.net button?

    - by Curtis White
    I'm using Javascript to create a DIV element and open up a new page by using onclientclick. This works great. Now, I need to write to it from the server side and this element must be created before it is posted back. How do I get the javascript to execute before the postback? Currently, I have to press the button twice because the element doesn't exist to write too on the first click. To be clear, I need this to execute before the "OnClick" of the button. Update: It looks like the Javascript function is called before the postback but the element is not updated until I run the second postback. Hmm Update: Unfortunately it is a bit more complicated then this. I'm creating a div tag in javascript to open a new window. Inside the div tag, I'm using a databinding syntax <%=Preview% so that I can get access to this element on the server side. From the server side, I'm injecting the code. I'm thinking this may be a chicken-egg problem but not sure. UPDATE! It is not the Javascript not running first. It is the databinding mechanism which is reading the blank variable before I'm able to set it. Hmm

    Read the article

  • Yet another question about C++ books..

    - by suicideducky
    Intro rant Hey all, so after just over a year of browsing I decided it's time to ask a question for myself, it's sadly similar to many that have been asked before. I'm 18, am studying towards a BSc in Comp SCi and have been programming 'on and off' for about 6 years now, after wrestling with C++ for a bit then stumbling upon (and reading cover to cover) "Programming: Principles and Practice Using C++" by the great man himself I feel pretty comfortable with C++, I am almost finished writing my first open source program in C++ (a mediawiki parser, http://code.google.com/p/apertium-mediawiki/). I have decided I want to really get to know the power of C++, get familiar with some of its 'darker' corners and also delve into game programming, at this point I am rather keen on the book "Essential 3D Game Programming: with C++ and OpenGL" (released 24 may '10), I would also like to get 1 or 2 other books on 'general C++' that I can read cover to cover during my spare time. At this point I am pretty open to suggestions I would like something in the intermediate/advanced zone, some books I am rather keen on include: The C++ Standard Library: A tutorial and reference, C++ Template, the complete guide, and Modern C++ Design: Generic Programming and Design Patterns Applied Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Connect 4 C# (How to draw the grid)

    - by Matt Wilde
    I've worked out most of the code and have several game classes. The one bit I'm stuck on at the moment, it how to draw the actual Connect 4 grid. Can anyone tell me what's wrong with this for loop? I get no errors but the grid doesn't appear. I'm using C#. private void Drawgrid() { Brush b = Brushes.Black; Pen p = Pens.Black; for (int xCoor = XStart, col = 0; xCoor < XStart + ColMax * DiscSpace; xCoor += DiscSpace, col++) // x coordinate beginning; while the x coordinate is smaller than the max column size, times it by // the space between each disc and then add the x coord to the disc space in order to create a new circle. for (int yCoor = YStart, row = RowMax - 1; yCoor < YStart + RowMax * DiscScale; yCoor += DiscScale, row--) { switch (Grid.State[row, col]) { case GameGrid.Gridvalues.Red: b = Brushes.Red; break; case GameGrid.Gridvalues.Yellow: b = Brushes.Yellow; break; case GameGrid.Gridvalues.None: b = Brushes.Aqua; break; } MainDisplay.DrawEllipse(p, xCoor, yCoor, 50, 50); MainDisplay.FillEllipse(b, xCoor, yCoor, 50, 50); } Invalidate(); } Thanks.

    Read the article

  • own drawImage / drawLine in OpenGL

    - by Chrise
    I'm implementing some native 2D-draw functions in my graphics engine for android, but now there's another question coming up, when I observe the performance of my program. At the moment I'm implementing a drawLine/drawImage function. In summary, there are following different values for drawing each different line / image: the color the alpha value the width of the line rotation (only for images) size/scale (also for images) blending method (subrtract, add, normal-alpha) Now, when an imageLine is drawn, I put the CPU-calculated vertex-positions and uv-values for 6 vertices (2 triangles), into a Floatbuffer and draw it immediately with drawArrays, after passing information for drawing (color,alpha, etc.) via uniforms to the shader. When I draw an image, the pre-set VBO is directly drawn after passing information. The first fact I recognized, is: of course drawing Images is much faster, than imagelines (beacuse of VBOs), but also: I cannot pre-put vertex-data into a VBO for imageLines, because imageLines have no static shape like normal images (varying linelength, varying linewidth and the vertex positions of x1,y1 and x2,y2 change too often) That's why I use a normal Floatbuffer, instead of a VBO. So my question is: What's the best way for managing images, and other 2D-graphics functions. For me it's some kind of important, that the user of the engine is able to draw as many images/2D graphics as possible, without loosing to much performance. You can find the functions for drawing images, imagelines, rects, quads, etc. here: https://github.com/Chrise55/LLama3D/blob/master/Llama3DLibrary/src/com/llama3d/object/graphics/image/ImageBase.java Here an example how it looks with many images (testing artificial neural networks), it works fine, but already little bit slow with that many images... :(

    Read the article

  • Perl : In splice() type of arg1 must be array, cannot be scalar dereference. How to fix?

    - by Michael Mao
    I am trying to comprehend the reference/dereference system in Perl. What I am trying to do is to remove an element by using reference: my $ref= \@{$collection{$_[0]}}; # delete($$ref[$i]); # delete works, I've tested that already splice($$ref, $i, 1); # this wouldn't do. I first tried the delete() subroutine, it works; however, it doesn't shift the index after the removed elements forward by 1, so I cannot continue working on other stuff. I then Googled and found the splice() subroutine which does delete and shift in one go. But the error feedback tells me that "Type of arg 1 to splice must be array (not scalar dereference)..." I then tried something like this: splice(@{$$ref}, $i, 1); That resulted in another error like this: "Not a SCALAR reference at...(pointing at that line)" So I am a bit puzzled, how could I handle this issue? I prefer not using any CPAN or additional library for the solution, if possible.

    Read the article

  • Mapping element via joining table with NHibernate

    - by NhibernateIdiot
    This is stuff ive done lots of times before but my mind is just blanking at the moment, i will try and give a simple overview of my current situation. I currently have 3 tables as shown below: Office > id, name Person > id, name Office_Personnel > office_id, person_id I then have a model for Person (id, name) and Office, however the Office model contains personnel information: public class Office { int Id {get;set;} string Name {get;set;} ICollection<Person> Personnel {get;set;} } Mapping person is easy, but now im a bit stumped as to why office wont map properly. I chose to use a set when I was mapping the Personnel as there shouldn't be any duplicates, however it doesn't seem to work as I would expect... <set name="Personnel" table="office_personnel" cascade="all"> <key column="office_id" /> <one-to-many class="Person"/> </set> Now one thing that strikes me as odd is that there is no indication as to what person should be binding to (person_id). It keeps trying to find *office_id* column within the Person table. I'm sure this is just some simple problem and im being an idiot, but any help would be great! On a side note, I was weighing up if I should even bother having a middle man table, as I could directly put an Office_Id column within the Person table, but im not 100% sure if in my real project the Person class could be in multiple Offices further down the line...

    Read the article

  • Why does reusing arrays increase performance so significantly in c#?

    - by Willem
    In my code, I perform a large number of tasks, each requiring a large array of memory to temporarily store data. I have about 500 tasks. At the beginning of each task, I allocate memory for an array : double[] tempDoubleArray = new double[M]; M is a large number depending on the precise task, typically around 2000000. Now, I do some complex calculations to fill the array, and in the end I use the array to determine the result of this task. After that, the tempDoubleArray goes out of scope. Profiling reveals that the calls to construct the arrays are time consuming. So, I decide to try and reuse the array, by making it static and reusing it. It requires some additional juggling to figure out the minimum size of the array, requiring an extra pass through all tasks, but it works. Now, the program is much faster (from 80 sec to 22 sec for execution of all tasks). double[] tempDoubleArray = staticDoubleArray; However, I'm a bit in the dark of why precisely this works so well. Id say that in the original code, when the tempDoubleArray goes out of scope, it can be collected, so allocating a new array should not be that hard right? I ask this because understanding why it works might help me figuring out other ways to achieve the same effect, and because I would like to know in what cases allocation gives performance issues.

    Read the article

  • DCI: How to implement Context with Dependency Injection?

    - by ciscoheat
    Most examples of a DCI Context are implemented as a Command pattern. When using Dependency Injection though, it's useful to have the dependencies injected in the constructor and send the parameters into the executing method. Compare the Command pattern class: public class SomeContext { private readonly SomeRole _someRole; private readonly IRepository<User> _userRepository; // Everything goes into the constructor for a true encapsuled command. public SomeContext(SomeRole someRole, IRepository<User> userRepository) { _someRole = someRole; _userRepository = userRepository; } public void Execute() { _someRole.DoStuff(_userRepository); } } With the Dependency injected class: public class SomeContext { private readonly IRepository<User> _userRepository; // Only what can be injected using the DI provider. public SomeContext(IRepository<User> userRepository) { _userRepository = userRepository; } // Parameters from the executing method public void Execute(SomeRole someRole) { someRole.DoStuff(_userRepository); } } The last one seems a bit nicer, but I've never seen it implemented like this so I'm curious if there are any things to consider.

    Read the article

  • Creating a Month Dropdown in C# ASP.NET MVC

    - by Chris M
    This method seems stupid and a bit heavy; is there a more optimal way of creating the same thing (its for an MVC View Dropdown) private List<KeyValuePair<int, string>> getMonthListDD { get { var dDur = new List<KeyValuePair<int, string>>(); dDur.Add(new KeyValuePair<int, string>(1, "January")); dDur.Add(new KeyValuePair<int, string>(2, "Febuary")); dDur.Add(new KeyValuePair<int, string>(3, "March")); dDur.Add(new KeyValuePair<int, string>(4, "April")); dDur.Add(new KeyValuePair<int, string>(5, "May")); dDur.Add(new KeyValuePair<int, string>(6, "June")); dDur.Add(new KeyValuePair<int, string>(7, "July")); dDur.Add(new KeyValuePair<int, string>(8, "August")); dDur.Add(new KeyValuePair<int, string>(9, "September")); dDur.Add(new KeyValuePair<int, string>(10, "October")); dDur.Add(new KeyValuePair<int, string>(11, "November")); dDur.Add(new KeyValuePair<int, string>(12, "December")); return dDur; } }

    Read the article

  • Render different view depending on the type of the data

    - by Miau
    Hi there So lets suppose we have an action in a controller that looks a bit like this: public ViewResult SomeAction(int id) { var data = _someService.GetData(id); ... //create new view model based on the data here return View(viewModel); } What I m trying to figure out is the best way to render a diferent view based on the type fo the data. the "_someService.GetData method returns an data that knows its out type (ie not only you can do typeof(data) but also you can do data.DataType and you ll get an enum value so I could achieve what I m trying to do doing something kinda like this public ViewResult SomeAction(int id) { var data = _someService.GetData(id); //I m mapping fields to the viewModel here var viewModel = GetViewModel(data); swtich(data.DataType) case DataType.TypeOne: return View("TypeOne", viewModel); break; ... } But this does not seem to be the nicest way, (I dont event know if it would work) Is this the way to go? Should I use some sort of RenderPartial Aproach? after all , waht will change in the view is mostly the order of the data (ie the rest of the view would be quite similar) Cheers

    Read the article

  • Adapting non-iterable containers to be iterated via custom templatized iterator

    - by DAldridge
    I have some classes, which for various reasons out of scope of this discussion, I cannot modify (irrelevant implementation details omitted): class Foo { /* ... irrelevant public interface ... */ }; class Bar { public: Foo& get_foo(size_t index) { /* whatever */ } size_t size_foo() { /* whatever */ } }; (There are many similar 'Foo' and 'Bar' classes I'm dealing with, and it's all generated code from elsewhere and stuff I don't want to subclass, etc.) [Edit: clarification - although there are many similar 'Foo' and 'Bar' classes, it is guaranteed that each "outer" class will have the getter and size methods. Only the getter method name and return type will differ for each "outer", based on whatever it's "inner" contained type is. So, if I have Baz which contains Quux instances, there will be Quux& Baz::get_quux(size_t index), and size_t Baz::size_quux().] Given the design of the Bar class, you cannot easily use it in STL algorithms (e.g. for_each, find_if, etc.), and must do imperative loops rather than taking a functional approach (reasons why I prefer the latter is also out of scope for this discussion): Bar b; size_t numFoo = b.size_foo(); for (int fooIdx = 0; fooIdx < numFoo; ++fooIdx) { Foo& f = b.get_foo(fooIdx); /* ... do stuff with 'f' ... */ } So... I've never created a custom iterator, and after reading various questions/answers on S.O. about iterator_traits and the like, I came up with this (currently half-baked) "solution": First, the custom iterator mechanism (NOTE: all uses of 'function' and 'bind' are from std::tr1 in MSVC9): // Iterator mechanism... template <typename TOuter, typename TInner> class ContainerIterator : public std::iterator<std::input_iterator_tag, TInner> { public: typedef function<TInner& (size_t)> func_type; ContainerIterator(const ContainerIterator& other) : mFunc(other.mFunc), mIndex(other.mIndex) {} ContainerIterator& operator++() { ++mIndex; return *this; } bool operator==(const ContainerIterator& other) { return ((mFunc.target<TOuter>() == other.mFunc.target<TOuter>()) && (mIndex == other.mIndex)); } bool operator!=(const ContainerIterator& other) { return !(*this == other); } TInner& operator*() { return mFunc(mIndex); } private: template<typename TOuter, typename TInner> friend class ContainerProxy; ContainerIterator(func_type func, size_t index = 0) : mFunc(func), mIndex(index) {} function<TInner& (size_t)> mFunc; size_t mIndex; }; Next, the mechanism by which I get valid iterators representing begin and end of the inner container: // Proxy(?) to the outer class instance, providing a way to get begin() and end() // iterators to the inner contained instances... template <typename TOuter, typename TInner> class ContainerProxy { public: typedef function<TInner& (size_t)> access_func_type; typedef function<size_t ()> size_func_type; typedef ContainerIterator<TOuter, TInner> iter_type; ContainerProxy(access_func_type accessFunc, size_func_type sizeFunc) : mAccessFunc(accessFunc), mSizeFunc(sizeFunc) {} iter_type begin() const { size_t numItems = mSizeFunc(); if (0 == numItems) return end(); else return ContainerIterator<TOuter, TInner>(mAccessFunc, 0); } iter_type end() const { size_t numItems = mSizeFunc(); return ContainerIterator<TOuter, TInner>(mAccessFunc, numItems); } private: access_func_type mAccessFunc; size_func_type mSizeFunc; }; I can use these classes in the following manner: // Sample function object for taking action on an LMX inner class instance yielded // by iteration... template <typename TInner> class SomeTInnerFunctor { public: void operator()(const TInner& inner) { /* ... whatever ... */ } }; // Example of iterating over an outer class instance's inner container... Bar b; /* assume populated which contained items ... */ ContainerProxy<Bar, Foo> bProxy( bind(&Bar::get_foo, b, _1), bind(&Bar::size_foo, b)); for_each(bProxy.begin(), bProxy.end(), SomeTInnerFunctor<Foo>()); Empirically, this solution functions correctly (minus any copy/paste or typos I may have introduced when editing the above for brevity). So, finally, the actual question: I don't like requiring the use of bind() and _1 placeholders, etcetera by the caller. All they really care about is: outer type, inner type, outer type's method to fetch inner instances, outer type's method to fetch count inner instances. Is there any way to "hide" the bind in the body of the template classes somehow? I've been unable to find a way to separately supply template parameters for the types and inner methods separately... Thanks! David

    Read the article

  • Inexplicably slow query in MySQL

    - by Brandon M.
    Given this result-set: mysql> EXPLAIN SELECT c.cust_name, SUM(l.line_subtotal) FROM customer c -> JOIN slip s ON s.cust_id = c.cust_id -> JOIN line l ON l.slip_id = s.slip_id -> JOIN vendor v ON v.vend_id = l.vend_id WHERE v.vend_name = 'blahblah' -> GROUP BY c.cust_name -> HAVING SUM(l.line_subtotal) > 49999 -> ORDER BY c.cust_name; +----+-------------+-------+--------+---------------------------------+---------------+---------+----------------------+------+----------------------------------------------+ | id | select_type | table | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+-------+--------+---------------------------------+---------------+---------+----------------------+------+----------------------------------------------+ | 1 | SIMPLE | v | ref | PRIMARY,idx_vend_name | idx_vend_name | 12 | const | 1 | Using where; Using temporary; Using filesort | | 1 | SIMPLE | l | ref | idx_vend_id | idx_vend_id | 4 | csv_import.v.vend_id | 446 | | | 1 | SIMPLE | s | eq_ref | PRIMARY,idx_cust_id,idx_slip_id | PRIMARY | 4 | csv_import.l.slip_id | 1 | | | 1 | SIMPLE | c | eq_ref | PRIMARY,cIndex | PRIMARY | 4 | csv_import.s.cust_id | 1 | | +----+-------------+-------+--------+---------------------------------+---------------+---------+----------------------+------+----------------------------------------------+ 4 rows in set (0.04 sec) I'm a bit baffled as to why the query referenced by this EXPLAIN statement is still taking about a minute to execute. Isn't it true that this query only has to search through 449 rows? Anyone have any idea as to what could be slowing it down so much?

    Read the article

  • Problem with mathamatical calculation in JQUERY

    - by Param-Ganak
    Hello friends! I have two text boxes. I enter number in one textbox. I write following JQUERY for that textbox which get executed when the focus out from first text box. The JQUERY code takes the entered value from first text box and multiply it by a decimal number 34.95 and display the answer in second text box. The code is doing the calculation little bit ok because when I enter the value 1000 in first text box it gives answer 34950 in second textbox and when I enter the value 100 in first text box it gives answer 3495.0000000000005 in second text box. **Please any one tell me what is the problem. is problem is in my JQUERY code. I also want to show the answer always in decimal point. Answer should always dislply only two digits after decimal point. so How to achieve this too.** This is my JQUERY code. $("#id_pvalue").focusout(function() { q=$("#id_pvalue").val(); var ans=q*34.95; $("#id_tvalue").val(ans); }); Please guide me friends! Thank You!

    Read the article

  • Emacs: Often switching between Emacs and my IDE's editor, how can I 'synch' the file?

    - by WizardOfOdds
    I very often need to do some Emacs magic on some files and I need to go back and forth my IDE (IntelliJ IDEA) and Emacs. When a change is made under Emacs (and after I've saved the file) and I go back to IntelliJ the change appears immediately (if I recall correctly I configured IntelliJ to "always reload file when a modification is detected on disk" or something like that). I don't even need to reload: as soon as IntelliJ IDEA gains focus, it instantly reloads the file (and I hence have immediately access to the modifications I made from Emacs). So far, so very good. However "the other way round", it doesn't work yet. Can I configure Emacs so that everytime a file is changed on disk it reloads it? Or make Emacs, everytime it "gains focus", verify if any file currently opened has been modified on disk? I know I can start modifying the buffer under Emacs and it shall instantly warn that it has been modified, but I'd rather have it do it immediately (for example if I used my IDE to do some big change, when I come back to Emacs what I see may not be at all anymore what the file contains and it's a bit weird).

    Read the article

  • How to secure connection strings in VS?

    - by salvationishere
    I see several others have posted this question, however, none of the solutions I've tried have fixed this yet. I have a 32-bit XP running VS 2008 and I am trying to encrypt my connection string in my web.config file. But I am getting the error: The configuration section '...' was not found. Failed! The command I give it: C:\Program Files\Microsoft Visual Studio 9.0\VCAspnet_regiis.exe -pe "system.we b/AdventureWorksConnectionString2" -app "/Documents and Settings/Admin/My Docume nts/Visual Studio 2008/Projects/AddFileToSQL2" Also, how does -app map virtual directory? In other words the path above is the directory right below c:. Is this the correct path to use? And AddFileToSQL2 is the name of my project, although it is part of the AddFileToSQL solution. I have this folder web shared with all of the permissions. And the relevant part of my web.config file: <add name="AdventureWorksConnectionString2" connectionString="Data Source=SIDEKICK;Initial Catalog=AdventureWorks;Persist Security Info=true; User ID=AdventureWorks;Password=sqlMagic" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" />

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 778 779 780 781 782 783 784 785 786 787 788 789  | Next Page >