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  • Somewhat lost with jquery + php + json

    - by Luis Armando
    I am starting to use the jquery $.ajax() but I can't get back what I want to...I send this: $(function(){ $.ajax({ url: "graph_data.php", type: "POST", data: "casi=56&nada=48&nuevo=98&perfecto=100&vales=50&apenas=70&yeah=60", dataType: "json", error: function (xhr, desc, exceptionobj) { document.writeln("El error de XMLHTTPRequest dice: " + xhr.responseText); }, success: function (json) { if (json.error) { alert(json.error); return; } var output = ""; for (p in json) { output += p + " : " + json[p] + "\n"; } document.writeln("Results: \n\n" + output); } }); }); and my php is: <?php $data = $_POST['data']; function array2json($data){ $json = $data; return json_encode($json); } ?> and when I execute this I come out with: Results: just like that I used to have in the php a echo array2json statement but it just gave back gibberish...I really don't know what am I doing wrong and I've googled for about 3 hours just getting basically the same stuff. Also I don't know how to pass parameters to the "data:" in the $.ajax function in another way like getting info from the web page, can anyone please help me? Edit I did what you suggested and it prints the data now thank you very much =) however, I was wondering, how can I send the data to the "data:" part in jQuery so it takes it from let's say user input, also I was checking the php documentation and it says I'm allowed to write something like: json_encode($a,JSON_HEX_TAG|JSON_HEX_APOS|JSON_HEX_QUOT|JSON_HEX_AMP) however, if I do that I get an error saying that json_encode accepts 1 parameter and I'm giving 2...any idea why? I'm using php 5.2

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  • Passing javascript object to webservice via Jquery ajax

    - by kralco626
    I have a webservice that returns an object [WebMethod] public List<User> ContractorApprovals() I also have a webservice that accepcts an object [WebMethod] public bool SaveContractor(Object u) When I make my webservice calls via Jquery: function ServiceCall(method, parameters, onSucess, onFailure) { var parms = "{" + (($.isArray(parameters)) ? parameters.join(',') : parameters) + "}"; // to json $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "services/"+method, data: parms, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(msg) { if (typeof onSucess == 'function' || typeof onSucess == 'object') onSucess(msg.d); }, error: function(msg, err) { $("#dialog-error").dialog('open');} }); I can call the first one just fine. My onSucess function gets passed a javascript object exactly structured like my User object on the service. However, I am now having trouble getting the object back to the server. I'm accepting Object as a parameter on the server side so I can't inagine there is an issue there. So I'm thinking something is wrong with the parms on the client side but i'm not sure what... I am doing something to the effect ServiceCall("AuthorizationManagerWorkManagement.asmx/ContractorApprovals", "", function(data,args){$("#div").data('user',data[0])}, null) then ServiceCall("AuthorizationManagerWorkManagement.asmx/SaveContractor", $("#div").data('user'), //These also do not work: "{'u': ' + $("#div").data("user") + '}", NOR JSON.stringify({u: userObject}) function(data,args){(alert(data)}, null) I know the first service call works, I can get the data. The second one is causing the "onFailure" method to execute rather then "OnSuccess". Any ideas?

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  • IBM WESB/WAS JCA security configuration

    - by user594883
    I'm working with IBM tools. I have a Websphere ESB (WESB) and a CICS transaction gateway (CTG). The basic set-up is as follows: A SOAP service needs data from CICS. The SOAP-service is connecting to service bus (WESB) to handle data and protocol transformation and then WESB calls the CTG which in turn calls CICS and the reply is handled vice verse (synchronously). WESB calls the CTG using Resource Adapter and JCA connector (or CICS adapter as it is called in WESB). Now, I have all the pieces in place and working. My question is about the security, and even though I'm working with WESB, the answer is probably the same as in Websphere Application Server (WAS). The Resource Adaper is secured using JAAS - J2C authentication data. I have configured the security using J2C authentication data entry, so basically I have a reference in the application I'm running and at runtime the application does a lookup for the security attributes from the server. So basically I'm always accessing the CICS adapter with the same security reference. My problem is that I need to access the resource in more dynamic way in the future. The security cannot be welded into the application anymore but instead given as a parameter. Could some WESB or WAS guru help me out, how this could be done in WESB/WAS exactly?

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  • How do I use .htaccess to redirect to a URL containing HTTP_HOST?

    - by Jon Cram
    Problem I need to redirect some short convenience URLs to longer actual URLs. The site in question uses a set of subdomains to identify a set of development or live versions. I would like the URL to which certain requests are redirected to include the HTTP_HOST such that I don't have to create a custom .htaccess file for each host. Host-specific Example (snipped from .htaccess file) Redirect /terms http://support.dev01.example.com/articles/terms/ This example works fine for the development version running at dev01.example.com. If I use the same line in the main .htaccess file for the development version running under dev02.example.com I'd end up being redirected to the wrong place. Ideal rule (not sure of the correct syntax) Redirect /terms http://support.{HTTP_HOST}/articles/terms/ This rule does not work and merely serves as an example of what I'd like to achieve. I could then use the exact same rule under many different hosts and get the correct result. Answers? Can this be done with mod_alias or does it require the more complex mod_rewrite? How can this be achieved using mod_alias or mod_rewrite? I'd prefer a mod_alias solution if possible. Clarifications I'm not staying on the same server. I'd like: http://example.com/terms/ - http://support.example.com/articles/terms/ https://secure.example.com/terms/ - http://support.example.com/articles/terms/ http://dev.example.com/terms/ - http://support.dev.example.com/articles/terms/ https://secure.dev.example.com/terms/ - http://support.dev.example.com/articles/terms/ I'd like to be able to use the same rule in the .htaccess file on both example.com and dev.example.com. In this situation I'd need to be able to refer to the HTTP_HOST as a variable rather than specifying it literally in the URL to which requests are redirected. I'll investigate the HTTP_HOST parameter as suggested but was hoping for a working example.

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  • App crashes frequently at time when UIActionSheet would be presented

    - by Jim Hankins
    I am getting the following error intermittently when a call is made to display an action sheet. Assertion failure in -[UIActionSheet showInView:] Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: 'Invalid parameter not satisfying: view != nil' Now in this case I've not changed screens. The UIActionSheet is presented when a local notification is fired and I have an observer call a local method on this view as such: I have the property marked as strong. When the action sheet is dismissed I also set it to nil. I am using a story board for the UI. It's fairly repeatable to crash it, perhaps less than 5 tries. (Thankfully I have that going for me). Any suggestions what to try next? I'm really pulling my hair out on this one. Most of the issues I've seen on this topic are pointing to the crash occurring once the selection is made. In my case it's at presentation and intermittently. Also for what it's worth, this particular view is several stacks deep in an embedded navigation controller. Hometableviewdetail selectviewController in question. This same issue occurs so far in testing on iOS 5.1 and iOS 6. I'm presuming it's something to do with how the show InView is being targeted. self.actionSheet = [[UIActionSheet alloc] initWithTitle:@"Select Choice" delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"Not Yet" destructiveButtonTitle:@"Do this Now" otherButtonTitles:nil]; [self.actionSheet showInView:self.parentViewController.tabBarController.view];

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  • datatables add combobox as a column

    - by user403295
    Hi to all, I have got a datatable (http://www.datatables.net/). I have created and filled the table as shown below. Now I need to implement a combobox (assume that I have got 2010, 2011,2012) to allow the user select a year . then when user clicks View or Modify link, which is placed in the table, selected year will be passed to another page as a parameter. Now how can I turn my year column into a combobox?Thanks. rulesTableGlobal = $('#rulesTable').dataTable( { //"bJQueryUI": true, "sPaginationType": "full_numbers", "aoColumns": [ { "sTitle": "Id", "sWidth" : "20px" }, { "sTitle": "Property ID" , "sWidth" : "20px"}, { "sTitle": "Adress" , "sWidth" : "130px"}, { "sTitle": "Suburb" , "sWidth" : "50px"}, { "sTitle": "Bond", "sWidth" : "25px" }, { "sTitle": "Year", "sWidth" : "25px" , "aType": "dom-select"}, { "sTitle": "View or Modify" , "sWidth" : "50px"}] }); function addPropertyToTable( lt_id, lt_uid, address, suburb_name, min_guests, max_guests, bondFee,cleaningFee,bookingServiceFee, weekly_rate,nightly_rate){ var _lt_id = "\'" + lt_id + "\'"; var viewLink = '<A href="#" onclick="forwardDetails('+_lt_id+');">View and Modify</A>'; var year= ""; $('#rulesTable').dataTable().fnAddData( [ lt_id, lt_uid, address, suburb_name, bondFee,cleaningFee,bookingServiceFee, weekly_rate,nightly_rate, min_guests, max_guests, year, viewLink ] ); } }); }

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  • doubt in javascript name validation

    - by raja
    Hi: I am using the below validation for textbox which accepts only alphabets and maximum of 50 characters. I am passing the object directly in the parameter. The below case by giving the field name i.e "my_text" directly is working is working fine. But if i pass it in variable, that time it is not working(commented the if statement). Please help me. My requirement is each time when we enter the charater, the hardcode field name should not be used in the validation. <html><head> <script language=JavaScript> function check_length(my_form,fieldName) { alert(fieldName); // if (my_form.fieldName.value.length >= maxLen) { if (my_form.my_text.value.length >= maxLen) { var msg = "You have reached your maximum limit of characters allowed"; alert(msg); my_form.my_text.value = my_form.my_text.value.substring(0, maxLen); } else{ var keyCode = window.event.keyCode; if ((keyCode < 65 || keyCode > 90) && (keyCode < 97 || keyCode > 123) && keyCode != 32) { window.event.returnValue = false; alert("Enter only Alphabets"); } my_form.text_num.value = maxLen - my_form.my_text.value.length;} } </script> </head> <body> <form name=my_form method=post> <input type="text" onKeyPress=check_length(this.form,this.name); name=my_text rows=4 cols=30> <br> <input size=1 value=50 name=text_num> Characters Left </form> </body> </html>

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  • How To Update EF 4 Entity In ASP.NET MVC 3?

    - by Jason Evans
    Hi there. I have 2 projects - a class library containing an EDM Entity Framework model and a seperate ASP.NET MVC project. I'm having problems with how your suppose to edit and save changes to an entity using MVC. In my controller I have: public class UserController : Controller { public ActionResult Edit(int id) { var rep = new UserRepository(); var user = rep.GetById(id); return View(user); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(User user) { var rep = new UserRepository(); rep.Update(user); return View(user); } } My UserRepository has an Update method like this: public void Update(User user) { using (var context = new PDS_FMPEntities()) { context.Users.Attach(testUser); context.ObjectStateManager.ChangeObjectState(testUser, EntityState.Modified); context.SaveChanges(); } } Now, when I click 'Save' on the edit user page, the parameter user only contains two values populated: Id, and FirstName. I take it that is due to the fact that I'm only displaying those two properties in the view. My question is this, if I'm updating the user's firstname, and then want to save it, what am I suppose to do about the other User properties which were not shown on the view, since they now contain 0 or NULL values in the user object? I've been reading a lot about using stub entities, but I'm getting nowhere fast, in that none of the examples I've seen actually work. i.e. I keep getting EntityKey related exceptions. Can someone point me to a good tutorial/example of how to update EF 4 entities using a repository class, called by an MVC front-end? Cheers. Jas.

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  • C Program Stalls or Infinite Loops inside and else statement?

    - by Bobby S
    I have this weird thing happening in my C program which has never happened to me before. I am calling a void function with a single parameter, the function is very similar to this so you can get the jist: ... printf("Before Call"); Dumb_Function(a); printf("After Call"); ... ... void Dumb_Function(int a){ if(a == null) { } else{ int i; for(i=0; i<a; i++) { do stuff } printf("test"); } } This will output Before Call test and NOT "After Call" How is this possible? Why does my function not return? Did my program counter get lost? I can not modify it to a non void function. When running the cursor will blink and I am able to type, I press CTRL+C to terminate. Any ideas?

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  • JSF2.0: variable list of custom component

    - by rattaman
    Hello Is there any way of using JSF2.0 in connection with variable lists of components? For example, lets say I have list o people that I would like to edit. They are presented on the page as list of components PersonEditor, which allow changing person data. Each editor is associated with single Person element. In order for this to work I need to perform following steps: On initial request: Get list of people For each person create PersonEditor and associate it with Person object. Fill editor's data. On user action: When user changes values and presses Save, data is processed by backing bean. I can either fill editor with data from list of people or bind it to the backing bean, but not at the same time, so I am stuck. I tried people.xhtml <ui:render value="#{bean.people}" var="person"> <example:personEditor person="#{person}"/> </ui:render> where personEditor.xhtml: a) proper association with person object, but no connection to backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{cc.attr.person.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> b) no association with person object, but there is connection to backing bean - there is no way to pass that person to the backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{editorBean.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> If I had each editor on separate page, I could pass the person id as url parameter (either using f:param or f:attribute) and initialize it accordingly. Is there any solution to this problem?

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  • Java Constructor Style (Check parameters aren't null)

    - by Peter
    What are the best practices if you have a class which accepts some parameters but none of them are allowed to be null? The following is obvious but the exception is a little unspecific: public class SomeClass { public SomeClass(Object one, Object two) { if (one == null || two == null) { throw new IllegalArgumentException("Parameters can't be null"); } //... } } Here the exceptions let you know which parameter is null, but the constructor is now pretty ugly: public class SomeClass { public SomeClass(Object one, Object two) { if (one == null) { throw new IllegalArgumentException("one can't be null"); } if (two == null) { throw new IllegalArgumentException("two can't be null"); } //... } Here the constructor is neater, but now the constructor code isn't really in the constructor: public class SomeClass { public SomeClass(Object one, Object two) { setOne(one); setTwo(two); } public void setOne(Object one) { if (one == null) { throw new IllegalArgumentException("one can't be null"); } //... } public void setTwo(Object two) { if (two == null) { throw new IllegalArgumentException("two can't be null"); } //... } } Which of these styles is best? Or is there an alternative which is more widely accepted? Cheers, Pete

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  • Are SQL Reporting Services Report Parameters deprecated in VS.NET 2010?

    - by Jason Kealey
    We use an Reporting Services inside an ASP.NET web application. (We have an *.rdlc which is presented to the ReportViewer web control in our page). Our ASPX page wires up a few report parameters in code: var parameters = new List<ReportParameter>(); parameters.Add(new ReportParameter("StoreAddress", InvoiceStoreAddress)); parameters.Add(new ReportParameter("LogoURL", InvoiceLogoURL)); parameters.Add(new ReportParameter("StoreName", InvoiceStoreName)); ReportViewer1.LocalReport.SetParameters(parameters); These are just general parameters that are passed to the report, instead of hooking it up to a data source. Recently, we upgraded to VS.NET 2010. We upgraded the *.rdlc to the newest version and also upgraded the ReportViewer control used by ASP.NET. Everything works as it did before. However, I now want to add a new report parameter to my *.rdlc. I typically right-clicked on the top left corner and clicked on "Report Parameters" to add it. With the new VS.NET, I cannot find this option anywhere - it is not even in the report properties. Where did it go? Are the deprecating this feature? How should I be passing some general parameters now?

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  • Struts 2 discard cache header

    - by Dewfy
    I have strange discarding behavior of struts2 while setting cache option for my image. I'm trying to put image from db to be cached on client side To render image I use ( http://struts.apache.org/2.x/docs/how-can-we-display-dynamic-or-static-images-that-can-be-provided-as-an-array-of-bytes.html ) where special result type render as follow: public void execute(ActionInvocation invocation) throws Exception { ...//some preparation HttpServletResponse response = ServletActionContext.getResponse(); HttpServletRequest request = ServletActionContext.getRequest(); ServletOutputStream os = response.getOutputStream(); try { byte[] imageBytes = action.getImage(); response.setContentType("image/gif"); response.setContentLength(imageBytes.length); //I want cache up to 10 min Date future = new Date(((new Date()).getTime() + 1000 * 10*60l)); ; response.addDateHeader("Expires", future.getTime()); response.setHeader("Cache-Control", "max-age=" + 10*60 + ""); response.addHeader("cache-Control", "public"); response.setHeader("ETag", request.getRequestURI()); os.write(imageBytes); } catch(Exception e) { response.sendError(HttpServletResponse.SC_NOT_FOUND); } os.flush(); os.close(); } But when image is embedded to page it is always reloaded (Firebug shows code 200), and neither Expires, nor max-age are presented in header Host localhost:9090 Accept image/png,image/*;q=0.8,*/*;q=0.5 Accept-Language en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding gzip,deflate Accept-Charset ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive 300 Connection keep-alive Referer http://localhost:9090/web/result?matchId=1 Cookie JSESSIONID=4156BEED69CAB0B84D950932AB9EA1AC; If-None-Match /web/_srv/teamcolor Cache-Control max-age=0 I have no idea why it is dissapered, may be problem in url? It is forms with parameter: http://localhost:9090/web/_srv/teamcolor?loginId=3

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  • JSP JPA Form: how to insert value in a path variable

    - by kajarigd
    I have the following code snippet in a jsp file: <hr> <form:form commandName="newTicketSale" id="reg" action="transactionResult.htm"> <h3>Buy Movie Tickets:</h3> <form:label path="movieName">Movie Name:</form:label> <form:input path="movieName" /> <form:errors class="invalid" path="movieName" /> <form:label path="ticketPrice">Ticket Price:</form:label> <form:input path="ticketPrice" /> <form:errors class="invalid" path="ticketPrice" /> <input type="submit"> <br><br> </form:form> I am using JPA tags in this jsp. Now, in the commandName "newTicketSale" there is another parameter called userId. In the jsp file itself I need to insert value ${name} in userId, so that in the Controller file when I am doing @Valid @ModelAttribute("newTicketSale") MovieTicket newTicket I can retrieve the value ${name} when I am doing newTicket.getUserId(). I don't know how to do this. Please help! Thanks in advance!

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  • Running single test class or group with Surefire and TestNG

    - by Slartibartfast
    I want to run single test class from command line using Maven and TestNG Things that doesn't work: mvn -Dtest=ClassName test I have defined groups in pom.xml, and this class isn't in one of those groups. So it got excluded on those grounds. mvn -Dgroups=skipped-group test mvn -Dsurefire.groups=skipped-group test when config is <plugin> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-surefire-plugin</artifactId> <version>2.7.1</version> <configuration> <groups>functest</groups> </configuration> </plugin> Parameters work fine in there are no groups defined in pom.xml. Similarly, when surefire is configured with <configuration> <includes> <include>**/*UnitTest.java</include> </includes> </configuration> I can add another test with -Dtest parameter, but cannot add group. In any combination, I can narrow down tests to be executed with groups, but not expand them. What's wrong with my configuration? Is there a way to run a single test or group outside of those defined in pom.xml? Tried on Ubuntu 10.04 with Maven 2.2.1, TestNG 5.14.6 and Surefire 2.7.1

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  • Have Microsoft changed how ASP.NET MVC deals with duplicate action method names?

    - by Jason Evans
    I might be missing something here, but in ASP.NET MVC 4, I can't get the following to work. Given the following controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string order1, string order2) { return null; } } and it's view: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Home"; } @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.TextBox("order1")<br /> @Html.TextBox("order2") <input type="submit" value="Save"/> } When start the app, all I get is this: The current request for action 'Index' on controller type 'HomeController' is ambiguous between the following action methods: System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index() on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index(System.String, System.String) on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController Now, in ASP.NET MVC 3 the above works fine, I just tried it, so what's changed in ASP.NET MVC 4 to break this? OK there could be a chance that I'm doing something silly here, and not noticing it. EDIT: I notice that in the MVC 4 app, the Global.asax.cs file did not contain this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); } which the MVC 3 app does, by default. So I added the above to the MVC 4 app but it fails with the same error. Note that the MVC 3 app does work fine with the above route. I'm passing the "order" data via the Request.Form. EDIT: In the file RouteConfig.cs I can see RegisterRoutes is executed, with the following default route: routes.MapRoute( name: "Default", url: "{controller}/{action}/{id}", defaults: new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); I still get the original error, regards ambiguity between which Index() method to call.

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  • Can JMX operations take interfaces as parameters?

    - by Thor84no
    I'm having problems with an MBean that takes a Map<String, Object> as a parameter. If I try to execute it via JMX using a proxy object, I get an Exception: Caused by: javax.management.ReflectionException at org.jboss.mx.server.AbstractMBeanInvoker.invoke(AbstractMBeanInvoker.java:231) at org.jboss.mx.server.MBeanServerImpl.invoke(MBeanServerImpl.java:668) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) Caused by: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Unable to find operation updateProperties(java.util.HashMap) It appears that it attempts to use the actual implementation class rather than the interface, and doesn't check if this is a child of the required interface. The same thing happens for extended classes (for example declare HashMap, pass in LinkedHashMap). Does this mean it's impossible to use an interface for such methods? At the moment I'm getting around it by changing the method signature to accept a HashMap, but it seems odd that I wouldn't be able to use interfaces (or extended classes) in my MBeans. Edit: The proxy object is being created by an in-house utility class called JmxInvocationHandler. The (hopefully) relevant parts of it are as follows: public class JmxInvocationHandler implements InvocationHandler { ... public static <T> T createMBean(final Class<T> iface, SFSTestProperties properties, String mbean, int shHostID) { T newProxyInstance = (T) Proxy.newProxyInstance(iface.getClassLoader(), new Class[] { iface }, (InvocationHandler) new JmxInvocationHandler(properties, mbean, shHostID)); return newProxyInstance; } ... private JmxInvocationHandler(SFSTestProperties properties, String mbean, int shHostID) { this.mbeanName = mbean + MBEAN_SUFFIX + shHostID; msConfig = new MsConfiguration(properties.getHost(0), properties.getMSAdminPort(), properties.getMSUser(), properties.getMSPassword()); } ... public Object invoke(Object proxy, Method method, Object[] args) throws Throwable { if (management == null) { management = ManagementClientStore.getInstance().getManagementClient(msConfig.getHost(), msConfig.getAdminPort(), msConfig.getUser(), msConfig.getPassword(), false); } final Object result = management.methodCall(mbeanName, method.getName(), args == null? new Object[] {} : args); return result; } }

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  • Static Vs Non-Static Method Performance C#

    - by dotnetguts
    Hello All, I have few global methods declared in public class in my asp.net web application. I have habbit of declaring all global methods in public class in following format public static string MethodName(parameters) { } I want to know how it would impact on performance point of view? 1) Which one is Better? Static Method or Non-Static Method? 2) Reason why it is better? Following link shows Non-Static methods are good because, static methods are using locks to be Thread-safe. The always do internally a Monitor.Enter() and Monitor.exit() to ensure Thread-safety. http://bytes.com/topic/c-sharp/answers/231701-static-vs-non-static-function-performance And Following link shows Static Methods are good static methods are normally faster to invoke on the call stack than instance methods. There are several reasons for this in the C# programming language. Instance methods actually use the 'this' instance pointer as the first parameter, so an instance method will always have that overhead. Instance methods are also implemented with the callvirt instruction in the intermediate language, which imposes a slight overhead. Please note that changing your methods to static methods is unlikely to help much on ambitious performance goals, but it can help a tiny bit and possibly lead to further reductions. http://dotnetperls.com/static-method I am little confuse which one to use? Thanks

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  • Is there a general-purpose printf-ish routine defined in any C standard

    - by supercat
    In many C libraries, there is a printf-style routine which is something like the following: int __vgprintf(void *info, (void)(*print_function(void*, char)), const char *format, va_list params); which will format the supplied string and call print_function with the passed-in info value and each character in sequence. A function like fprintf will pass __vgprintf the passed-in file parameter and a pointer to a function which will cast its void* to a FILE* and output the passed-in character to that file. A function like snprintf will create a struct holding a char* and length, and pass the address of that struct to a function which will output each character in sequence, space permitting. Is there any standard for such a function, which could be used if e.g. one wanted a function to output an arbitrary format to a TCP port? A common approach is to allocate a buffer one hopes is big enough, use snprintf to put the data there, and then output the data from the buffer. It would seem cleaner, though, if there were a standard way to to specify that the print formatter should call a user-supplied routine with each character.

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  • Sending a JSON object to an ASP.NET web service using JQUERY ajax function

    - by uzay95
    I want to create object on the client side of aspx page. And i want to add functions to these javascript classes to make easier the life. Actually i can get and use the objects (derived from the server side classes) which returns from the services. When i wanted to send objects from the client by jquery ajax methods, i couldn't do it :) This is my javascript object: function ClassAndMark(_mark, _lesson){ this.Lesson = _lesson; this.Mark = _mark; } function Student(_name, _surname, _classAndMark){ this.Name = _name; this.SurName = _surname; this.ClassAndMark = _classAndMark; } JSClass.prototype.fSaveToDB(){ $.ajax({ type: "POST", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", url: "/WS/SaveObject.asmx/fSaveToDB"), data: ????????????, dataType: "json" }); } Actually i don't know what should be definition of classes and methods on the Server side but i think: class ClassAndMark{ public string Lesson ; public string Mark ; } class Student{ public string Name ; public string SurName ; public ClassAndMark ClassAndMark ; } Web service is below but again i couldn't get what should be instead of the ???? : [WebMethod()] public void fSaveToDB(???? _obj) { // How can i convert input parameter/parameters // of method in the server side object? }

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  • Executing system command in php, differs in using broswer and in using command line

    - by Amit
    Hi, I have to execute a Linux "more" command in php from a particular offset, format the result and display the result in Browser. My Code for the above is : <html> <head> <META HTTP-EQUIV=REFRESH CONTENT=10> <META HTTP-EQUIV=PRAGMA CONTENT=NO-CACHE> <title>Runtime Access log</title> </head> <body> <?php $moreCommand = "more +3693 /var/log/apache2/access_log | grep -v -e '.jpg' -e '.jpeg' -e '.css' -e '.js' -e '.bmp' -e '.ico'| wc -l"; exec($moreCommand, $accessDisplay); echo "<br/>No of lines are : $accessDisplay[0] <br/>"; ?> The output at the browser is :: No of lines are : 3428 (This is wrong) While executing the same command using command line gives a different output. My code snippet for the same is : <?php $moreCommand = "more +3693 /var/log/apache2/access_log | grep -v -e '.jpg' -e '.jpeg' -e '.css' -e '.js' -e '.bmp' -e '.ico'| wc -l"; exec($moreCommand, $accessDisplay); echo "No of lines are : $accessDisplay[0] \n"; ? The output at the command line is :: No of lines are : 279 (This is correct) While executing the same command directly in command line, gives me output as 279. I am unable to understand why the output of the same command is wrong in the browser. Its actually giving the word count of lines, ignoring the offset parameter. Please help !! Thanks, Amit

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  • pulling a value from NSMutableDictionary

    - by Jared Gross
    I have a dictionary array with a key:@"titleLabel". I am trying to load a pickerView with ONE instance of each @"titleLabel" key so that if there are multiple objects with the same @"titleLabel" only one title will be displayed. I've done some research on this forum and looked at apples docs but haven't been able to put the puzzle together. Below is my code but I am having trouble pulling the values. Right now when I run this code it throws an error Incompatible pointer types sending 'PFObject *' to parameter of type 'NSString' which i understand but am just not sure how to remedy. Cheers! else { // found messages! self.objectsArray = objects; NSMutableDictionary *dict = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] init]; for(id obj in self.objectsArray){ PFObject *key = [self.objectsArray valueForKey:@"titleLabel"]; if(![dict objectForKey:@"titleLabel"]){ [dict setValue:obj forKey:key]; } } for (id key in dict) { NSLog(@"Objects array is %d", [self.objectsArray count]); NSLog(@"key: %@, value: %@ \n", key, [dict objectForKey:key]); } [self.pickerView reloadComponent:0]; } }];` Here is where I define the PFObject and keys: PFObject *image = [PFObject objectWithClassName:@"Images"]; [image setObject:file forKey:@"file"]; [image setObject:fileType forKey:@"fileType"]; [image setObject:title forKey:@"titleLabel"]; [image setObject:self.recipients forKey:@"recipientIds"]; [image setObject:[[PFUser currentUser] objectId] forKey:@"senderId"]; [image setObject:[[PFUser currentUser] username] forKey:@"senderName"]; [image saveInBackground];

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  • Is there anything bad in declaring static inner class inside interface in java?

    - by Roman
    I have an interface ProductService with method findByCriteria. This method had a long list of nullable parameters, like productName, maxCost, minCost, producer and so on. I refactored this method by introducing Parameter Object. I created class SearchCriteria and now method signature looks like this: findByCriteria (SearchCriteria criteria) I thought that instances of SearchCriteria are only created by method callers and are only used inside findByCriteria method, i.e.: void processRequest() { SearchCriteria criteria = new SearchCriteria () .withMaxCost (maxCost) ....... .withProducer (producer); List<Product> products = productService.findByCriteria (criteria); .... } and List<Product> findByCriteria(SearchCriteria criteria) { return doSmthAndReturnResult(criteria.getMaxCost(), criteria.getProducer()); } So I did not want to create separate public class for SearchCriteria and put it inside ProductServiceInterface: public interface ProductService { List<Product> findByCriteria (SearchCriteria criteria); static class SearchCriteria { ... } } Is there anything bad in this interface? Where whould you place SearchCriteria class?

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  • Regarding C Static/Non Static Float Arrays (Xcode, Objective C)

    - by user1875290
    Basically I have a class method that returns a float array. If I return a static array I have the problem of it being too large or possibly even too small depending on the input parameter as the size of the array needed depends on the input size. If I return just a float array[arraysize] I have the size problem solved but I have other problems. Say for example I address each element of the non-static float array individually e.g. NSLog(@"array[0] %f array[1] %f array[2] %f",array[0],array[1],array[2]); It prints the correct values for the array. However if I instead use a loop e.g. for (int i = 0; i < 3; i++) { NSLog(@"array[%i] %f",i,array[i]); } I get some very strange numbers (apart from the last index, oddly). Why do these two things produce different results? I'm aware that its bad practice to simply return a non static float, but even so, these two means of addressing the array look the same to me. Relevant code from class method (for non-static version)... float array[arraysize]; //many lines of code later if (weShouldStoreValue == true) { array[index] = theFloat; index = index + 1; } //more lines of code later return array; Note that it returns a (float*).

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  • .save puts NULL in id field in Rails

    - by mathee
    Here's the model file: class ProfileTag < ActiveRecord::Base def self.create_or_update(options = {}) id = options.delete(:id) record = find_by_id(id) || new record.id = id record.attributes = options puts "record.profile_id is" puts record.profile_id record.save! record end end This gives me the correct print out in my log. But it also says that there's a call to UPDATE that sets profile_id to NULL. Here's some of the output in the log file: Processing ProfilesController#update (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-05-28 18:20:54) [PUT] Parameter: {"commit"=>"Save", ...} ?[4;36;1mProfileTag Create (0.0ms)?[0m ?[0;1mINSERT INTO `profile_tags` (`reputation_value`, `updated_at`, `tag_id`, `id`, `profile_id`, `created_at`) VALUES(0, '2010-05-29 01:20:54', 1, NULL, 4, '2010-05-29 01:20:54')?[0m ?[4;35;1mSQL (2.0ms)?[0m ?[0mCOMMIT?[0m ?[4;36;1mSQL (0.0ms)?[0m ?[0;1mBEGIN?[0m ?[4;35;1mSQL (0.0ms)?[0m ?[0mCOMMIT?[0m ?[4;36;1mProfileTag Load (0.0ms)?[0m ?[0;1mSELECT * FROM `profile_tags` WHERE (`profile_tags`.profile_id = 4) ?[0m ?[4;35;1mSQL (1.0ms)?[0m ?[0mBEGIN?[0m ?[4;36;1mProfileTag Update (0.0ms)?[0m ?[0;1mUPDATE `profile_tags` SET profile_id = NULL WHERE (profile_id = 4 AND id IN (35)) ?[0m I'm not sure I understand why the INSERT puts the value into profile_id properly, but then it sets it to NULL on an UPDATE. If you need more specifics, please let me know. I'm thinking that the save functionality does many things other than INSERTs into the database, but I don't know what I need to specify so that it will properly set profile_id.

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