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  • Something wrong with my XML?

    - by Prateek Raj
    hi everyone, i'm parsing an xml with my extjs but it returns only one of the five components. only the first one of the five components. Ext.regModel('Card', { fields: ['investor'] }); var store = new Ext.data.Store({ model: 'Card', proxy: { type: 'ajax', url: 'xmlformat.xml', reader: { type: 'xml', record: 'investors' } }, listeners: { single: true, datachanged: function(){ Ext.getBody().unmask(); var items = []; store.each(function(rec){ alert(rec.get('investor')); }); and my xml file is: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <root> <investors> <investor>Active</investor> <investor>Aggressive</investor> <investor>Conservative</investor> <investor>Day Trader</investor> <investor>Very Active</investor> </investors> <events> <event>3 Month Expiry</event> <event>LEAPS</event> <event>Monthlies</event> <event>Monthly Expiries</event> <event>Weeklies</event> </events> <prices> <price>$0.5</price> <price>$0.05</price> <price>$1</price> <price>$22</price> <price>$100.34</price> </prices> </root> wen i run the code only "Active" comes out. . . . i know that i'm doing something wrong but i'm not sure what.... please help . . . . .

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  • jQuery Cycle plugin IE6/7 issues

    - by Aaron Moodie
    I've implemented a slideshow using the Cycle plugin, which is working in all browsers except IE6&7, where the images just show up in a list, and the #page_copy div is not hiding. I've been going through the code all day without any luck, and not exactly sure how or what I should be looking for. What would be the best way to go about debugging this issue? I know that the #page_copy div is hiding when I remove the rest of the code, and I've tried the reverse (which had no result) <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> jQuery.fn.fadeToggle = function(speed, easing, callback) { return this.animate({opacity: 'toggle'}, speed, easing, callback); }; $(document).ready(function() { $('#page_copy').hide(); $('a#info_close_button').click(function() { $('#page_copy').fadeOut(200); return false; }); $('a#info_button').click(function() { $('#page_copy').fadeToggle(200); return false; }); }); $(window).load(function() { // vertically center single image var $image_cnt = $("#images > img").size(); if($image_cnt < 2) { var $single_img = $("#images").children(':first-child'); var h = $single_img.height(); $single_img.css({ marginTop: (620 - h) / 2, }); $(".next").css("display","none"); $(".prev").css("display","none"); } }); // wait until images have loaded before starting cycle $(window).load(function() { // front image rotator $('#images').cycle({ fx: 'fade', speed: 300, next: '.next', prev: '.prev', containerResize: 0, timeout: 0, delay: -2000, before: onBefore }); }); // hide all but the first image when page loads $(document).ready(function() { $('#images img:gt(0)').hide(); }); // callback fired when each slide transition begins function onBefore(curr,next,opts) { var $slide = $(next); var w = $slide.width(); var h = $slide.height(); $slide.css({ marginTop: (620 - h) / 2, marginLeft: (650 - w) / 2 }); }; </script>

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  • Using Artificial Intelligence (AI) to predict Stock Prices

    - by akaphenom
    Given a set of datavery similar to the Motley Fool CAPS system, where individual users enter BUY and SELL recommendations on various equities. What I would like to do is show each recommendation and I guess some how rate (1-5) as to whether it was good predictor<5 (ie corellation coeffient = 1) of the future stock price (or eps or whatever) or a horrible predictor (ie corellation coeffient = -1) or somewhere inbetween. Each recommendation is tagged to a particular user, so that can be tracked over time. I can also track market direction (bullish / bearish) based off of something like sp500 price. The components I think that would make sense in the model would be: user direction (long/short) market direction sector of stock The thought is that some users are better in bull markets than bear (and vice versa), and some are better at shorts than longs- and then a cobination the above. I can automatically tag the market direction and sector (based off the market at the time and the equity being recommended). The thought is that I could present a series of screens and allow me to rank each individual recommendation by displaying available data absolute, market and sector out performance for a specfic time period out. I would follow a detailed list for ranking the stocks so that the ranking is as objective as possible. My assumtion is that a single user is right no more than 57% of the time - but who knows. I could load the system and say "Lets rank the recommendation as a predictor of stock value 90 days forward"; and that would represent a very explicit set of rankings. NOW here is the crux - I want to create some sort of machine learning algorithm that can identify patterns over a series of time so that as recommendations stream into the application we maintain a ranking of that stock (ie. similar to correlation coeeficient) as to the likelihood of that recommendation (in addition to the past series of recommendations ) will affect the price. Now here is the super crux. I have never taken an AI class / read an AI book / never mind specific to machine learning. So I cam looking for guidance - sample or description of a similar system I could adapt. Place to look for info or any general help. Or even push me in the right direction to get started... My hope is to implment this with F# and be able to impress my friends with a new skillset in F# with an implementation of machine learnign and potentially something (application / source) I can include in a tech portfolio or blog space; Thank you for any advice in advance.

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  • multiple stateful iframes per page will overwrite JSESSIONID?

    - by Nikita
    Hello, Looking for someone to either confirm or refute my theory that deploying two iframes pointing to two different stateful pages on the same domain can lead to JSESSIONIDs being overwritten. Here's what I mean: Setup suppose you have two pages that require HttpSession state (session affinity) to function correctly - deployed at http://www.foo.com/page1 and http://www.foo.com/page2 assume www.foo.com is a single host running a Tomcat (6.0.20, fwiw) that uses JSESSIONID for session id's. suppose these pages are turned into two iframe widgets to be embedded on 3rd party sites: http://www.site.com/page1" / (and /page2 respectively) suppose there a 3rd party site that wishes to place both widgets on the same page at http://www.bar.com/foowidgets.html Can the following race condition occur? a new visitor goes to http://www.bar.com/foowidgets.html browser starts loading URLs in foowidgets.html including the two iframe 'src' URLs because browsers open multiple concurrent connections against the same host (afaik up to 6 in chrome/ff case) the browser happens to simultaneously issue requests for http://www.foo.com/page1 and http://www.foo.com/page2 The tomcat @ foo.com receives both requests at about the same time, calls getSession() for the first time (on two different threads) and lazily creates two HttpSessions and, thus, two JSESSIONIDs, with values $Page1 and $Page2. The requests also stuff data into respective sessions (that data will be required to process subsequent requests) assume that the browser first receives response to the page1 request. Browser sets cookie JSESSIONID=$Page1 for HOST www.foo.com next response to the page2 request is received and the browser overwrites cookie JSESSIONID for HOST www.foo.com with $Page2 user clicks on something in 'page1' iframe on foowidgets.html; browser issues 2nd request to http://www.foo.com/page1?action=doSomethingStateful. That request carries JSESSIONID=$Page2 (and not $Page1 - because cookie value was overwritten) when foo.com receives this request it looks up the wrong HttpSession instance (because JSESSIONID key is $Page2 and NOT $Page1). Foobar! Can the above happen? I think so, but would appreciate a confirmation. If the above is clearly possible, what are some solutions given that we'd like to support multiple iframes per page? We don't have a firm need for the iframes to share the same HttpSession, though that would be nice. In the event that the solution will still stipulate a separate HttpSession per iframe, it is - of course - mandatory that iframe 1 does not end up referencing httpSession state for iframe 2 instead of own. off top of my head I can think of: map page1 and page2 to different domains (ops overhead) use URL rewriting and never cookies (messes up analytics) anything else? thanks a lot, -nikita

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  • Asynchronous callback for network in Objective-C Iphone

    - by vodkhang
    I am working with network request - response in Objective-C. There is something with asynchronous model that I don't understand. In summary, I have a view that will show my statuses from 2 social networks: Twitter and Facebook. When I clicked refresh, it will call a model manager. That model manager will call 2 service helpers to request for latest items. When 2 service helpers receive data, it will pass back to model manager and this model will add all data into a sorted array. What I don't understand here is that : when response from social networks come back, how many threads will handle the response. From my understanding about multithreading and networking (in Java), there must have 2 threads handle 2 responses and those 2 threads will execute the code to add the responses to the array. So, it can have race condition and the program can go wrong right? Is it the correct working model of iphone objective-C? Or they do it in a different way that it will never have race condition and we don't have to care about locking, synchronize? Here is my example code: ModelManager.m - (void)updateMyItems:(NSArray *)items { self.helpers = [self authenticatedHelpersForAction:NCHelperActionGetMyItems]; for (id<NCHelper> helper in self.helpers) { [helper updateMyItems:items]; // NETWORK request here } } - (void)helper:(id <NCHelper>)helper didReturnItems:(NSArray *)items { [self helperDidFinishGettingMyItems:items callback:@selector(model:didGetMyItems:)]; break; } } // some private attributes int *_currentSocialNetworkItemsCount = 0; // to count the number of items of a social network - (void)helperDidFinishGettingMyItems:(NSArray *)items { for (Item *item in items) { _currentSocialNetworkItemsCount ++; } NSLog(@"count: %d", _currentSocialNetworkItemsCount); _currentSocialNetworkItemsCount = 0; } I want to ask if there is a case that the method helperDidFinishGettingMyItems is called concurrently. That means, for example, faceboook returns 10 items, twitter returns 10 items, will the output of count will ever be larger than 10? And if there is only one single thread, how can the thread finishes parsing 1 response and jump to the other response because, IMO, thread is only executed sequently, block of code by block of code

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  • How does mysql define DISTINCT() in reference documentation

    - by goran
    EDIT: This question is about finding definitive reference to MySQL syntax on SELECT modifying keywords and functions. /EDIT AFAIK SQL defines two uses of DISTINCT keywords - SELECT DISTINCT field... and SELECT COUNT(DISTINCT field) ... However in one of web applications that I administer I've noticed performance issues on queries like SELECT DISTINCT(field1), field2, field3 ... DISTINCT() on a single column makes no sense and I am almost sure it is interpreted as SELECT DISTINCT field1, field2, field3 ... but how can I prove this? I've searched mysql site for a reference on this particular syntax, but could not find any. Does anyone have a link to definition of DISTINCT() in mysql or knows about other authoritative source on this? Best EDIT After asking the same question on mysql forums I learned that while parsing the SQL mysql does not care about whitespace between functions and column names (but I am still missing a reference). As it seems you can have whitespace between functions and the parenthesis SELECT LEFT (field1,1), field2... and get mysql to understand it as SELECT LEFT(field,1) Similarly SELECT DISTINCT(field1), field2... seems to get decomposed to SELECT DISTINCT (field1), field2... and then DISTINCT is taken not as some undefined (or undocumented) function, but as SELECT modifying keyword and the parenthesis around field1 are evaluated as if they were part of field expression. It would be great if someone would have a pointer to documentation where it is stated that the whitespace between functions and parenthesis is not significant or to provide links to apropriate MySQL forums, mailing lists where I could raise a question to put this into reference. EDIT I have found a reference to server option IGNORE SPACE. It states that "The IGNORE SPACE SQL mode can be used to modify how the parser treats function names that are whitespace-sensitive", later on it states that recent versions of mysql have reduced this number from 200 to 30. One of the remaining 30 is COUNT for example. With IGNORE SPACE enabled both SELECT COUNT(*) FROM mytable; SELECT COUNT (*) FROM mytable; are legal. So if this is an exception, I am left to conclude that normally functions ignore space by default. If functions ignore space by default then if the context is ambiguous, such as for the first function on a first item of the select expression, then they are not distinguishable from keywords and the error can not be thrown and MySQL must accept them as keywords. Still, my conclusions feel like they have lot of assumptions, I would still be grateful and accept any pointers to see where to follow up on this.

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  • What is the safe way to use fork with Apache::DBI under mod_perl2?

    - by codeholic
    I have a problem when I use Apache::DBI in child processes. The problem is that Apache::DBI provides a single handle for all processes which use it, so I get DBD::mysql::db selectall_arrayref failed: Commands out of sync; you can't run this command now at /usr/local/www/apache22/data/test-fork.cgi line 20. Reconnection doesn't help, since Apache::DBI reconnects in all processes, as I understood the following error The server encountered an internal error and was unable to complete your request. Error message: DBD driver has not implemented the AutoCommit attribute at /usr/local/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.8.9/Apache/DBI.pm line 283. , Here's the origin code: use Data::Dumper 'Dumper'; use DBI (); my $dbh = DBI->connect($dsn, $username, $password, { RaiseError => 1, PrintError => 0, }); my $file = "/tmp/test-fork.tmp"; my $pid = fork; defined $pid or die "fork: $!"; if ($pid) { my $rows = eval { $dbh->selectall_arrayref('SELECT SLEEP(1)') }; print "Content-Type: text/plain\n\n"; print $rows ? "parent: " . Dumper($rows) : $@; } else { my $rows = eval { $dbh->selectall_arrayref('SELECT SLEEP(1)') }; open FH, '>', $file or die "$file: $!"; print FH $rows ? "child: " . Dumper($rows) : $@; close FH; } The code I used for reconnection: ... else { $dbh->disconnect; $dbh = DBI->connect($dsn, $username, $password, $attrs); my $rows = eval { $dbh->selectall_arrayref('SELECT SLEEP(1)') }; open FH, '>', $file or die "$file: $!"; print FH $rows ? "child: " . Dumper($rows) : $@; close FH; } Is there a safe way to use Apache::DBI with forking? Is there a way to make it create a new connection perhaps?

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  • Semi-complex aggregate select statement confusion

    - by Ian Henry
    Alright, this problem is a little complicated, so bear with me. I have a table full of data. One of the table columns is an EntryDate. There can be multiple entries per day. However, I want to select all rows that are the latest entry on their respective days, and I want to select all the columns of said table. One of the columns is a unique identifier column, but it is not the primary key (I have no idea why it's there; this is a pretty old system). For purposes of demonstration, say the table looks like this: create table ExampleTable ( ID int identity(1,1) not null, PersonID int not null, StoreID int not null, Data1 int not null, Data2 int not null, EntryDate datetime not null ) The primary key is on PersonID and StoreID, which logically defines uniqueness. Now, like I said, I want to select all the rows that are the latest entries on that particular day (for each Person-Store combination). This is pretty easy: --Figure 1 select PersonID, StoreID, max(EntryDate) from ExampleTable group by PersonID, StoreID, dbo.dayof(EntryDate) Where dbo.dayof() is a simple function that strips the time component from a datetime. However, doing this loses the rest of the columns! I can't simply include the other columns, because then I'd have to group by them, which would produce the wrong results (especially since ID is unique). I have found a dirty hack that will do what I want, but there must be a better way -- here's my current solution: select cast(null as int) as ID, PersonID, StoreID, cast(null as int) as Data1, cast(null as int) as Data2, max(EntryDate) as EntryDate into #StagingTable from ExampleTable group by PersonID, StoreID, dbo.dayof(EntryDate) update Target set ID = Source.ID, Data1 = Source.Data1, Data2 = Source.Data2, from #StagingTable as Target inner join ExampleTable as Source on Source.PersonID = Target.PersonID and Source.StoreID = Target.StoreID and Source.EntryDate = Target.EntryDate This gets me the correct data in #StagingTable but, well, look at it! Creating a table with null values, then doing an update to get the values back -- surely there's a better way to do this? A single statement that will get me all the values the first time? It is my belief that the correct join on that original select (Figure 1) would do the trick, like a self-join or something... but how do you do that with the group by clause? I cannot find the right syntax to make the query execute. I am pretty new with SQL, so it's likely that I'm missing something obvious. Any suggestions? (Working in T-SQL, if it makes any difference)

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  • IXmlSerializable Dictionary

    - by Shimmy
    I was trying to create a generic Dictionary that implements IXmlSerializable. Here is my trial: Sub Main() Dim z As New SerializableDictionary(Of String, String) z.Add("asdf", "asd") Console.WriteLine(z.Serialize) End Sub Result: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-16"?><Entry key="asdf" value="asd" /> I placed a breakpoint on top of the WriteXml method and I see that when it stops, the writer contains no data at all, and IMHO it should contain the root element and the xml declaration. <Serializable()> _ Public Class SerializableDictionary(Of TKey, TValue) : Inherits Dictionary(Of TKey, TValue) : Implements IXmlSerializable Private Const EntryString As String = "Entry" Private Const KeyString As String = "key" Private Const ValueString As String = "value" Private Shared ReadOnly AttributableTypes As Type() = New Type() {GetType(Boolean), GetType(Byte), GetType(Char), GetType(DateTime), GetType(Decimal), GetType(Double), GetType([Enum]), GetType(Guid), GetType(Int16), GetType(Int32), GetType(Int64), GetType(SByte), GetType(Single), GetType(String), GetType(TimeSpan), GetType(UInt16), GetType(UInt32), GetType(UInt64)} Private Shared ReadOnly GetIsAttributable As Predicate(Of Type) = Function(t) AttributableTypes.Contains(t) Private Shared ReadOnly IsKeyAttributable As Boolean = GetIsAttributable(GetType(TKey)) Private Shared ReadOnly IsValueAttributable As Boolean = GetIsAttributable(GetType(TValue)) Private Shared ReadOnly GetElementName As Func(Of Boolean, String) = Function(isKey) If(isKey, KeyString, ValueString) Public Function GetSchema() As System.Xml.Schema.XmlSchema Implements System.Xml.Serialization.IXmlSerializable.GetSchema Return Nothing End Function Public Sub WriteXml(ByVal writer As XmlWriter) Implements IXmlSerializable.WriteXml For Each entry In Me writer.WriteStartElement(EntryString) WriteData(IsKeyAttributable, writer, True, entry.Key) WriteData(IsValueAttributable, writer, False, entry.Value) writer.WriteEndElement() Next End Sub Private Sub WriteData(Of T)(ByVal attributable As Boolean, ByVal writer As XmlWriter, ByVal isKey As Boolean, ByVal value As T) Dim name = GetElementName(isKey) If attributable Then writer.WriteAttributeString(name, value.ToString) Else Dim serializer As New XmlSerializer(GetType(T)) writer.WriteStartElement(name) serializer.Serialize(writer, value) writer.WriteEndElement() End If End Sub Public Sub ReadXml(ByVal reader As XmlReader) Implements IXmlSerializable.ReadXml Dim empty = reader.IsEmptyElement reader.Read() If empty Then Exit Sub Clear() While reader.NodeType <> XmlNodeType.EndElement While reader.NodeType = XmlNodeType.Whitespace reader.Read() Dim key = ReadData(Of TKey)(IsKeyAttributable, reader, True) Dim value = ReadData(Of TValue)(IsValueAttributable, reader, False) Add(key, value) If Not IsKeyAttributable AndAlso Not IsValueAttributable Then reader.ReadEndElement() Else reader.Read() While reader.NodeType = XmlNodeType.Whitespace reader.Read() End While End While reader.ReadEndElement() End While End Sub Private Function ReadData(Of T)(ByVal attributable As Boolean, ByVal reader As XmlReader, ByVal isKey As Boolean) As T Dim name = GetElementName(isKey) Dim type = GetType(T) If attributable Then Return Convert.ChangeType(reader.GetAttribute(name), type) Else Dim serializer As New XmlSerializer(type) While reader.Name <> name reader.Read() End While reader.ReadStartElement(name) Dim value = serializer.Deserialize(reader) reader.ReadEndElement() Return value End If End Function Public Shared Function Serialize(ByVal dictionary As SerializableDictionary(Of TKey, TValue)) As String Dim sb As New StringBuilder(1024) Dim sw As New StringWriter(sb) Dim xs As New XmlSerializer(GetType(SerializableDictionary(Of TKey, TValue))) xs.Serialize(sw, dictionary) sw.Dispose() Return sb.ToString End Function Public Shared Function Deserialize(ByVal xml As String) As SerializableDictionary(Of TKey, TValue) Dim xs As New XmlSerializer(GetType(SerializableDictionary(Of TKey, TValue))) Dim xr As New XmlTextReader(xml, XmlNodeType.Document, Nothing) Return xs.Deserialize(xr) xr.Close() End Function Public Function Serialize() As String Dim sb As New StringBuilder Dim xw = XmlWriter.Create(sb) WriteXml(xw) xw.Close() Return sb.ToString End Function Public Sub Parse(ByVal xml As String) Dim xr As New XmlTextReader(xml, XmlNodeType.Document, Nothing) ReadXml(xr) xr.Close() End Sub End Class

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  • Memory allocation problem with SVMs in OpenCV

    - by worksintheory
    Hi, I've been using OpenCV happily for a while, but now I have a problem which has bugged me for quite some time. The following code is reasonably minimal example of my problem: #include <cv.h> #include <ml.h> using namespace cv; int main(int argc, char **argv) { int sampleCountForTesting = 2731; //BROKEN: Breaks svm.train_auto(...) for values of 2731 or greater! Mat trainingData( sampleCountForTesting, 1, CV_32FC1, Scalar::all(0.0) ); Mat trainingResponses( sampleCountForTesting, 1, CV_32FC1, Scalar::all(0.0) ); for(int j = 0; j < 6; j++) { trainingData.at<float>( j, 0 ) = (float) (j%2); trainingResponses.at<float>( j, 0 ) = (float) (j%2); //Setting a few values so I don't get a "single class" error } CvSVMParams svmParams( 100, //100 is CvSVM::C_SVC, 2, //2 is CvSVM::RBF, 1.0, 1.0, 1.0, 1.0, 1.0, 1.0, NULL, TermCriteria( TermCriteria::MAX_ITER | TermCriteria::EPS, 2, 1.0 ) ); CvSVM svm = CvSVM(); svm.train_auto( trainingData, trainingResponses, Mat(), Mat(), svmParams ); return 0; } I just create matrices to hold the training data and responses, then set a few entries to some value other than zero, then run the SVM. But it breaks whenever there are 2731 rows or more: OpenCV Error: One of arguments' values is out of range (requested size is negative or too big) in cvMemStorageAlloc, file [omitted]/opencv/OpenCV-2.2.0/modules/core/src/datastructs.cpp, line 332 With fewer rows, it seems to be fine and a classifier trained in a similar manner to the above seems to be giving reasonable output. Am I doing something wrong? I'm pretty sure it's not actually anything to do with lack of memory, as I've got 6GB and also the code works fine when the data has 2730 rows and 10000 columns, which is a much bigger allocation. I'm running OpenCV 2.2 on OSX 10.6 and initially I thought the problem might be related to this bug if for some reason the fix wasn't included in the MacPorts version. Now I've also tried downloading the most recent stable version from the OpenCV site and building with cmake and using that, but I still get the same error, and the fix is definitely included in that version. Any help would be much appreciated! Thanks,

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  • Entrepreneur Needs Programmers, Architects, or Engineers?

    - by brand-newbie
    Hi guys (Ladies included). I posted on a related site, but THIS is the place to be. I want to build a specialized website. I am an entrepreneur and refining valuations now for venture capitalsists: i.e., determining how much cash I will need. I need help in understanding what human resources I need (i.e., Software Programmers, Architects, Engineers, etc.)??? Trust me, I have read most--if not all--of the threads here on the subject, and I can tell you I am no closer to the answer than ever. Here's my technology problem: The website will include (2) main components: a search engine (web crawler)...and a very large database. The search engine will not be a competitor to google, obviously; however, it "will" require bots to scour the web. The website will be, basically, a statistical database....where users should be able to pull up any statistic from "numerous" fields. Like any entrepreneur with a web-based vision, I'm "hoping" to get 100+ million registered users eventually. However, practically, we will start as small as feasible. As regards the technology (database architecture, servers, etc.), I do want quality, quality, quality. My priorities are speed, and the capaility to be scalable...so that if I "did" get globally large, we could do it without having to re-engineer anything. In other words, I want the back-end and the "infrastructure" to be scalable and professional....with emphasis on quality. I am not an IT professional. Although I've built several Joomla-based websites, I'm just a rookie who's only used minor javascript coding to modify a few plug-ins and components. The business I'm trying to create requires specialization and experts. I want to define the problem and let a capable team create the final product, and I will stay totally hands off. So who do you guys suggest I hire to run this thing? A software engineer? I was thinking I would need a "database engineer," a "systems security engineer", and maybe 2 or 3 "programmers" for the search engine. Also a web designer...and maybe a part-time graphic designer...everyone working under a single software engineer. What do you guys think? Who should I hire?...I REALLY need help from some people in the industry (YOU guys) on this. Is this project do-able in 6 months? If so, how many people will I need? Who exactly needs to head up this thing?...Senior software engineer, an embedded engineer, a CC++ engineer, a java engineer, a database engineer? And do I build this thing is Ruby or Java?

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  • Fluent NHibernate - How to map a non nullable foreign key that exists in two joined tables

    - by vakman
    I'm mapping a set of membership classes for my application using Fluent NHibernate. I'm mapping the classes to the asp.net membership database structure. The database schema relevant to the problem looks like this: ASPNET_USERS UserId PK ApplicationId FK NOT NULL other user columns ... ASPNET_MEMBERSHIP UserId PK,FK ApplicationID FK NOT NULL other membership columns... There is a one to one relationship between these two tables. I'm attempting to join the two tables together and map data from both tables to a single 'User' entity which looks like this: public class User { public virtual Guid Id { get; set; } public virtual Guid ApplicationId { get; set; } // other properties to be mapped from aspnetuser/membership tables ... My mapping file is as follows: public class UserMap : ClassMap<User> { public UserMap() { Table("aspnet_Users"); Id(user => user.Id).Column("UserId").GeneratedBy.GuidComb(); Map(user => user.ApplicationId); // other user mappings Join("aspnet_Membership", join => { join.KeyColumn("UserId"); join.Map(user => user.ApplicationId); // Map other things from membership to 'User' class } } } If I try to run with the code above I get a FluentConfiguration exception Tried to add property 'ApplicationId' when already added. If I remove the line "Map(user = user.ApplicationId);" or change it to "Map(user = user.ApplicationId).Not.Update().Not.Insert();" then the application runs but I get the following exception when trying to insert a new user: Cannot insert the value NULL into column 'ApplicationId', table 'ASPNETUsers_Dev.dbo.aspnet_Users'; column does not allow nulls. INSERT fails. The statement has been terminated. And if I leave the .Map(user = user.ApplicationId) as it originally was and make either of those changes to the join.Map(user = user.ApplicationId) then I get the same exception above except of course the exception is related to an insert into the aspnet_Membership table So... how do I do this kind of mapping assuming I can't change my database schema?

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  • IE8 v8 not changing class for a DOM element despite JS function changing the element attribute

    - by Alfabravo
    I have an on-screen keyboard in order to provide a safer input for passwords. The keyboard itself is placed like this: <div class="teclado_grafico" id="teclado_grafico"> <a class="tecla_teclado" onmousedown="teclaAction( this, 'caja_selector'); return false" style="top: 0px; left: 0px;">Q</a> <a class="tecla_teclado" onmousedown="teclaAction( this, 'caja_selector'); return false" style="top: 0px; left: 28px;">W</a> . . . </div> And it has a "Shift button" which fires a JS function with this (I've already tried all that, indeed): if (obj.innerHTML == "Mayus.") { try { MAYUSCULA_ACTIVADO = !MAYUSCULA_ACTIVADO; var tgrafico = document.getElementById("teclado_grafico"); if(MAYUSCULA_ACTIVADO) { // tgrafico.className = "teclado_grafico mayuscula"; // $("#teclado_grafico").removeClass('minuscula').addClass('mayuscula'); // $("#teclado_grafico").attr('class', 'teclado_grafico mayuscula'); // $("#teclado_grafico").attr('className', 'teclado_grafico mayuscula'); tgrafico.setAttribute('className', "teclado_grafico mayuscula") || tgrafico.setAttribute('class', "teclado_grafico mayuscula"); } else { // tgrafico.className = "teclado_grafico minuscula"; // $("#teclado_grafico").removeClass('mayuscula').addClass('minuscula'); // $("#teclado_grafico").attr('class', 'teclado_grafico minuscula'); // $("#teclado_grafico").attr('className', 'teclado_grafico minuscula'); tgrafico.setAttribute('className', "teclado_grafico minuscula") || tgrafico.setAttribute('class', "teclado_grafico minuscula"); } } catch (_E) { //void } return; } The associated CSS is like this: .mayuscula a.tecla_teclado{ text-transform: uppercase; } .minuscula a.tecla_teclado{ text-transform: lowercase; } It works on every single browser I've tried. IE 6, 7; Opera 10; GChrome; FF 3, 3.5 and 3.6; Safari 4,... but in IE8 v8 (strict mode) the class is not changed! I mean, debuggin' with the IE8 tools allows one to see that the attribute className is there and it changes... but the user does not see the letters changing from uppercase to lowercase, to uppercase again. I just don't know how to handle this... I had complains about the client using IE6... now they updated their stuff and this shows up. Any help will be reaaaaly helpful!

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  • Tridion Installation

    - by Kevin Brydon
    I am currently upgrading an installation of Tridion from 5.3 to 2011 starting almost from scratch (aside from migrating the database), brand new virtual servers. I just want to ask for some advice on my current server setup... a sanity check. All servers are running Windows Server 2008. The pages on our website are all classic ASP. Database SQL Server cluster. The 5.3 database has been migrated using the DatabaseManager. This is pretty standard and works well (in test anyway). Content Manager A single server to run the Content Manager and the Publisher. There are around 10 people using it at any one time so not under a particularly heavy load. Content Data Store Filesystem located somewhere on the network. One directory for live and one for staging. Content Delivery Two servers (cd1 and cd2) each with the the following server roles installed. cd1 writes to a filesystem content data store for the live website, cd2 writes to the content data store for the staging website. Presentation Two public facing web servers (web1 and web2) serving both the live and staging websites. The web servers read directly from the content data store as its a filesystem. Each of the web servers have the Content Delivery Server installed so that I can use dynamic linking (and other features?). I've so far set up everything but the web servers. Any thoughts? edit Thanks to Ram S who linked me to a decent walkthrough, upvoted. I suppose I should have posed some questions as I didn't really ask a question. I guess I'm a little confused over the content deliver aspect. I have the Content Delivery split in two separate parts. cd1 and cd2 do the work of shifting information from the Content Manager to the Staging/Live web directories. web1 and web2 should do the work of serving the web pages to the outside world and will interact with the content data store (file system). Is this a correct setup? I need some parts of the Content Delivery on my web servers right? Theoretically I could get rid of the cd1 and cd2 servers and use web1 and web2 to do the deployment right? But I suspect this will put the web servers under unnecessary strain should there ever be a big publish. I've been reading the 2011 Installation Manual, Content Delivery section, and I'm finding it quite hard to get my head around!

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  • Best practice to handle Parent Form Child Form relation using Presentation Model

    - by Rajarshi
    According to Presentation Model notes by Martin Fowler and also on MSDN documentation about Presentation Model, it is explained that the Presentation Model Class should be unaware of the UI class and similarly Business Model Class should be unaware of the Presentation Model class. The UI should databind extensively to the Presentation Model, the Presentation Model in turn will co-ordinate with one or more Domain/Business Model objects to get the job done. The Presentation Model basically presents the Domain Model data in a way to facilitate maximum data binding in UI, allowing the UI take as less decisions as possible and thus increase testability of Presentation behaviours. This also makes the presentation model class generic, i.e. agnostic of any particular UI technology. Now, consider there is a List form (say CustomerList) and there is another Root form (say Customer) and there is a Use Case of allowing to Edit a Customer from the CustomerList form on a button click. For simplicity of discussion, consider that some actions took place when Customer List is opened from menu (i.e. Customer menu clicked) and the Customer List has been shown from the Menu click event. Now as per the above Use Case, I need to open the Customer Root UI (single Customer) from the Customer List. How do I do that? Build necessary objects (BusinessModel, PresentationModel, UI) in click event of Edit button and call CustomerEdit UI from there? Build the CustomerEdit UI from Presentation Model Class and show UI from presentation model? this can be done in any of the two ways below - a. Create objects in the following sequence DomainModel-PresentationModel-UIForm b. Use Unity.Resolve(); Either ways, Presentation Model is violated as the P model now has to the refer the concrete UI assembly, where CustomerEdit is located. Also the P Model has to refer and use a WinForm directly making it less UI technology agnostic. Even though the violations are in theory and can be ignored, I would still seek the community's opinion about whether I am going wrong direction. Please suggest if there's a better way to call the Child Form from the List (Parent) Form. Rajarshi

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  • Is there an algorithm for converting quaternion rotations to Euler angle rotations?

    - by Will Baker
    Is there an existing algorithm for converting a quaternion representation of a rotation to an Euler angle representation? The rotation order for the Euler representation is known and can be any of the six permutations (i.e. xyz, xzy, yxz, yzx, zxy, zyx). I've seen algorithms for a fixed rotation order (usually the NASA heading, bank, roll convention) but not for arbitrary rotation order. Furthermore, because there are multiple Euler angle representations of a single orientation, this result is going to be ambiguous. This is acceptable (because the orientation is still valid, it just may not be the one the user is expecting to see), however it would be even better if there was an algorithm which took rotation limits (i.e. the number of degrees of freedom and the limits on each degree of freedom) into account and yielded the 'most sensible' Euler representation given those constraints. I have a feeling this problem (or something similar) may exist in the IK or rigid body dynamics domains. Solved: I just realised that it might not be clear that I solved this problem by following Ken Shoemake's algorithms from Graphics Gems. I did answer my own question at the time, but it occurs to me it may not be clear that I did so. See the answer, below, for more detail. Just to clarify - I know how to convert from a quaternion to the so-called 'Tait-Bryan' representation - what I was calling the 'NASA' convention. This is a rotation order (assuming the convention that the 'Z' axis is up) of zxy. I need an algorithm for all rotation orders. Possibly the solution, then, is to take the zxy order conversion and derive from it five other conversions for the other rotation orders. I guess I was hoping there was a more 'overarching' solution. In any case, I am surprised that I haven't been able to find existing solutions out there. In addition, and this perhaps should be a separate question altogether, any conversion (assuming a known rotation order, of course) is going to select one Euler representation, but there are in fact many. For example, given a rotation order of yxz, the two representations (0,0,180) and (180,180,0) are equivalent (and would yield the same quaternion). Is there a way to constrain the solution using limits on the degrees of freedom? Like you do in IK and rigid body dynamics? i.e. in the example above if there were only one degree of freedom about the Z axis then the second representation can be disregarded. I have tracked down one paper which could be an algorithm in this pdf but I must confess I find the logic and math a little hard to follow. Surely there are other solutions out there? Is arbitrary rotation order really so rare? Surely every major 3D package that allows skeletal animation together with quaternion interpolation (i.e. Maya, Max, Blender, etc) must have solved exactly this problem?

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  • Importing Conditionally Compiled Functions From a Perl Module

    - by Robert S. Barnes
    I have a set of logging and debugging functions which I want to use across multiple modules / objects. I'd like to be able to turn them on / off globally using a command line switch. The following code does this, however, I would like to be able to omit the package name and keep everything in a single file. This is related to two previous questions I asked, here and here. #! /usr/bin/perl -w use strict; use Getopt::Long; { package LogFuncs; use threads; use Time::HiRes qw( gettimeofday ); # provide tcpdump style time stamp sub _gf_time { my ( $seconds, $microseconds ) = gettimeofday(); my @time = localtime($seconds); return sprintf( "%02d:%02d:%02d.%06ld", $time[2], $time[1], $time[0], $microseconds ); } sub logerr; sub compile { my %params = @_; *logerr = $params{do_logging} ? sub { my $msg = shift; warn _gf_time() . " Thread " . threads->tid() . ": $msg\n"; } : sub { }; } } { package FooObj; sub new { my $class = shift; bless {}, $class; }; sub foo_work { my $self = shift; # do some foo work LogFuncs::logerr($self); } } { package BarObj; sub new { my $class = shift; my $data = { fooObj => FooObj->new() }; bless $data, $class; } sub bar_work { my $self = shift; $self->{fooObj}->foo_work(); LogFuncs::logerr($self); } } my $do_logging = 0; GetOptions( "do_logging" => \$do_logging, ); LogFuncs::compile(do_logging => $do_logging); my $bar = BarObj->new(); LogFuncs::logerr("Created $bar"); $bar->bar_work();

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  • Streaming Video with Blackberry Simulator

    - by Jenny
    So, I wrote a quick little app for the iphone that takes in an http URL, and plays the .mp4 video located at that URL (it does more than that, of course, but that's the meat of it). Naturally, I wanted to have it on more than just a single mobile platform, so I decided to target Blackberry next. However, I'm running into a lot of problems with the Blackberry Environment. First of all, I learn that I can only download 256k files! I learn how to set that variable in my MDS simulator (and learn that this is NOT a production solution, because any end users will have to have their BES or MDS admin change the setting there). Then, I find a video less than 2 MB I can practice with. Going to the browser prompts me to save the video (rather than it playing in the browser like I expected). After saving the video, it refuses to play, saying it's the wrong format. So. I can't find a reference to IF Blackberry can stream with HTTP (i"ve heard it CAN use RTSP, though, and heard some rumors that it can't use HTTP, which would really suck). I also can't find a reference to what format blackberry uses (although I can find a million programs that will convert one file to the 'blackberry' format). Surely SOMEONE must have tried to stream video with the blackberry before. How did they go about doing so? Is it just a hopeless pipedream? Will I have to go with RTSP? Sorry for the lack of a concrete question...I'm just really lost, and I hate how so many tutorials or forum posts seem to assume I know the capabilities of the Blackberry... Edit: I finally found out that the .3gp (which I'd never heard of ) format is what Blackberry uses. Still have no idea how to stream videos off the web, though. I found a tutorial: http://www.blackberry.com/knowledgecenterpublic/livelink.exe/fetch/2000/348583/800332/1089414/How%5FTo%5F-%5FPlay%5Fvideo%5Fwithin%5Fa%5FBlackBerry%5Fsmartphone%5Fapplication.html?nodeid=1383173&vernum=0 That seemed to be useful, but the code doesn't work if you give it a URL (even though it claims it does).

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  • Asynchronous sockets in C#

    - by IVlad
    I'm confused about the correct way of using asynchronous socket methods in C#. I will refer to these two articles to explain things and ask my questions: MSDN article on asynchronous client sockets and devarticles.com article on socket programming. My question is about the BeginReceive() method. The MSDN article uses these two functions to handle receiving data: private static void Receive(Socket client) { try { // Create the state object. StateObject state = new StateObject(); state.workSocket = client; // Begin receiving the data from the remote device. client.BeginReceive( state.buffer, 0, StateObject.BufferSize, 0, new AsyncCallback(ReceiveCallback), state); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.ToString()); } } private static void ReceiveCallback( IAsyncResult ar ) { try { // Retrieve the state object and the client socket // from the asynchronous state object. StateObject state = (StateObject) ar.AsyncState; Socket client = state.workSocket; // Read data from the remote device. int bytesRead = client.EndReceive(ar); if (bytesRead > 0) { // There might be more data, so store the data received so far. state.sb.Append(Encoding.ASCII.GetString(state.buffer,0,bytesRead)); // Get the rest of the data. client.BeginReceive(state.buffer,0,StateObject.BufferSize,0, new AsyncCallback(ReceiveCallback), state); } else { // All the data has arrived; put it in response. if (state.sb.Length > 1) { response = state.sb.ToString(); } // Signal that all bytes have been received. receiveDone.Set(); } } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.ToString()); } } While the devarticles.com tutorial passes null for the last parameter of the BeginReceive method, and goes on to explain that the last parameter is useful when we're dealing with multiple sockets. Now my questions are: What is the point of passing a state to the BeginReceive method if we're only working with a single socket? Is it to avoid using a class field? It seems like there's little point in doing it, but maybe I'm missing something. How can the state parameter help when dealing with multiple sockets? If I'm calling client.BeginReceive(...), won't all the data be read from the client socket? The devarticles.com tutorial makes it sound like in this call: m_asynResult = m_socClient.BeginReceive (theSocPkt.dataBuffer,0,theSocPkt.dataBuffer.Length, SocketFlags.None,pfnCallBack,theSocPkt); Data will be read from the theSocPkt.thisSocket socket, instead of from the m_socClient socket. In their example the two are one and the same, but what happens if that is not the case? I just don't really see where that last argument is useful or at least how it helps with multiple sockets. If I have multiple sockets, I still need to call BeginReceive on each of them, right?

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  • Jruby Gems-in-a-jar issue

    - by antonio
    Hi all, I am trying to write some code in ruby (using jruby) to be compiled to java bytecode with jrubyc and deployed to a remote machine where it will be run on the JVM (no ruby available there). Everything works fine as long as I am happy to stick with the standard jruby library. As explained on the jruby website, I simply copy the jruby-complete.jar library to the remote machine and include it in the classpath at runtime. I fire my compiled script and it works: cool! The problems start when I need some other libraries (typically rubygems) to run my script. I am aware of cool stuff like rawr, -which I successfully tested- to put together all you need in a single package. However that is not the solution I am looking for: I will have many small scripts to run independently and I don't want each of them to grow to at least 10 MB just because I insanely include the jruby-complete.jar in each of them. What I would like is to compile a .jar for each of the libraries that I will need to use, put all of them in a common folder on the remote machine and include them at runtime in the classpath when I run my compiled jruby scripts on the JVM. This said, I tried to follow the instructions here: http://blog.nicksieger.com/articles/2009/01/10/jruby-1-1-6-gems-in-a-jar I tried exactly the example shown there, with the "chronic" gem. Going step by step: Install the gem locally: java -jar jruby-complete-1.1.6.jar -S gem install -i ./chronic chronic --no-rdoc --no-ri Package it into a jar: jar cf chronic.jar -C chronic . Write a two lines test script, saving it as testt.rb: require 'chronic' Chronic.parse('tomorrow') Compile with: jrubyc testt.rb Run the resulting java class testt.class with the following (having both jruby-complete.jar and chronic.jar in the same folder as the java class): java -cp .:/jruby-complete.jar:./chronic.jar testt I get the following error: Exception in thread "main" file:/Users/ave2/NetBeansProjects/jrubywatir/lib/jruby-complete.jar!/METAINF/jruby.home/lib/ruby/site_ruby/shared/builtin/core_ext/symbol.rb:1:in `const_missing': uninitialized constant Chronic (NameError) from testt.rb:2 ...internal jruby stack elided... from Module.const_missing(testt.rb:2) from (unknown).(unknown)(:1) I really don't understand what I am doing wrong, and I am totally stuck on this. I am a noob in Ruby, much more used to Python: don't miss a chance to convert an infidel! :-) Thanks.

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  • Animating custom-drawn UITableViewCell when entering edit mode

    - by Adam Alexander
    Background First of all, much gratitude to atebits for their very informative blog post Fast Scrolling in Tweetie with UITableView. The post explains in detail how the developers were able to squeeze as much scrolling performance as possible out of the UITableViews in Tweetie. Goals Beginning with the source code linked from the blog post (original) (my github repo): Allow a UITableView using these custom cells to switch to edit mode, exposing the UI for deleting an item from the table. (github commit) Move the cell's text aside as the deletion control slides in from the left. This is complete, although the text jumps back and forth without animation. (github commit) Apply animation to the text movement in goal 2 above for a smooth user experience. This is the step where I became stuck. The Question What is the best way to introduce this animation to complete goal 3? It would be nice if this could be done in a manner that keeps the logic from my last commit because I would love the option to move the conflicting part of the view only, while any non-conflicting portions (such as right-justified text) stay in the same place or move a different number of pixels. If the above is not possible then undoing my last commit and replacing it with an option that slides the entire view to the right would be a workable solution also. I appreciate any help anyone can provide, from quick pointers and ideas all the way to code snippets or github commits. Of course you are welcome to fork my repo if you would like. I will be staying involved with this question to make sure any successful resolution is committed to github and fully documented here. Thanks very much for your time! Updated thoughts I have been thinking about this a lot since my first post and realized that moving some text items relative to others in the view could undo some of the original performance goals solved in the original blog post. So at this point I am thinking a solution where the entire single subview is animated to its new postion may be the best one. Second, if it is done in this way there may be an instance where the subview has a custom color or gradient background. Hopefully this can be done in a way that in its normal position the background extends unseen off to the left enough so that when the view is slid to the right the custom background is still visible across the entire cell.

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  • Why does my UIActivityIndicatorView only display once?

    - by Schwigg
    I'm developing an iPhone app that features a tab-bar based navigation with five tabs. Each tab contains a UITableView whose data is retrieved remotely. Ideally, I would like to use a single UIActivityIndicatorView (a subview of the window) that is started/stopped during this remote retrieval - once per tab. Here's how I set up the spinner in the AppDelegate: - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { [window addSubview:rootController.view]; activityIndicator = [[UIActivityIndicatorView alloc] initWithActivityIndicatorStyle:UIActivityIndicatorViewStyleWhiteLarge]; [activityIndicator setCenter:CGPointMake(160, 200)]; [window addSubview:activityIndicator]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } Since my tabs were all performing a similiar function, I created a base class that all of my tabs' ViewControllers inherit from. Here is the method I'm using to do the remote retrieval: - (void)parseXMLFileAtURL:(NSString *)URL { NSAutoreleasePool *apool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; AppDelegate *appDelegate = (AppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; NSLog(@"parseXMLFileAtURL started."); [appDelegate.activityIndicator startAnimating]; NSLog(@"appDelegate.activityIndicator: %@", appDelegate.activityIndicator); articles = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSURL *xmlURL = [NSURL URLWithString:URL]; rssParser = [[NSXMLParser alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:xmlURL]; [rssParser setDelegate:self]; [rssParser setShouldProcessNamespaces:NO]; [rssParser setShouldReportNamespacePrefixes:NO]; [rssParser setShouldResolveExternalEntities:NO]; [rssParser parse]; NSLog(@"parseXMLFileAtURL finished."); [appDelegate.activityIndicator stopAnimating]; [apool release]; } This method is being called by each view controller as follows: - (void)viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewDidAppear:animated]; if ([articles count] == 0) { NSString *path = @"http://www.myproject.com/rss1.xml"; [self performSelectorInBackground:@selector(parseXMLFileAtURL:) withObject:path]; } } This works great while the application loads the first tab's content. I'm presented with the empty table and the spinner. As soon as the content loads, the spinner goes away. Strangely, when I click the second tab, the NSLog messages from the -parseXMLFileAtURL: method show up in the log, but the screen hangs on the first tab's view and I do not see the spinner. As soon as the content is done downloading, the second tab's view appears. I suspect this has something to do with threading, with which I'm still becoming acquainted. Am I doing something obviously wrong here?

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  • Blackberry - Listfield layout question

    - by Kai
    I'm having an interesting anomaly when displaying a listfield on the blackberry simulator: The top item is the height of a single line of text (about 12 pixels) while the rest are fine. Does anyone know why only the top item is being drawn this way? Also, when I add an empty venue in position 0, it still displays the first actual venue this way (item in position 1). Not sure what to do. Thanks for any help. The layout looks like this: ----------------------------------- | *part of image* | title | ----------------------------------- | | title | | * full image * | address | | | city, zip | ----------------------------------- The object is called like so: listField = new ListField( venueList.size() ); listField.setCallback( this ); listField.setSelectedIndex(-1); _middle.add( listField ); Here is the drawListRow code: public void drawListRow( ListField listField, Graphics graphics, int index, int y, int width ) { listField.setRowHeight(90); Hashtable item = (Hashtable) venueList.elementAt( index ); String venue_name = (String) item.get("name"); String image_url = (String) item.get("image_url"); String address = (String) item.get("address"); String city = (String) item.get("city"); String zip = (String) item.get("zip"); EncodedImage img = null; try { String filename = image_url.substring(image_url.indexOf("crop/") + 5, image_url.length() ); FileConnection fconn = (FileConnection)Connector.open( "file:///SDCard/Blackberry/project1/" + filename, Connector.READ); if ( !fconn.exists() ) { } else { InputStream input = fconn.openInputStream(); byte[] data = new byte[(int)fconn.fileSize()]; input.read(data); input.close(); if(data.length > 0) { EncodedImage rawimg = EncodedImage.createEncodedImage( data, 0, data.length); int dw = Fixed32.toFP(Display.getWidth()); int iw = Fixed32.toFP(rawimg.getWidth()); int sf = Fixed32.div(iw, dw); img = rawimg.scaleImage32(sf * 4, sf * 4); } else { } } } catch(IOException ef) { } graphics.drawText( venue_name, 140, y, 0, width ); graphics.drawText( address, 140, y + 15, 0, width ); graphics.drawText( city + ", " + zip, 140, y + 30, 0, width ); if(img != null) { graphics.drawImage(0, y, img.getWidth(), img.getHeight(), img, 0, 0, 0); } }

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  • Retrieve EF4 POCOs using WCF REST services starter kit

    - by muruge
    I am using WCF REST service (GET method) to retrieve my EF4 POCOs. The service seem to work just fine. When I query the uri in my browser I get the results as expected. In my client application I am trying to use WCF REST Starter Kit's HTTPExtension method - ReadAsDataContract() to convert the result back into my POCO. This works fine when the POCO's navigation property is a single object of related POCO. The problem is when the navigation property is a collection of related POCOs. The ReadAsDataContract() method throws an exception with message "Object reference not set to an instance of an object." Below are my POCOs. [DataContract(Namespace = "", Name = "Trip")] public class Trip { [DataMember(Order = 1)] public virtual int TripID { get; set; } [DataMember(Order = 2)] public virtual int RegionID { get; set; } [DataMember(Order = 3)] public virtual System.DateTime BookingDate { get; set; } [DataMember(Order = 4)] public virtual Region Region { // removed for brevity } } [DataContract(Namespace = "", Name = "Region")] public class Region { [DataMember(Order = 1)] public virtual int RegionID { get; set; } [DataMember(Order = 2)] public virtual string RegionCode { get; set; } [DataMember(Order = 3)] public virtual FixupCollection<Trip> Trips { // removed for brevity } } [CollectionDataContract(Namespace = "", Name = "{0}s", ItemName = "{0}")] [Serializable] public class FixupCollection<T> : ObservableCollection<T> { protected override void ClearItems() { new List<T>(this).ForEach(t => Remove(t)); } protected override void InsertItem(int index, T item) { if (!this.Contains(item)) { base.InsertItem(index, item); } } } And this is how I am trying retrieve a Region POCO. static void GetRegion() { string uri = "http://localhost:8080/TripService/Regions?id=1"; HttpClient client = new HttpClient(uri); using (HttpResponseMessage response = client.Get(uri)) { Region region; response.EnsureStatusIsSuccessful(); try { region = response.Content.ReadAsDataContract<Region>(); // this line throws exception because Region returns a collection of related trips Console.WriteLine(region.RegionName); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex.Message); } } } Would appreciate any pointers.

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  • How to avoid using duplicate savepoint names in nested transactions in nested stored procs?

    - by Gary McGill
    I have a pattern that I almost always follow, where if I need to wrap up an operation in a transaction, I do this: BEGIN TRANSACTION SAVE TRANSACTION TX -- Stuff IF @error <> 0 ROLLBACK TRANSACTION TX COMMIT TRANSACTION That's served me well enough in the past, but after years of using this pattern (and copy-pasting the above code), I've suddenly discovered a flaw which comes as a complete shock. Quite often, I'll have a stored procedure calling other stored procedures, all of which use this same pattern. What I've discovered (to my cost) is that because I'm using the same savepoint name everywhere, I can get into a situation where my outer transaction is partially committed - precisely the opposite of the atomicity that I'm trying to achieve. I've put together an example that exhibits the problem. This is a single batch (no nested stored procs), and so it looks a little odd in that you probably wouldn't use the same savepoint name twice in the same batch, but my real-world scenario would be too confusing to post. CREATE TABLE Test (test INTEGER NOT NULL) BEGIN TRAN SAVE TRAN TX BEGIN TRAN SAVE TRAN TX INSERT INTO Test(test) VALUES (1) COMMIT TRAN TX BEGIN TRAN SAVE TRAN TX INSERT INTO Test(test) VALUES (2) COMMIT TRAN TX DELETE FROM Test ROLLBACK TRAN TX COMMIT TRAN TX SELECT * FROM Test DROP TABLE Test When I execute this, it lists one record, with value "1". In other words, even though I rolled back my outer transaction, a record was added to the table. What's happening is that the ROLLBACK TRANSACTION TX at the outer level is rolling back as far as the last SAVE TRANSACTION TX at the inner level. Now that I write this all out, I can see the logic behind it: the server is looking back through the log file, treating it as a linear stream of transactions; it doesn't understand the nesting/hierarchy implied by either the nesting of the transactions (or, in my real-world scenario, by the calls to other stored procedures). So, clearly, I need to start using unique savepoint names instead of blindly using "TX" everywhere. But - and this is where I finally get to the point - is there a way to do this in a copy-pastable way so that I can still use the same code everywhere? Can I auto-generate the savepoint name on the fly somehow? Is there a convention or best-practice for doing this sort of thing? It's not exactly hard to come up with a unique name every time you start a transaction (could base it off the SP name, or somesuch), but I do worry that eventually there would be a conflict - and you wouldn't know about it because rather than causing an error it just silently destroys your data... :-(

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