Search Results

Search found 59041 results on 2362 pages for 'data replication'.

Page 786/2362 | < Previous Page | 782 783 784 785 786 787 788 789 790 791 792 793  | Next Page >

  • Extjs - Loading Grid when call

    - by Oxi
    I have form and grid. the user must enter data in form fields then display related records in the grid. I want to implement a search form, e.g: user will type the name and gender of the student, then will get a grid of all students have the same name and gender. So, I use ajax to send form fields value to PHP and then creat a json_encode wich will be used in grid store. I am really not sure if my idea is good. But I haven't found another way to do that. The problem is when I set autoLoad to true in the store, the grid automatically filled with all data - not just what I asked for - So, I understand that I have to set autoLoad to false, but then the result not shown in the grid even it returned successfully in the firebug! I don't know what to do. My View: { xtype: 'panel', layout: "fit", id: 'searchResult', flex: 7, title: '<div style="text-align:center;"/>SearchResultGrid</div>', items: [ { xtype: 'gridpanel', store: 'advSearchStore', id: 'AdvSearch-grid', columns: [ { xtype: 'gridcolumn', dataIndex: 'name', align: 'right', text: 'name' }, { xtype: 'gridcolumn', dataIndex: 'gender', align: 'right', text: 'gender' } ], viewConfig: { id : 'Arr' ,emptyText: 'noResult' }, requires: ['MyApp.PrintSave_toolbar'], dockedItems: [ { xtype: 'PrintSave_tb', dock: 'bottom', } ] } ] }, My Store and Model: Ext.define('AdvSearchPost', { extend: 'Ext.data.Model', proxy: { type: 'ajax', url: 'AdvSearch.php', reader: { type: 'json', root: 'Arr', totalProperty: 'totalCount' } }, fields: [ { name: 'name'}, { name: 'type_and_cargo'} ] }); Ext.create('Ext.data.Store', { pageSize: 10, autoLoad: false, model: 'AdvSearchPost', storeId: 'AdvSearchPost' });

    Read the article

  • Android listing design problem with cursors

    - by Priyank
    Hi. I have a following situation in my android app. I have an app that fetches messages from inbox, sent items and drafts based on search keywords. I use to accomplish this by fetching cursors for each manually based on selection by user and then populating them in a custom data holder object. Filter those results based on given keywords and then manually render view with respective data. Someone suggested that I should use a custom Cursor adapter to bind view and my cursor data. So I tried doing that. Now what I am doing is this: Fetch individual cursors for inbox, sent items and drafts. Merge them into one using Merge cursor and then pass that back to my CursorAdapter implmentation. Now where or how do I filter my cursor data based on keywords; because now binding will ensure that they are directly rendered to view on list. Also, some post fetching operation like fetching sender's contact pic and all will be something that I do not want to move to adapter. If I do all this processing in adapter; it'll be heavy and ugly. How could I have designed it better such that it performs and the responsibilities are shared and distributed. Any ideas will be helpful.

    Read the article

  • Selenium RC: Selecting elements using the CSS :contains pseudo-class

    - by Andrew
    I would like to assert that a table row contains the data that I expect in two different tables. Using the following HTML as an example: <table> <tr> <th>Table 1</th> </tr> <tr> <td>Row 1 Col 1</td> <td>Row 1 Col 2</td> </tr> </table> <table> <tr> <th>Table 2</th> </tr> <tr> <td>Row 1 Col 1</td> <td>different data</td> </tr> </table> The following assertion passes: $this->assertElementPresent('css=table:contains(Table 1)'); However, this one doesn't: $this->assertElementPresent('css=table:contains(Table 1) tr:contains(Row 1 Col 1)'); And ultimately, I need to be able to test that both columns within the table row contain the data that I expect: $this->assertElementPresent('css=table:contains(Table 1) tr:contains(Row 1 Col 1):contains(Row 1 Col 2)'); $this->assertElementPresent('css=table:contains(Table 2) tr:contains(Row 1 Col 1):contains(different data)'); What am I doing wrong? How can I achieve this? Update: Sounds like the problem is a bug in Selenium when trying to select descendants. The only way I was able to get this to work was to add an extra identifier on the table so I could tell which one I was working with: /* HTML */ <table id="table-1"> /* PHP */ $this->assertElementPresent("css=#table-1 tr:contains(Row 1 Col 1):contains(Row 1 Col 2)");

    Read the article

  • Fix a 404: missing parameters error from a GET request to CherryPy

    - by norabora
    I'm making a webpage using CherryPy for the server-side, HTML, CSS and jQuery on the client-side. I'm also using a mySQL database. I have a working form for users to sign up to the site - create a username and password. I use jQuery to send an AJAX POST request to the CherryPy which queries the database to see if that username exists. If the username exists, alert the user, if it doesn't, add it to the database and alert success. $.post('submit', postdata, function(data) { alert(data); }); Successful jQuery POST. I want to change the form so that instead of checking that the username exists on submit, a GET request is made as on the blur event from the username input. The function gets called, and it goes to the CherryPy, but then I get an error that says: HTTPError: (404, 'Missing parameters: username'). $.get('checkUsername', getdata, function(data) { alert(data); }); Unsuccessful jQuery GET. The CherryPy: @cherrypy.expose def submit(self, **params): cherrypy.response.headers['Content-Type'] = 'application/json' e = sqlalchemy.create_engine('mysql://mysql:pw@localhost/6470') c = e.connect() com1 = "SELECT * FROM `users` WHERE `username` = '" + params["username"] + "'" b = c.execute(com1).fetchall() if not len(b) > 0: com2 = "INSERT INTO `6470`.`users` (`username` ,`password` ,`website` ,`key`) VALUES ('" com2 += params["username"] + "', MD5( '" + params["password"] + "'), '', NULL);" a = c.execute(com2) c.close() return simplejson.dumps("Success!") #login user and send them to home page c.close() return simplejson.dumps("This username is not available.") @cherrypy.expose def checkUsername(self, username): cherrypy.response.headers['Content-Type'] = 'application/json' e = sqlalchemy.create_engine('mysql://mysql:pw@localhost/6470') c = e.connect() command = "SELECT * FROM `users` WHERE `username` = '" + username + "'" a = c.execute(command).fetchall(); c.close() sys.stdout.write(str(a)) return simplejson.dumps("") I can't see any differences between the two so I don't know why the GET request is giving me a problem. Any insight into what I might be doing wrong would be helpful. If you have ideas about the jQuery, CherryPy, config files, anything, I'd really appreciate it.

    Read the article

  • Blackberry Asynchronous HTTP Requests - How?

    - by Kai
    The app I'm working on has a self contained database. The only time I need HTTP request is when the user first loads the app. I do this by calling a class that verifies whether or not a local DB exists and, if not, create one with the following request: HttpRequest data = new HttpRequest("http://www.somedomain.com/xml", "GET", this); data.start(); This xml returns a list of content, all of which have images that I want to fetch AFTER the original request is complete and stored. So something like this won't work: HttpRequest data = new HttpRequest("http://www.somedomain.com/xml", "GET", this); data.start(); HttpRequest images = new HttpRequest("http://www.somedomain.com/xmlImages", "GET", this); images.start(); Since it will not treat this like an asynchronous request. I have not found much information on adding callbacks to httpRequest, or any other method I could use to ensure operation 2 does not execute until operation 1 is complete. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks

    Read the article

  • IE "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object expected"

    - by Stephen Borg
    Hi there, I have problems with regards to javascript only when using IE. The error I am getting is "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object expected" and I have no idea why. It is then jumping into the JQuery 1.4.2 file, without giving me a proper error message. All I am doing is simply reading on page load the raw URL, and getting a query string named Search. Using that in an AJAX call to return products and put then into a DIV. No biggies, but somehow IE is managing to blow my page up :-( Any ideas? Code as follows : <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function (e) { $('.boxLoader').show(); function getParameterByName(name) { name = name.replace(/[\[]/, "\\\[").replace(/[\]]/, "\\\]"); var regexS = "[\\?&]" + name + "=([^&#]*)"; var regex = new RegExp(regexS); var results = regex.exec(window.location.href); if (results == null) return ""; else return decodeURIComponent(results[1].replace(/\+/g, " ")); } var Search; Search = getParameterByName("search"); $('#searchCriteria').text(Search); $.get("/Handlers/processProducts.aspx", { SearchCriteria: Search }, function (data) { $('#innercontent').html(data); $('#innercontent').fadeIn(200); $('.boxLoader').fadeOut(200); }); $('#searchBox').live("click", function () { $.get("/Handlers/processProducts.aspx", { SearchCriteria: $('#searchCriteria').val() }, function (data) { $('#innercontent').html(data); $('#innercontent').fadeIn(200); $('.boxLoader').fadeOut(200); }); }); }); </script>

    Read the article

  • Editable, growable DataGrid that retains values on postback and updates underlying DataTable

    - by jlstrecker
    I'm trying to create an ASP.NET/C# page that allows the user to edit a table of data, add rows to it, and save the data back to the database. For the table of data, I'm using a DataGrid whose cells contain TextBoxes or CheckBoxes. I have a button for adding rows (which works) and a button for saving the data. However, I'm quite stuck on two things: The TextBoxes and CheckBoxes should retain their values on postback. So if the user edits a TextBox and clicks the button to add more rows, the edits should be retained when the page reloads. However, the edits should not be saved to the database at this point. When the user clicks the save button, or anytime before, the DataTable underlying the DataGrid needs to be updated with the values of the TextBoxes and CheckBoxes so that the DataTable can be sent to the database. I have a method that does this, but I can't figure out when to call it. Any help getting this to work, or suggestions of alternative user interfaces that would behave similarly, would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Debugging Post Request with Chrome Dev Tools

    - by benek
    I am trying to use Chrome Dev for debugging the following Angular post request : $http.post("http://picjboss.puma.lan:8880/fluxpousse/api/flow/createOrUpdateHeader", flowHeader) After running the statement with right-click / evaluate, I can see the post in the network panel with a pending state. How can I get the result or "commit" the request and leave easily this "pending" state from the dev console ? I am not yet very familiar with JS callbacks, some code is expected. Thanks. EDIT I have tried to run from the console : $scope.$apply(function(){$http.post("http://picjboss.puma.lan:8880/fluxpousse/api/flow/createOrUpdateHeader", flowHeader).success(function(data){console.log("error "+data)}).error(function(data){console.log("error "+data)})}) It returns : undefined EDIT The post I am trying to solve generate an HTTP 400. Here is the result : Request URL:http://picjboss.puma.lan:8880/fluxpousse/api/flow/createOrUpdateHeader Request Method:POST Status Code:400 Mauvaise Requ?te Request Headersview source Accept:application/json, text/plain, / Accept-Encoding:gzip,deflate,sdch Accept-Language:fr-FR,fr;q=0.8,en-US;q=0.6,en;q=0.4 Connection:keep-alive Content-Length:5354 Content-Type:application/json;charset=UTF-8 Cookie:JSESSIONID=285AF523EA18C0D7F9D581CDB2286C56 Host:picjboss.puma.lan:8880 Origin:http://picjboss.puma.lan:8880 Referer:http://picjboss.puma.lan:8880/fluxpousse/ User-Agent:Mozilla/5.0 (Windows NT 6.1; WOW64) AppleWebKit/537.36 (KHTML, like Gecko) Chrome/30.0.1599.101 Safari/537.36 X-Requested-With:XMLHttpRequest Request Payloadview source {refHeader:IDSFP, idEntrepot:619, codeEntreprise:null, codeBanniere:null, codeArticle:7,…} cessionPrice: 78 codeArticle: "7" codeBanniere: null codeDateAppro: null codeDateDelivery: null codeDatePrepa: null codeEntreprise: null codeFournisseur: null codeUtilisateur: null codeUtilisateurLastUpdate: null createDate: null dateAppro: null dateDelivery: null datePrepa: null hasAssortControl: null hasCadenceForce: null idEntrepot: 619 isFreeCost: null labelArticle: "Mayonnaise de DIJON" labelFournisseur: null listDetail: [,…] pcbArticle: 12 pvc: 78 qte: 78 refCommande: "ref" refHeader: "IDSFP" state: "CREATED" stockArticle: 1200 updateDate: null Response Headersview source Connection:close Content-Length:996 Content-Type:text/html;charset=utf-8 Date:Fri, 08 Nov 2013 15:19:30 GMT Server:Apache-Coyote/1.1 X-Powered-By:Servlet 2.5; JBoss-5.0/JBossWeb-2.1

    Read the article

  • How does DateTime.Now affect query plan caching in SQL Server?

    - by Bill Paetzke
    Question: Does passing DateTime.Now as a parameter to a proc prevent SQL Server from caching the query plan? If so, then is the web app missing out on huge performance gains? Possible Solution: I thought DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) would be a possible solution. It would pass the same end-date to the sql proc (per day). And the user would still get the latest data. Please speak to this as well. Given Example: Let's say we have a stored procedure. It reports data back to a user on a webpage. The user can set a date range. If the user sets today's date as the "end date," which includes today's data, the web app passes DateTime.Now to the sql proc. Let's say that one user runs a report--5/1/2010 to now--over and over several times. On the webpage, the user sees 5/1/2010 to 5/4/2010. But the web app passes DateTime.Now to the sql proc as the end date. So, the end date in the proc will always be different, although the user is querying a similar date range. Assume the number of records in the table and number of users are large. So any performance gains matter. Hence the importance of the question. Example proc and execution (if that helps to understand): CREATE PROCEDURE GetFooData @StartDate datetime @EndDate datetime AS SELECT * FROM Foo WHERE LogDate >= @StartDate AND LogDate < @EndDate Here's a sample execution using DateTime.Now: EXEC GetFooData '2010-05-01', '2010-05-04 15:41:27' -- passed in DateTime.Now Here's a sample execution using DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) EXEC GetFooData '2010-05-01', '2010-05-05' -- passed in DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) The same data is returned for both procs, since the current time is: 2010-05-04 15:41:27.

    Read the article

  • Proper status codes for JSON responses to Ajax calls?

    - by anonymous coward
    My project is returning JSON to Ajax calls from the browser. I'm wondering what the proper status code is for sending back with responses to invalid (but successfully handled) data submissions. For example, jQuery has the following two particular callbacks when making Ajax requests: success: Fired when a 200/2xx status code is delivered along with the response. error: Fired when 4xx, 5xx, etc, status codes come back with the response. If a user attempts to create a new "Person" object, I send back a JSON representation of the newly created object upon success, thus giving javascript access to the necessary unique ID's for the new object, etc. This, of course, is sent with a 200 status code. If a user submits malformed or invalid data (say, an invalid/incomplete "name" field), I would like to send back the validation error messages via JSON. (I don't see why this would be a bad thing). My question is: in doing so, should I send a 200 status code, because I successfully handled their invalid data? Therefore, I'd be using the jQuery success callback, but simply check for errors... Or, should I use a 4xx status code, perhaps 'Bad Request', because the data they sent me is invalid? (and thus, use the error callback to do the necessary client-side notifications).

    Read the article

  • How to synchronize Silverlight clients with WCF?

    - by user564226
    Hi, this is probably only some conceptual problem, but I cannot seem to find the ideal solution. I'd like to create a Silverlight client application that uses WCF to control a third party application via some self written webservice. If there is more than one Silverlight client, all clients should be synchronized, i.e. parameter changes from one client should be propagated to all clients. I set up a very simple Silverlight GUI that manipulates parameters which are passed to the server (class inherits INotifyPropertyChanged): public double Height { get { return frameworkElement.Height; } set { if (frameworkElement.Height != value) { frameworkElement.Height = value; OnPropertyChanged("Height", value); } } } OnPropertyChanged is responsible for transferring data. The WCF service (duplex net.tcp) maintains a list of all clients and as soon as it receives a data packet (XElement with parameter change description) it forwards this very packet to all clients but the one the packet was received from. The client receives the package, but now I'm not sure, what's the best way to set the property internally. If I use "Height" (see above) a new change message would be generated and sent to all other clients a.s.o. Maybe I could use the data field (frameworkElement.Height) itself or a function - but I'm not sure whether there would arise problems with data binding later on. Also I don't want to simply copy parts of the code properties, to prevent bugs with redundant code. So what would you recommend? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Strange Sql Server 2005 behavior

    - by Justin C
    Background: I have a site built in ASP.NET with Sql Server 2005 as it's database. The site is the only site on a Windows Server 2003 box sitting in my clients server room. The client is a local school district, so for data security reasons there is no remote desktop access and no remote Sql Server connection, so if I have to service the database I have to be at the terminal. I do have FTP access to update ASP code. Problem: I was contacted yesterday about an issue with the system. When I looked in to it, it seems a bug that I had solved nearly a year ago had returned. I have a stored procedure that used to take an int as a parameter but a year ago we changed the structure of the system and updated the stored procedure to take an nvarchar(10). The stored procedure somehow changed back to taking an int instead of an nvarchar. There is an external hard drive connected to the server that copies data periodically and has the ability to restore the server in case of failure. I would have assumed that somehow an older version of the database had been restored, but data that I know was inserted 7 days and 1 day before the bug occurred is still in the database. Question: Is there anyway that the structure of a Sql Server 2005 database can revert to a previous version or be restored to a previous version without touching the actual data? No one else should have access to the server so I'm going a little insane trying to figure out how this even happened. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • SQL Server INSERT, Scope_Identity() and physical writing to disc

    - by TheBlueSky
    Hello everyone, I have a stored procedure that does, among other stuff, some inserts in different table inside a loop. See the example below for clearer understanding: INSERT INTO T1 VALUES ('something') SET @MyID = Scope_Identity() ... some stuff go here INSERT INTO T2 VALUES (@MyID, 'something else') ... The rest of the procedure These two tables (T1 and T2) have an IDENTITY(1, 1) column in each one of them, let's call them ID1 and ID2; however, after running the procedure in our production database (very busy database) and having more than 6250 records in each table, I have noticed one incident where ID1 does not match ID2! Although normally for each record inserted in T1, there is record inserted in T2 and the identity column in both is incremented consistently. The "wrong" records were something like that: ID1 Col1 ---- --------- 4709 data-4709 4710 data-4710 ID2 ID1 Col1 ---- ---- --------- 4709 4710 data-4709 4710 4709 data-4710 Note the "inverted", ID1 in the second table. Knowing not that much about SQL Server underneath operations, I have put the following "theory", maybe someone can correct me on this. What I think is that because the loop is faster than physically writing to the table, and/or maybe some other thing delayed the writing process, the records were buffered. When it comes the time to write them, they were wrote in no particular order. Is that even possible if no, how to explain the above mentioned scenario? If yes, then I have another question to rise. What if the first insert (from the code above) got delayed? Doesn't that mean I won't get the correct IDENTITY to insert into the second table? If the answer of this is also yes, what can I do to insure the insertion in the two tables will happen in sequence with the correct IDENTITY? I appreciate any comment and information that help me understand this. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • jquery function

    - by kevin
    Hello id like to get the current element firing this event inside the event, Ideally I need the id, selected value and class, Thanks in advance $(document).ready(function () { $("#positions select").live("change", function () { var id = $("#category_id").val(); //var id = this.val(); alert(id); $.getJSON("/Category/GetSubCategories/" + id, function (data) { if (data.length > 0) { alert(data.length); var position = document.getElementById('positions'); var tr = position.insertRow(7); var td1 = tr.insertCell(-1); var td = tr.insertCell(-1); var sel = document.createElement("select"); sel.name = 'sel'; sel.id = 'sel'; sel.setAttribute('class', 'category'); // $("positions select").live("change", function () { //}); td.appendChild(sel); $.each(data, function (GetSubCatergories, category) { $('#sel').append($("<option></option>"). attr("value", category.category_id). text(category.name)); }); } }); }); });

    Read the article

  • How to update GUI thread/class from worker thread/class?

    - by user315182
    First question here so hello everyone. The requirement I'm working on is a small test application that communicates with an external device over a serial port. The communication can take a long time, and the device can return all sorts of errors. The device is nicely abstracted in its own class that the GUI thread starts to run in its own thread and has the usual open/close/read data/write data basic functions. The GUI is also pretty simple - choose COM port, open, close, show data read or errors from device, allow modification and write back etc. The question is simply how to update the GUI from the device class? There are several distinct types of data the device deals with so I need a relatively generic bridge between the GUI form/thread class and the working device class/thread. In the GUI to device direction everything works fine with [Begin]Invoke calls for open/close/read/write etc. on various GUI generated events. I've read the thread here (How to update GUI from another thread in C#?) where the assumption is made that the GUI and worker thread are in the same class. Google searches throw up how to create a delegate or how to create the classic background worker but that's not at all what I need, although they may be part of the solution. So, is there a simple but generic structure that can be used? My level of C# is moderate and I've been programming all my working life, given a clue I'll figure it out (and post back)... Thanks in advance for any help.

    Read the article

  • Wnat is the preferred method of building extremely lightweight business object / DAL now that I have

    - by Seth Spearman
    Hello, I have completed a simple database for a project. Only 6tables. Of the 6, one is a "lookup" table. There is one "master" table that is the driver for the system. It is referenced as a foreign key by the other four tables. Give that this step is completed. What is the FASTEST, EASIEST way to create POCOs/BizObjects that can load load the data and the child data. Here are my CAVEATS. *I don't want to spend more than 30-60 minutes learning how? *There is very little biz logic needed in the POCOs. They will pretty much load data. Don't even really need to write back data. *I already know CSLA (up to version 3) but I feel that is overkill for this little project. *Nevertheless, I would love it if it ROOT objects could have collection classes that contain the CHILD objects as in CSLA...but again, without using CSLA. *Please give the answer for .NET 35 but also if I was restricted to only use .NET 20. *Ideally I could just point a tool at the database and the POCOs would be genn'ed. *FREE Just curious what you guys use for this kind of scenario. I understand that this question is subjective but I want to hear a variety of answers. Seth

    Read the article

  • Is there a generic way of dealing with varying connection strings in C#?

    - by James Wiseman
    I have an application that needs to connect to a SQL database, and execute a SQL Agent Job. The connection string I am trying to access is stored in the registry, which is easily enough pulled out. This appliction is to be run on multiple computers, and I cannot guarantee the format of this connection string being consistent across these computers. Two that I have pulled out for example are: Data Source=Server1;Initial Catalog=DB1;Integrated Security=SSPI; Data Source=Server2;Initial Catalog=DB1;Provider=SQLNCLI.1;Integrated Security=SSPI;Auto Translate=False; I can use an object of type System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection to connect to the database with the first connection string, howevever, I get the following error when I pass the second to it: keyword not supported: 'provider' Similarly, I can use the an object of type System.Data.OleDb.OleDbConnection to connect to the database with the second connection string, howevever, I get the following error when I pass the first to it: An OLEDB Provider was not specified in the ConnectionString' I can solve this by scanning the string for 'Provider' and doing the connect conditionally, however I can't help but feel that there is a better way of doing this, and handle the connection strings in a more generic fashion. Does anyone have any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • Passing a parameter in a Report's Open Event to a parameter query (Access 2007)

    - by JPM
    Hi there, I would like to know if there is a way to set the parameters in an Access 2007 query using VBA. I am new to using VBA in Access, and I have been tasked with adding a little piece of functionality to an existing app. The issue I am having is that the same report can be called in two different places in the application. The first being on a command button on a data entry form, the other from a switchboard button. The report itself is based on a parameter query that has requires the user to enter a Supplier ID. The user would like to not have to enter the Supplier ID on the data entry form (since the form displays the Supplier ID already), but from the switchboard, they would like to be prompted to enter a Supplier ID. Where I am stuck is how to call the report's query (in the report's open event) and pass the SupplierID from the form as the parameter. I have been trying for a while, and I can't get anything to work correctly. Here is my code so far, but I am obviously stumped. Private Sub Report_Open(Cancel As Integer) Dim intSupplierCode As Integer 'Check to see if the data entry form is open If CurrentProject.AllForms("frmExample").IsLoaded = True Then 'Retrieve the SupplierID from the data entry form intSupplierCode = Forms![frmExample]![SupplierID] 'Call the parameter query passing the SupplierID???? DoCmd.OpenQuery "qryParams" Else 'Execute the parameter query as normal DoCmd.OpenQuery "qryParams"????? End If End Sub I've tried Me.SupplierID = intSupplierCode, and although it compiles, it bombs when I run it. And here is my SQL code for the parameter query: PARAMETERS [Enter Supplier] Long; SELECT Suppliers.SupplierID, Suppliers.CompanyName, Suppliers.ContactName, Suppliers.ContactTitle FROM Suppliers WHERE (((Suppliers.SupplierID)=[Enter Supplier])); I know there are ways around this problem (and probably an easy way as well) but like I said, my lack of experience using Access and VBA makes things difficult. If any of you could help, that would be great!

    Read the article

  • pushing view controller inside a tab bar from app delegate, after a notification.

    - by shani
    hi i have an app with tab bar and a navigation controller inside every tab. i have set a notification that when it lunches the user can get lunch the app by pressing the action on the alert. i want to redirect the user to one of the views inside one of the controllers. i have tried this: (void)application:(UIApplication *)app didReceiveLocalNotification:(UILocalNotification *)notif { NSArray *data = [notif.userInfo objectForKey:@"todoDate"]; NSInteger ind = [[data objectAtIndex:2] integerValue]; QuickViewController *detailViewController ; detailViewController = [[QuickViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"QuickViewController" bundle:nil]; detailViewController.title = @"Edit"; detailViewController.personName = [data objectAtIndex:0]; detailViewController.DelitionDate=[data objectAtIndex:1]; detailViewController.personCategory=@"NO Category"; detailViewController.personID = ind r ; rootControler.selectedIndex = 1; [rootControler.tabBarController.selectedViewController.navigationController pushViewController:detailViewController animated:YES]; } but nothing is happening (no crashing) except of the :rootControler.selectedIndex = 1; when i tried : presentModalViewController i got the view perfectly but without the navigation controller. thanks shani

    Read the article

  • SQL Databases and table design/organization

    - by John McMullen
    (NOOB disclaimer) I'm working on a system (a type of map), that is accessed mostly via 3 fields: ID (auto incremented), X coordinate, and Y coordinate. As it is right now, i have all data on the map, stored in 1 table. Whenever the map display is loaded it simply queries the database for contents in x and y, and the DB gives the data (other fields in the same entry). If an item on the map is doing something, it has a flag saying its doing something, and then has an ID of the action in another table holding that type of 'actions'. Essentially, for all map data, its stored in 1 table. All actions of a certain type are stored in their own table. I'm a noob, and i'm wondering what the most effective/efficient structure for such a design? (a map that has items, and each item has stats/actions). I'm using PHP atm, using standard SQL queries to get my data. Should i split up the tables so that there are only x number of entries on a table? (coord range limits)? Should it just keep growing and growing? There's a lot of queries to the table... so just tryin to see what is best :/

    Read the article

  • a + sing in email address

    - by d.andreykiv
    Hi. I need to submit an email address with a "+" sign and validate in on server. But server receives email like "[email protected]" as "aaa [email protected]". I send all data as POST request with following code NSURL* url = [NSURL URLWithString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@%@", url, @"/signUp"]]; NSString *post = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"&email=%@&userName=%@&password=%@", user.email, user.userName, user.password]; NSData *postData = [post dataUsingEncoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding allowLossyConversion:NO]; NSData* data = [self sendRequest:url postData:postData]; post variable before encoding has value &[email protected]&userName=Asdfasdfadsfadsf&password=sdfasdf after encoding it is same &[email protected]&userName=Asdfasdfadsfadsf&password=sdfasdf Method I use to send request looks like following code: -(id) sendRequest:(NSURL*) url postData:(NSData*)postData { // Create request NSMutableURLRequest *request = [[NSMutableURLRequest alloc] init]; NSString *postLength = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d",[postData length]]; [request setURL:url]; [request setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [request setValue:@"application/x-www-form-urlencoded" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Current-Type"]; [request setValue:postLength forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Length"]; [request setHTTPBody:postData]; NSURLResponse *urlResponse; NSData *data = [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:request returningResponse:&urlResponse error:nil]; [request release]; return data; }

    Read the article

  • How to control virtual memory management in linux?

    - by chmike
    I'm writing a program that uses an mmap file to hold a huge buffer organized as an array of 64 MB blocks. The blocks are used to aggregate data received from different hosts through the network. As a consequence the total data size written in each block is not known in advance. Most of the time it is only 2MB but in some cases it can be up to 20MB or more. The data doesn't stay long in the buffer. 90% is deleted after less than a second and the rest is transmitted to another host. I would like to know if there is a way to tell the virtual memory manager that ram pages are not dirty anymore when data is deleted. Should I use mmap and munmap when a block is used and released to control the virtual memory ? What would be the overhead of doing this ? Also, some colleagues expressed concerns about the performance impact of allocating such a big mmap space. I expect it to behave like a swap file so that only dirty pages are to be considered.

    Read the article

  • jQuery ajax form submit - how to ensure dynamically loaded form's action is used

    - by kenny99
    Hi, i'm having a problem with dynamically loaded forms - instead of using the action attribute of the newly loaded form, my jquery code is still using the action attribute of the first form loaded. I have the following code: //generic ajax form handler - calls next page load on success $('input.next:not(#eligibility)').live("click", function(){ $(".form_container form").validationEngine({ ajaxSubmit: true, ajaxSubmitFile: $(this).attr('action'), success : function() { var url = $('input.next').attr('rel'); ajaxFormStage(url); }, failure : function() { } }); }); But when the next form is loaded, the above code does not pick up the new action attribute. I have tried adding the above code to my callback on successful ajax load (shown below), but this doesn't make any difference. Can anyone help? Many thanks function ajaxFormStage(url) { var $data = $('#main_body #content'); $.validationEngine.closePrompt('body'); //close any validation messages $data.fadeOut('fast', function(){ $data.load(url, function(){ $data.animate({ opacity: 'show' }, 'fast'); '); //generic ajax form handler - calls next page load on success $('input.next:not(#eligibility)').live("click", function(){ $(".form_container form").validationEngine({ ajaxSubmit: true, ajaxSubmitFile: $(this).attr('action'), success : function() { var url = $('input.next').attr('rel'); ajaxFormStage(url); }, failure : function() { } }); }); }); });

    Read the article

  • Do I really ned bindParam?

    - by sandelius
    Hi there! I'm trying to do a little PDO CRUD to learn some PDO. I have a question about bindParam. Here's my update method right now: public static function update($conditions = array(), $data = array(), $table = '') { self::instance(); // Late static bindings (PHP 5.3) $table = ($table === '') ? self::table() : $table; // Check which data array we want to use $values = (empty($data)) ? self::$_fields : $data; $sql = "UPDATE $table SET "; foreach ($values as $f => $v) { $sql .= "$f = ?, "; } // let's build the conditions self::build_conditions($conditions); // fix our WHERE, AND, OR, LIKE conditions $extra = self::$condition_string; // querystring $sql = rtrim($sql, ', ') . $extra; // let's merge the arrays into on $v_val = array_values($values); $c_val = array_values($conditions); $array = array_merge($v_val, self::$condition_array); $stmt = self::$db->prepare($sql); return $stmt->execute($array); } in my "self::$condition_array" I get all the right values from the ?. SO the query looks like this: UPDATE table SET this = ?, another = ? WHERE title = ? AND time = ? as you can see I dont use bindParams instead I pass the right values in the right order ($array) directly into the execute($array) method. This works like a charm BUT is it safe not use use bindParam here? If not then how can I do it? Thanks from Sweden Tobias

    Read the article

  • Passing jquery JSON from Codeigniter controller to view

    - by dede
    I've been struggling to make it work, but cannot pass the inserted data from the controler to the view in CI using JSON. The input value from the form is successfully inserted into the database, but cannot make it appear in the view. This is my view file ajax_view.php: <script type="text/javascript" src="<?php echo base_url(); ?>js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#submit").click(function(){ var inp = $('#inp').val(); $.post("ajax/ajax_input", { 'send' : inp }, function(data){ alert(data.input_text); }, "json"); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" method="post" action=""> <label for="inp">Text</label> <input type="text" name="inp" id="inp" /> <label for="submit"></label> <input type="submit" name="submit" id="submit" value="Submit" /> And this is the ajax_input method of the ajax.php controller: <?php // Initializing controller ..... // ............................. //ajax method function ajax_input(){ $var_1 = trim($this->input->post('send')); $array = array('input_text' => $var_1); echo json_encode($array); $this->db->insert('ajax',$array); } Trying to debug it with Firebug, it gives me that data.input_text is empty. What am I doing wrong? EDIT: I'm using XAMPP on Win, so is it posible that json configuration is the problem?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 782 783 784 785 786 787 788 789 790 791 792 793  | Next Page >