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  • Using the groupby method in Python, example included

    - by randombits
    Trying to work with groupby so that I can group together files that were created on the same day. When I say same day in this case, I mean the dd part in mm/dd/yyyy. So if a file was created on March 1 and April 1, they should be grouped together because the "1" matches. Here's the code I have so far: #!/usr/bin/python import os import datetime from itertools import groupby def created_ymd(fn): ts = os.stat(fn).st_ctime dt = datetime.date.fromtimestamp(ts) return dt.year, dt.month, dt.day def get_files(): files = [] for f in os.listdir(os.getcwd()): if not os.path.isfile(f): continue y,m,d = created_ymd(f) files.append((f, d)) return files files = get_files() for key, group in groupby(files, lambda x: x[1]): for file in group: print "file: %s, date: %s" % (file[0], key) print " " The problem is, I get lots of files that get grouped together based on the day. But then I'll see multiple groups with the same day. Meaning I might have 4 files grouped that were created on the 17th. Later on I'll see another unique set of 2 files that are also created on the 17th. Where am I going wrong?

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  • when long polling, Why are my other requests taking so long?

    - by Pascal
    The client makes 2 concurrent requests. (1 which takes 60 seconds - long polling) and another which is NOT long polling - supposed to return right away. It does return right away when I'm not doing long polling. But as soon as I start doing long polling with the other thread, the other one takes forever to execute. Firebug shows that the request is waiting for 10-50 seconds. On the server, I profiled ALL requests from the moment the php script starts to the time it goes back to the client, and it shows that each one only took 300ms or less. This problem started about the same time I started doing long polling (with the other XHR requests). I'm using jquery for both requests. The server shows that it is under very light load. CPU and memory less then 2%. 8 processes running out of a pool of 15. (it doesn't seem to deviate much from that number 8, even when I run more ajax requests). I guess each process can run multiple ajax threads concurrently. I made sure to EXIT from all processes as soon as their done executing. I don't see how the process pool has run out, if there are still 7 unused processes listed under prstat -J. Also, the problem happens somewhat intermittently. Firefox should be able to handle 2 concurrent ajax requests. i dont get what the problem is.

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  • How to get top and left style property values in Javascript

    - by Dude-Dastic
    Hi all, I have a little bit of Javascript that almost works correctly. Here's the code: function toggle(curlink) { curlink.style.backgroundColor = curlink.style.backgroundColor == "yellow" ? "transparent" : "yellow"; var maindiv = document.getElementById("grid"); var links = maindiv.getElementsByTagName("a"); var list = ""; for (var i = 0; i < links.length; ++i) { var link = links[i]; if (link.style.backgroundColor == "yellow") { list += ("," + parseInt(link.style.left, 10) + "-" + parseInt(link.style.top, 10)); } } document.theForm.theList.value = list.substring(1); return false; }; window.onload = function() { var links = document.getElementById("grid").getElementsByTagName("a"); for (var i = 0; i < links.length; ++i) { links[i].onclick = function() { return toggle(this); } } }; The issue is with line #9; it only works when I specify values for the top and left style property of every link in the array. How do I get the top and left style property values (or X and Y coordinates) of each link in the array with Javascript when those values aren't given? Also, what would the code above look like in jquery? Not that it's needed - I just want to reduce the code a little and dabble in the jquery framework (I'm a Javascript newbie). Thanks in advance, Dude-Dastic

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  • Check if the internet cannot be accessed in Python

    - by Sridhar Ratnakumar
    I have an app that makes a HTTP GET request to a particular URL on the internet. But when the network is down (say, no public wifi - or my ISP is down, or some such thing), I get the following traceback at urllib.urlopen: 70, in get u = urllib2.urlopen(req) File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/urllib2.py", line 126, in urlopen return _opener.open(url, data, timeout) File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/urllib2.py", line 391, in open response = self._open(req, data) File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/urllib2.py", line 409, in _open '_open', req) File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/urllib2.py", line 369, in _call_chain result = func(*args) File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/urllib2.py", line 1161, in http_open return self.do_open(httplib.HTTPConnection, req) File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/urllib2.py", line 1136, in do_open raise URLError(err) URLError: <urlopen error [Errno 8] nodename nor servname provided, or not known> I want to print a friendly error to the user telling him that his network maybe down instead of this unfriendly "nodename nor servname provided" error message. Sure I can catch URLError, but that would catch every url error, not just the one related to network downtime. I am not a purist, so even an error message like "The server example.com cannot be reached; either the server is indeed having problems or your network connection is down" would be nice. How do I go about selectively catching such errors? (For a start, if DNS resolution fails at urllib.urlopen, that can be reasonably assumed as network inaccessibility? If so, how do I "catch" it in the except block?)

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  • Editing a labels text value through JavaScript in VB ASP.NET

    - by Ronnie
    I have a simple form containing two text boxes, I am attempting to apply some validation to the first text box using JavaScript. This is the first time I have attempted this and am having some trouble. I have a label beside the text box stating an error, this labels visibility property is set to False. I wish the labels visibility to turn true if the text box is empty when the user loses focus. For this I have used the onBlur option within the tags of the text box. It then calls the JavaScript function and should set the label to Visible but it does not. I have tested to see if it is entering the function by using an alert instead and that works. The problem seems to be trying to alter the visibility property of the label. Here is the portion of my code: The JavaScript: function myRegEx(frm) { if ( boxUsername.value == "" ) { invalidUser.visible = True; return false; } } The form: <asp:TextBox onblur="return myRegEx(this)" id="boxUsername" runat="server" Width="200px"></asp:TextBox> <asp:Label id="invalidUser" runat="server" visible="False" forecolor="Red" text="* Username must be alphanumeric with no special characters"></asp:Label> Any help would be brilliant.

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  • Grails bean-fields plugin

    - by Don
    Hi, I'm having problems using the Grails bean-fields plugin with a class this is annotated Validateable, but is not a domain/command class. The root cause of the problem appears to be in this method of BeanTagLib.groovy private def getBeanConstraints(bean) { if (bean?.metaClass?.hasProperty(bean, 'constraints')) { def cons = bean.constraints if (cons != null) { if (log.debugEnabled) { log.debug "Bean is of type ${bean.class} - the constraints property was a [${cons.class}]" } // Safety check for the case where bean is no a proper domain/command object // This avoids confusing errors where constraints comes back as a Closure if (!(cons instanceof Map)) { if (log.warnEnabled) { log.warn "Bean of type ${bean.class} is not a domain class, command object or other validateable object - the constraints property was a [${cons.class}]" } } } else { if (log.warnEnabled) { log.warn "Bean of type ${bean.class} has no constraints" } } return cons } else return null } I tested out this method above in the grails console and when I pass an instance of MyBean into this method, it logs: Bean of type ${bean.class} is not a domain class, command object or other validateable object - the constraints property was a [${cons.class}] Because the constraints are returned as an instance of Closure instead of a Map. If I could figue out how to get a Map reference to the constraints of a @Validateable class (that is not a domain/command class), I guess I could resolve the problem. Thanks, Don

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  • Chain of DataBinding

    - by Neir0
    Hello I am trying to do follow DataBinding Property -> DependencyProperty -> Property But i have trouble. For example, We have simple class with two properties implements INotifyPropertyChanged: public class MyClass : INotifyPropertyChanged { private string _num1; public string Num1 { get { return _num1; } set { _num1 = value; OnPropertyChanged("Num1"); } } private string _num2; public string Num2 { get { return _num2; } set { _num2 = value; OnPropertyChanged("Num2"); } } public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; public void OnPropertyChanged(string e) { PropertyChangedEventHandler handler = PropertyChanged; if (handler != null) handler(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(e)); } } And TextBlock declared in xaml: <TextBlock Name="tb" FontSize="20" Foreground="Red" Text="qwerqwerwqer" /> Now lets trying to bind Num1 to tb.Text: private MyClass _myClass = new MyClass(); public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); Binding binding1 = new Binding("Num1") { Source = _myClass, Mode = BindingMode.OneWay }; Binding binding2 = new Binding("Num2") { Source = _myClass, Mode = BindingMode.TwoWay }; tb.SetBinding(TextBlock.TextProperty, binding1); //tb.SetBinding(TextBlock.TextProperty, binding2); var timer = new Timer(500) {Enabled = true,}; timer.Elapsed += (sender, args) => _myClass.Num1 += "a"; timer.Start(); } It works well. But if we uncomment this string tb.SetBinding(TextBlock.TextProperty, binding2); then TextBlock display nothing. DataBinding doesn't work! How can i to do what i want?

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  • Possible mem leak?

    - by LCD Fire
    I'm new to the concept so don't be hard on me. why doesn't this code produce a destructor call ? The names of the classes are self-explanatory. The SString will print a message in ~SString(). It only prints one destructor message. int main(int argc, TCHAR* argv[]) { smart_ptr<SString> smt(new SString("not lost")); new smart_ptr<SString>(new SString("but lost")); return 0; } Is this a memory leak? The impl. for smart_ptr is from here edited: //copy ctor smart_ptr(const smart_ptr<T>& ptrCopy) { m_AutoPtr = new T(ptrCopy.get()); } //overloading = operator smart_ptr<T>& operator=(smart_ptr<T>& ptrCopy) { if(m_AutoPtr) delete m_AutoPtr; m_AutoPtr = new T(*ptrCopy.get()); return *this; }

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  • Ways std::stringstream can set fail/bad bit?

    - by Evan Teran
    A common piece of code I use for simple string splitting looks like this: inline std::vector<std::string> split(const std::string &s, char delim) { std::vector<std::string> elems; std::stringstream ss(s); std::string item; while(std::getline(ss, item, delim)) { elems.push_back(item); } return elems; } Someone mentioned that this will silently "swallow" errors occurring in std::getline. And of course I agree that's the case. But it occurred to me, what could possibly go wrong here in practice that I would need to worry about. basically it all boils down to this: inline std::vector<std::string> split(const std::string &s, char delim) { std::vector<std::string> elems; std::stringstream ss(s); std::string item; while(std::getline(ss, item, delim)) { elems.push_back(item); } if(ss.fail()) { // *** How did we get here!? *** } return elems; } A stringstream is backed by a string, so we don't have to worry about any of the issues associated with reading from a file. There is no type conversion going on here since getline simply reads until it sees a newline or EOF. So we can't get any of the errors that something like boost::lexical_cast has to worry about. I simply can't think of something besides failing to allocate enough memory that could go wrong, but that'll just throw a std::bad_alloc well before the std::getline even takes place. What am I missing?

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  • How to cache L2E entity without attach/detach?

    - by Eran Betzalel
    The following code will select a key/value table in the DB and will save the result to the cache: using (var db = new TestEntities()) { if(Cache["locName_" + inventoryLocationName] != null) return Cache["locName_" + inventoryLocationName]; var location = db.InventoryLocationsSet.FirstOrDefault( i => i.InventoryLocationName.Equals( inventoryLocationName, StringComparison.CurrentCultureIgnoreCase)); db.Detach(location); // ???? Cache["locName_" + inventoryLocationName] = location; return location; } But it doesn't work well when I'm trying to use the cached object. Of course, the problem is the different ObjectContext, so I use Attach/Detach and then the problem solves but with a codding horror price: db.Attach(locationFromCache); // ???? try { // Use location as foreign key db.SaveChanges(); } finally { db.Detach(locationFromCache); // ???? } So, how can I use cached objects without using attach/detach methods? What happens if more than one user will have to use this cached object? Should I put the whole thing in a CriticalSection?!

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  • Reference-type conversion operators: asking for trouble?

    - by Ben
    When I compile the following code using g++ class A {}; void foo(A&) {} int main() { foo(A()); return 0; } I get the following error messages: > g++ test.cpp -o test test.cpp: In function ‘int main()’: test.cpp:10: error: invalid initialization of non-const reference of type ‘A&’ from a temporary of type ‘A’ test.cpp:6: error: in passing argument 1 of ‘void foo(A&)’ After some reflection, these errors make plenty of sense to me. A() is just a temporary value, not an assignable location on the stack, so it wouldn't seem to have an address. If it doesn't have an address, then I can't hold a reference to it. Okay, fine. But wait! If I add the following conversion operator to the class A class A { public: operator A&() { return *this; } }; then all is well! My question is whether this even remotely safe. What exactly does this point to when A() is constructed as a temporary value? I am given some confidence by the fact that void foo(const A&) {} can accept temporary values according to g++ and all other compilers I've used. The const keyword can always be cast away, so it would surprise me if there were any actual semantic differences between a const A& parameter and an A& parameter. So I guess that's another way of asking my question: why is a const reference to a temporary value considered safe by the compiler whereas a non-const reference is not?

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  • COM: How to handle a specific exception?

    - by Ian Boyd
    i'm talking to a COM object (Microsoft ADO Recordset object). In a certain case the recordset will return a failed (i.e. negative) HRESULT, with the message: Item cannot be found in the collection corresponding to the requested name or ordinal i know what this error message means, know why it happened, and i how to fix it. But i know these things because i read the message, which fortunately was in a language i understand. Now i would like to handle this exception specially. The COM object threw an HRESULT of 0x800A0CC1 In an ideal world Microsoft would have documented what errors can be returned when i try to access: records.Fields.Items( index ) with an invalid index. But they do not; they most they say is that an error can occur, i.e.: If Item cannot find an object in the collection corresponding to the Index argument, an error occurs. Given that the returned error code is not documented, is it correct to handle a specific return code of `0x800A0CC1' when i'm trying to trap the exception: Item cannot be found in the collection corresponding to the requested name or ordinal ? Since Microsoft didn't document the error code, they technically change it in the future.

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  • Wrappers/law of demeter seems to be an anti-pattern...

    - by Robert Fraser
    I've been reading up on this "Law of Demeter" thing, and it (and pure "wrapper" classes in general) seem to generally be anti patterns. Consider an implementation class: class Foo { void doSomething() { /* whatever */ } } Now consider two different implementations of another class: class Bar1 { private static Foo _foo = new Foo(); public static Foo getFoo() { return _foo; } } class Bar2 { private static Foo _foo = new Foo(); public static void doSomething() { _foo.doSomething(); } } And the ways to call said methods: callingMethod() { Bar1.getFoo().doSomething(); // Version 1 Bar2.doSomething(); // Version 2 } At first blush, version 1 seems a bit simpler, and follows the "rule of Demeter", hide Foo's implementation, etc, etc. But this ties any changes in Foo to Bar. For example, if a parameter is added to doSomething, then we have: class Foo { void doSomething(int x) { /* whatever */ } } class Bar1 { private static Foo _foo = new Foo(); public static Foo getFoo() { return _foo; } } class Bar2 { private static Foo _foo = new Foo(); public static void doSomething(int x) { _foo.doSomething(x); } } callingMethod() { Bar1.getFoo().doSomething(5); // Version 1 Bar2.doSomething(5); // Version 2 } In both versions, Foo and callingMethod need to be changed, but in Version 2, Bar also needs to be changed. Can someone explain the advantage of having a wrapper/facade (with the exception of adapters or wrapping an external API or exposing an internal one).

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  • Objective-C Simple Inheritance and OO Principles

    - by bleeckerj
    I have a subclass SubClass that inherits from baseclass BaseClass. BaseClass has an initializer, like so: -(id)init { self = [super init]; if(self) { [self commonInit]; } return self; } -(void)commonInit { self.goodStuff = [[NSMutableArray alloc]init]; } SubClass does its initializer, like so: -(id)init { self = [super init]; if(self) { [self commonInit]; } return self; } -(void)commonInit { self.extraGoodStuff = [[NSMutableArray alloc]init]; } Now, I've *never taken a proper Objective-C course, but I'm a programmer more from the Electrical Engineering side, so I make do. I've developed server-side applications mostly in Java though, so I may be seeing the OO world through Java principles. When SubClass is initialized, it calls the BaseClass init and my expectation would be — because inheritance to me implies that characteristics of a BaseClass pass through to SubClass — that the commonInit method in BaseClass would be called during BaseClass init. It is not. I can *sorta understand maybe-possibly-stretch-my-imagination why it wouldn't be. But, then — why wouldn't it be based on the principles of OOP? What does "self" represent if not the instance of the class of the running code? Okay, so — I'm not going to argue that what a well-developed edition of Objective-C is doing is wrong. So, then — what is the pattern I should be using in this case? I want SubClass to have two main bits — the goodStuff that BaseClass has as well as the extraGoodStuff that it deserves as well. Clearly, I've been using the wrong pattern in this type of situation. Am I meant to expose commonInit (which makes me wonder about encapsulation principles — why expose something that, in the Java world at least, would be considered "protected" and something that should only ever be called once for each instance)? I've run into a similar problem in the recent past and tried to muddle through it, but now — I'm really wondering if I've got my principles and concepts all straight in my head. Little help, please.

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  • Cache of Objects or OutPut in View ? Wich is better ?

    - by Felipe
    Hi everybody, I have an ecommerce working in ASP.Net MVC. i'm using Caching to improve more performace in my pages and it's working fine. I'd link to know what is more performative, for example, I can set OutPutCache in my views and and use this cache for all page OR I could get my List of Products in controller, put it on cache (like the code below) and send it to View to render for the user??? private IEnumerable<Products> GetProductsCache(string key, ProductType type) { if (HttpContext.Cache[key] == null) HttpContext.Cache.Insert(key, ProductRepository.GetProducts(type), null, DateTime.Now.AddMinutes(10), Cache.NoSlidingExpiration); return (IEnumerable<Products>)HttpContext.Cache[key]; } public ActionResult Index() { var home = new HomeViewModel() { Products = GetProductsCache("ProductHomeCache", ProductType.Product) Services = GetProductsCache("ServiceHomeCache", ProductType.Service) }; return View(home); } Both works fine, but I'd like to know what is suggested to improve more performace ? Or is there others way to do it better ? PS: sorry for my english! thanks all... Cheers

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  • Webservice returning 403 error

    - by user48408
    I'm wondering whether I'm receiving the 403 errors because there are too many attempted connections being made to the webservice. If this is the case how do I get around it? I've tried creating a new instance of InternalWebService each time and disposing of the old one but I get the same problem. I've disabled the firewall and the webservice is located locally at the moment. I beginning to think it may be a problem with the credentials but the control tree is populated via the webservice at some stage. If I browse to the webmethods in my browser I can run them all. I return an instance of the webservice from my login handler loginsession.cs: static LoginSession() { ... g_NavigatorWebService = new InternalWebService(); g_NavigatorWebService.Credentials = System.Net.CredentialCache.DefaultCredentials; ... } public static InternalWebService NavigatorWebService { get { return g_NavigatorWebService; } } I have a tree view control which uses the webservice to populate itself. IncidentTreeViewControl.cs: public IncidentTreeView() { InitializeComponent(); m_WebService = LoginSession.NavigatorWebService; ... } public void Populate() { m_WebService.BeginGetIncidentSummaryByCompany(new AsyncCallback(IncidentSummaryByClientComplete), null); m_WebService.BeginGetIncidentSummaryByDepartment(new AsyncCallback(IncidentSummaryByDepartmentComplete), null); ... } private void IncidentSummaryByClientComplete(IAsyncResult ar) { MyTypedDataSet data = m_WebService.EndGetIncidentSummaryByCompany(ar); //403 ..cont... } I'm getting the 403 on the last line.

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  • How to use a viewstate'd object as a datasource for controls on a user control

    - by user557325
    I've got a listview on a control. Each row comprises a checkbox and another listview. The outer listview is bound to a property on the control (via a method call, can't set a property as a SelectMethod on an ObjectDataSource it would appear) which is lazy loaded suchly: Public ReadOnly Property ProductLineChargeDetails() As List(Of WebServiceProductLineChargeDetail) Get If ViewState("WSProductLineChargeDetails") Is Nothing Then ViewState("WSProductLineChargeDetails") = GetWebServiceProductLineChargeDetails() End If Return DirectCast(ViewState("WSProductLineChargeDetails"), Global.System.Collections.Generic.List(Of Global.MI.Open.WebServiceProductLineChargeDetail)) End Get End Property The shape of the object referenced by the data source is something like this: (psuedocode) Product { bool Licenced; List<Charge> charges; } Charge { int property1; string property2; bool property3 . . . } The reason for the use of viewstate is this: When an one of the checkboxes on one of the outer list view rows is checked or unchecked I want to modify the object that the ODS represents (for example I'll add a couple of Charge objects to the relevant Product object) and then rebind. The problem I'm getting is that after every postback (specifically after checking or unchecking one of the rows' checkbox) my viewstate is empty. Thiss means that any changes I make to my viewstate'd object is lost. Now, I've worked out (after much googling and reading, amongst many others, Scott Mitchel's excellent bit on ViewState) that during initial databinding IsTrackingViewState is set to false. That means, I think, that assigning the return from GetWebServiceProductLineChargeDetails() to the ViewState item in my Property Get during the initial databind won't work. Mind you, even when the IsTrackingViewState is true and I call the Property Get, come the next postback, the viewstate is empty. So do you chaps have any ideas on how I keep the object referenced by the ObjectDataSource in ViewState between postbacks and update it and get those changes to stay in ViewState? This has been going on for a couple of days now and I'm getting fed up! Cheers in advance Steve

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  • Get the value for a WPF binding

    - by Jose
    Ok, I didn't want a bunch of ICommands in my MVVM ViewModels so I decided to create a MarkupExtension for WPF that you feed it a string(the name of the method), and it gives you back an ICommand that executes the method. here's a snippet: public class MethodCall : MarkupExtension { public MethodCall(string methodName) { MethodName = methodName; CanExecute = "Can" + methodName; } public override object ProvideValue(IServiceProvider serviceProvider) { Binding bin= new Binding { Converter = new MethodConverter(MethodName,CanExecute) }; return bin.ProvideValue(serviceProvider); } } public class MethodConverter : IValueConverter { string MethodName; public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { //Convert to ICommand ICommand cmd = ConvertToICommand(); if (cmd == null) Debug.WriteLine(string.Format("Could not bind to method 'MyMethod' on object",MethodName)); return cmd; } } It works great, except when the binding fails(e.g. you mistype). When you do this in xaml: {Binding MyPropertyName} you see in the output window whenever the binding fails. and it tells you the propertyName the Type name etc. The MethodConverter Class can tell you the name of the method that failed, but it can't tell you the source object type. Because the value will be null. I can't figure out how to store the source object type so for the following class public class MyClass { public void MyMethod() { } } and the following xaml: <Button Command={d:MethodCall MyMethod}>My Method</Button> It currently says: "Could not bind to method 'MyMethod' on object but I would like it to say: "Could not bind to method 'MyMethod' on object MyClass Any ideas?

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  • nunit-console can not loacte fixture

    - by tguclu
    Hi I have 2.5.8 and VS2010 I want to run tests against a dll and if I type >nunit-console a.dll I also have these suites namespace LicMgmtLib.Tests { /// <summary> /// Contains the complete suite for LicMgmtLibTest project /// </summary> public class AllTests { [Suite] public static IEnumerable Suite { get { List<Type> suite = new List<Type>(); foreach (Type testCase in UnitTests.Suite) { suite.Add(testCase); } return suite; } } } } and namespace LicMgmtLib.Tests { /// <summary> /// Contains the unit test cases for LicMgmtLibTest project /// </summary> public class UnitTests { [Suite] public static IEnumerable Suite { get { List<Type> suite = new List<Type>(); suite.Add(typeof(LicenceManagerTests)); suite.Add(typeof(CertManagerTests)); return suite; } } } } If I would like to run tests using Suites I type nunit-console a.dll /fixture=AllTests.Suite but it fails with the message >Unable to locate fixture AllTests.Suite If you wonder why I use Suites ,I don't know. We are using MSBuild in our project and this is a requirement of MSBuild I guess. Any help appreciated Regards

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  • Add fields to Django ModelForm that aren't in the model

    - by Cyclic
    I have a model that looks like: class MySchedule(models.Model): start_datetime=models.DateTimeField() name=models.CharField('Name',max_length=75) With it comes its ModelForm: class MyScheduleForm(forms.ModelForm): startdate=forms.DateField() starthour=forms.ChoiceField(choices=((6,"6am"),(7,"7am"),(8,"8am"),(9,"9am"),(10,"10am"),(11,"11am"), (12,"noon"),(13,"1pm"),(14,"2pm"),(15,"3pm"),(16,"4pm"),(17,"5pm"), (18,"6pm" startminute=forms.ChoiceField(choices=((0,":00"),(15,":15"),(30,":30"),(45,":45")))),(19,"7pm"),(20,"8pm"),(21,"9pm"),(22,"10pm"),(23,"11pm"))) class Meta: model=MySchedule def clean(self): starttime=time(int(self.cleaned_data.get('starthour')),int(self.cleaned_data.get('startminute'))) return self.cleaned_data try: self.instance.start_datetime=datetime.combine(self.cleaned_data.get("startdate"),starttime) except TypeError: raise forms.ValidationError("There's a problem with your start or end date") Basically, I'm trying to break the DateTime field in the model into 3 more easily usable form fields -- a date picker, an hour dropdown, and a minute dropdown. Then, once I've gotten the three inputs, I reassemble them into a DateTime and save it to the model. A few questions: 1) Is this totally the wrong way to go about doing it? I don't want to create fields in the model for hours, minutes, etc, since that's all basically just intermediary data, so I'd like a way to break the DateTime field into sub-fields. 2) The difficulty I'm running into is when the startdate field is blank -- it seems like it never gets checked for non-blankness, and just ends up throwing up a TypeError later when the program expects a date and gets None. Where does Django check for blank inputs, and raise the error that eventually goes back to the form? Is this my responsibility? If so, how do I do it, since it doesn't evaluate clean_startdate() since startdate isn't in the model. 3) Is there some better way to do this with inheritance? Perhaps inherit the MyScheduleForm in BetterScheduleForm and add the fields there? How would I do this? (I've been playing around with it for over an hours and can't seem to get it) Thanks! [Edit:] Left off the return self.cleaned_data -- lost it in the copy/paste originally

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  • Java: volatile guarantees and out-of-order execution

    - by WizardOfOdds
    Note that this question is solely about the volatile keyword and the volatile guarantees: it is not about the synchronized keyword (so please don't answer "you must use synchronize" for I don't have any issue to solve: I simply want to understand the volatile guarantees (or lack of guarantees) regarding out-of-order execution). Say we have an object containing two volatile String references that are initialized to null by the constructor and that we have only one way to modify the two String: by calling setBoth(...) and that we can only set their references afterwards to non-null reference (only the constructor is allowed to set them to null). For example (it's just an example, there's no question yet): public class SO { private volatile String a; private volatile String b; public SO() { a = null; b = null; } public void setBoth( @NotNull final String one, @NotNull final String two ) { a = one; b = two; } public String getA() { return a; } public String getB() { return b; } } In setBoth(...), the line assigning the non-null parameter "a" appears before the line assigning the non-null parameter "b". Then if I do this (once again, there's no question, the question is coming next): if ( so.getB() != null ) { System.out.println( so.getA().length ); } Am I correct in my understanding that due to out-of-order execution I can get a NullPointerException? In other words: there's no guarantee that because I read a non-null "b" I'll read a non-null "a"? Because due to out-of-order (multi)processor and the way volatile works "b" could be assigned before "a"? volatile guarantees that reads subsequent to a write shall always see the last written value, but here there's an out-of-order "issue" right? (once again, the "issue" is made on purpose to try to understand the semantics of the volatile keyword and the Java Memory Model, not to solve a problem).

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  • IRequest / IResponse Pattern

    - by traderde
    I am trying to create an Interface-based Request/Response pattern for Web API requests to allow for asynchronous consumer/producer processing, but not sure how I would know what the underlying IResponse class is. public void Run() { List<IRequest> requests = new List<IRequest>(); List<IResponse> responses = new List<IResponse(); requests.Add(AmazonWebRequest); //should be object, trying to keep it simple requests.Add(EBayWebRequest); //should be object, trying to keep it simple foreach (IRequest req in requests) { responses.Add(req.GetResponse()); } foreach (IResponse resp in response) { typeof resp???? } } interface IRequest { IResponse GetResponse(); } interface IResponse { } public class AmazonWebServiceRequest : IRequest { public AmazonWebServiceRequest() { //get data; } public IResponse GetResponse() { AmazonWebServiceRequest request = new AmazonWebServiceRequest(); return (IResponse)request; } } public class AmazonWebServiceResponse : IResponse { XmlDocument _xml; public AmazonWebServiceResponse(XmlDocument xml) { _xml = xml; _parseXml(); } private void _parseXml() { //parse Xml into object; } } public class EBayWebRequest : IRequest { public EBayWebRequest () { //get data; } public IResponse GetResponse() { EBayWebRequest request = new EBayWebRequest(); return (IResponse)request; } } public class EBayWebResponse : IResponse { XmlDocument _xml; public EBayWebResponse(XmlDocument xml) { _xml = xml; _parseXml(); } private void _parseXml() { //parse Xml into object; } }

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  • cURL requests changed

    - by Andriy Mytroshyn
    I've start work with cURL library, before work i compile library. i Send request and have some problem. Code in c++ that i used for work with cURL: CURL *curl=NULL; CURLcode res; struct curl_slist *headers=NULL; // init to NULL is important curl_slist_append(headers, "POST /oauth/authorize HTTP/1.1"); curl_slist_append(headers, "Host: sp-money.yandex.ru"); curl_slist_append(headers, "Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); curl_slist_append(headers, "charset: UTF-8"); curl_slist_append(headers, "Content-Length: 12345"); curl = curl_easy_init(); if(!curl) return 0; curl_easy_setopt(curl, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, headers); curl_easy_setopt(curl, CURLOPT_URL, "sp-money.yandex.ru"); curl_easy_setopt(curl, CURLOPT_PROXY, "127.0.0.1:8888"); if( curl_easy_perform(curl)!=CURLE_OK) return 1; I've used proxy, fiddler2, for check what data sent to server. When i check sent data i get result: POST HTTP://sp-money.yandex.ru/ HTTP/1.1 Host: sp-money.yandex.ru Accept: */* Connection: Keep-Alive Content-Length: 151 Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded also i check this data using Wiresharck, result the same. Do you know why in first line cURL wrote: POST HTTP://sp-money.yandex.ru/ HTTP/1.1 I send POST /oauth/authorize HTTP/1.1 I've used VS 2010 for work, and also i don't used framework

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  • Silverlight MediaElement Position Property Weirdness

    - by BarrettJ
    I have a MediaElement that is reporting its position incorrectly and weirdly, but consistently. It seems like when it gets to the last second of the audio (and it's always the last second, regardless if the sound is two seconds or 10), it doesn't update it's position until it finishes. Example output: Playback Progress: 0/3.99 - 0 Playback Progress: 0.01/3.99 - 0 Playback Progress: 0.03/3.99 - 0 Playback Progress: 0.06/3.99 - 1 Playback Progress: 0.07/3.99 - 1 Playback Progress: 0.08/3.99 - 2 Playback Progress: 0.11/3.99 - 2 Playback Progress: 0.14/3.99 - 3 Playback Progress: 0.19/3.99 - 4 Playback Progress: 0.23/3.99 - 5 Playback Progress: 0.25/3.99 - 6 Playback Progress: 0.28/3.99 - 7 Playback Progress: 0.3/3.99 - 7 Playback [SNIP] Playback Progress: 2.8/3.99 - 70 Playback Progress: 2.83/3.99 - 70 Playback Progress: 2.88/3.99 - 72 Playback Progress: 2.9/3.99 - 72 Playback Progress: 2.91/3.99 - 72 Playback Progress: 2.92/3.99 - 73 Playback Progress: 2.99/3.99 - 74 Playback Progress: 3/3.99 - 75 Playback Progress: 3/3.99 - 75 Playback Progress: 3/3.99 - 75 Playback Progress: 3/3.99 - 75 Playback Progress: 3/3.99 - 75 Playback Progress: 3/3.99 - 75 Playback Progress: 3/3.99 - 75 Playback Progress: 3/3.99 - 75 Playback Progress: 3/3.99 - 75 Playback Progress: 3.99/3.99 - 100 That is the result of: WriteLine("Playback Progress: " + Position + "/" + LengthInSeconds + " - " + (int)((Position / LengthInSeconds) * 100)); public double Position { get { return my_media_element != null ? my_media_element.Position.TotalSeconds : 0; } } public double LengthInSeconds { get { return my_media_element != null ? my_media_element.NaturalDuration.TimeSpan.TotalSeconds : 0; } } Anyone have any ideas why this is occurring?

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  • How do I expose the columns collection of GridView control that is inside a user control

    - by Christopher Edwards
    See edit. I want to be able to do this in the aspx that consumes the user control. <uc:MyControl ID="MyGrid" runat="server"> <asp:BoundField DataField="FirstColumn" HeaderText="FirstColumn" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="SecondColumn" HeaderText="SecondColumn" /> </uc> I have this code (which doesn't work). Any ideas what I am doing wrong? VB Partial Public Class MyControl Inherits UserControl <System.Web.UI.IDReferenceProperty(GetType(DataControlFieldCollection))> _ Public Property Columns() As DataControlFieldCollection Get Return MyGridView.Columns End Get Set(ByVal value As DataControlFieldCollection) ' The Columns collection of the GridView is ReadOnly, so I rebuild it MyGridView.Columns.Clear() For Each c As DataControlField In value MyGridView.Columns.Add(c) Next End Set End Property ... End Class C# public partial class MyControl : UserControl {         [System.Web.UI.IDReferenceProperty(typeof(DataControlFieldCollection))]     public DataControlFieldCollection Columns {         get { return MyGridView.Columns; }         set {             MyGridView.Columns.Clear();             foreach (DataControlField c in value) {                 MyGridView.Columns.Add(c);             }         }     } ... } EDIT: Actually it does work, but auto complete does not work between the uc:MyControl opening and closing tags and I get compiler warnings:- Content is not allowed between the opening and closing tags for element 'MyControl'. Validation (XHTML 1.0 Transitional): Element 'columns' is not supported. Element 'BoundField' is not a known element. This can occur if there is a compilation error in the Web site, or the web.config file is missing. So I guess I need to use some sort of directive to tell the complier to expect content between the tags. Any ideas?

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