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  • Oracle manually add an FK constraint

    - by Oxymoron
    Alright, since a client wants to automate a certain process, which includes creating a new key structure in a LIVE database, I need to create relations between tables.columns. Now I've found the tables ALL_CONS_COLS en USER_CONSTRAINTS to hold information about constraints. If I were to manually create constraints, by inserting into these tables, I should be able to recreate the original constraints. My question: are there any more tables I should look into? Do you have an alternate suggestions, as this sounds VERY dirty and error prone to begin with. Current modus operandi: Create a new column in each table for the PK; Generate a guid for this PK; Create a new column in each table for the FKs; Fetch the guid associated with the FK; ....... done sofar...... Add new constraint based on the old one; Remove old constraint; Rename new columns; This is kind of dodgy and I'd rather change my method, any ideas would be helpful. To put it different, client wants to change key structure from int to guid on a live database. What's the best way to approach this

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  • Function behaviour on shell(ksh) script

    - by footy
    Here are 2 different versions of a program: this Program: #!/usr/bin/ksh printmsg() { i=1 print "hello function :)"; } i=0; echo I printed `printmsg`; printmsg echo $i Output: # ksh e I printed hello function :) hello function :) 1 and Program: #!/usr/bin/ksh printmsg() { i=1 print "hello function :)"; } i=0; echo I printed `printmsg`; echo $i Output: # ksh e I printed hello function :) 0 The only difference between the above 2 programs is that printmsg is 2times in the above program while printmsg is called once in the below program. My Doubt arises here: To quote Be warned: Functions act almost just like external scripts... except that by default, all variables are SHARED between the same ksh process! If you change a variable name inside a function.... that variable's value will still be changed after you have left the function!! But we can clearly see in the 2nd program's output that the value of i remains unchanged. But we are sure that the function is called as the print statement gets the the output of the function and prints it. So why is the output different in both?

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  • Converting Single dimensional vector or array to two dimension in Matlab

    - by pac
    Well I do not know if I used the exact term. I tried to find an answer on the net. Here is what i need: I have a vector a = 1 4 7 2 5 8 3 6 9 If I do a(4) the value is 4. So it is reading first column top to buttom then continuing to next .... I don't know why. However, What I need is to call it using two indices. As row and column: a(3,2)= 4 or even better if i can call it in the following way: a{3}(2)=4 What is this process really called (want to learn) and how to perform in matlab. I thought of a loop. Is there a built in function Thanks a lot Check this: a = 18 18 16 18 18 18 16 0 0 0 16 16 18 0 18 16 0 18 18 16 18 0 18 18 0 16 0 0 0 18 18 0 18 18 16 0 16 0 18 18 >> a(4) ans = 18 >> a(5) ans = 18 >> a(10) ans = 18 I tried reshape. it is reshaping not converting into 2 indeces

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  • How to design app to be modular / support plugins

    - by Lee
    I'm currently in the process of refactoring my webplayer so that we'll be more easily able to run it on our other internet radio stations. Much of the setup between these players will be very similar, however, some will need to have different UI plugins / other plugins. Currently in the webplayer I do something like this in it's init(): _this.ui = new UI(); _this.ui.playlist = new Playlist(); _this.ui.channelDropdown = new ChannelDropdown(); _this.ui.timecode = ne Timecode(); etc etc This works fine but that blocks me into requiring those objects at run time. What I'd like to do is be able to add those based on the stations needs. Basically my question is, do I need to add some kind of "addPlugin()" functionality here? And if I do that, do I need to constantly check from my WebPlayer object if that plugin exists before it attempts to use it? Like... if (_hasPlugin('playlist')) this.plugins.playlist.add(track); I apologize if some of this might not be clear... really trying to get my head wrapped around all of this. I feel I'm closer but I'm still stuck. Any advice on how I should proceed with this would be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance, Lee

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  • XSLT, worth investing time in, any actual alternatives?

    - by Keeno
    I realise this has been a few other questions on this topic, and people are saying use your language of choice to manipulate the xml etc etc however, not quite fit my question exactly. Firstly, the scope of the project: We want to develop platform independant e-learning, currently, its a bunch of HTML pages but as they grow and develop they become hard to maintain. The idea: Generate up an XML file + Schema, then produce some XSLT files that process the XML into the eLearning modiles. XML to HTML via XSLT. Why: We would like the flexibily to be able to easy reformat the content (i realise CSS is a viable alternative here) If we decide to alter the pages layout or functionality in anyway, im guessing altering the "shared" XSLT files would be easier than updating the HTML files. So far, we have about 30 modules, with up to 10-30 pages each Depending on some "parameters" we could output drastically different page layouts/structures, above and beyond what CSS can do Now, all this has to be platform independant, and to be able to run "offline" i.e. without a server powering the HTML Negatives ive read so far for XSLT: Overheard? Not exactly sure why...is it the compute power need to convert to HTML? Difficult to learn Better alternatives Now, what I would like to know exactly is: are there actually any viable alternatives for this "offline"? Am I going about it in the correct manner, do you guys have any advice or alternatives. Thanks!

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  • JasperReports reports access image via authenticated URL

    - by user363115
    Hi all, I am hoping that this is a simple issue with a simple solution and that I have missed something obvious. Let me explain the problem; We have an application that generates PDF reports (using Jasper). These reports contain data from our database, as well as imagery (photographs). These photographs are stored in S3. We use signed URLs to access these photographs. We link these photographs into our Jasper reports using these S3 URLs. Because the S3 URLs are signed and time-limited (by design), the process is as follows; User requests a report to be generated, Report is filled, and goes to our database (at which time UUIDs to any required images are retrieved), For each UUID an S3 signed URL must be generated, To do this the URL behind each report image is a call to an authenticated URL in our app (/get_img?uuid=foo), The controller behind this URL generates a signed S3 URL and returns it, Reports loads the image. The problem is with step (4) - the call to the authenticated URL fails because Jasper does not pass any authentication information with the request. Is there a solution here? Thanks all for your time. Ben

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  • How do you lock down & secure files stored on server in ASP.NET?

    - by Jon
    How do I go about securing files that are stored on the server? We have an ASP.NET app which generates PDFs. These are not stored in the wwwroot folder but in another folder i.e. C:\inetpub\data. This provides more security but maybe not enough. The ASP.NET/IIS process will need write access to this folder so it generate the PDFs there. Once the pdf is generated, it can be viewed using an ASP.NET form called viewpdf.aspx with the file to be viewed add to the query string like so viewpdf.aspx?FILE=mynewfile.pdf. This is loaded from a gridview. The full path to C:\inetpub\data is resolved and loaded in the Page_load event of the viewer page. Now I'm wondering how to secure this. Anybody could just view the file. Not by entering in the URL, as it won't been seen by IIS (its not in wwwroot), but could change the querystring in the viewpdf page. How do I stop anybody hacking this?

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  • ASP.Net MVC - how can I easily serialize query results to a database?

    - by Mortanis
    I've been working on a little property search engine while I learn ASP.Net MVC. I've gotten the results from various property database tables and sorted them into a master generic property response. The search form is passed via Model Binding and works great. Now, I'd like to add pagination. I'm returning the chunk of properties for the current page with .Skip() and .Take(), and that's working great. I have a SearchResults model that has the paged result set and various other data like nextPage and prevPage. Except, I no longer have the original form of course to pass to /Results/2. Previously I'd have just hidden a copy of the form and done a POST each time, but it seems inelegant. I'd like to serialize the results to my MS SQL database and return a unique key for that results set - this also helps with a "Send this query to a friend!" link. Killing two birds with one stone. Is there an easy way to take an IQueryable result set that I have, serialize it, stick it into the DB, return a unique key and then reverse the process with said key? I'm using Linq to SQL currently on a MS SQL Express install, though in production it'll be on MS SQL 2008.

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  • PHP OOP: Avoid Singleton/Static Methods in Domain Model Pattern

    - by sunwukung
    I understand the importance of Dependency Injection and its role in Unit testing, which is why the following issue is giving me pause: One area where I struggle not to use the Singleton is the Identity Map/Unit of Work pattern (Which keeps tabs on Domain Object state). //Not actual code, but it should demonstrate the point class Monitor{//singleton construction omitted for brevity static $members = array();//keeps record of all objects static $dirty = array();//keeps record of all modified objects static $clean = array();//keeps record of all clean objects } class Mapper{//queries database, maps values to object fields public function find($id){ if(isset(Monitor::members[$id]){ return Monitor::members[$id]; } $values = $this->selectStmt($id); //field mapping process omitted for brevity $Object = new Object($values); Monitor::new[$id]=$Object return $Object; } $User = $UserMapper->find(1);//domain object is registered in Id Map $User->changePropertyX();//object is marked "dirty" in UoW // at this point, I can save by passing the Domain Object back to the Mapper $UserMapper->save($User);//object is marked clean in UoW //but a nicer API would be something like this $User->save(); //but if I want to do this - it has to make a call to the mapper/db somehow $User->getBlogPosts(); //or else have to generate specific collection/object graphing methods in the mapper $UserPosts = $UserMapper->getBlogPosts(); $User->setPosts($UserPosts); Any advice on how you might handle this situation? I would be loathe to pass/generate instances of the mapper/database access into the Domain Object itself to satisfy DI - At the same time, avoiding that results in lots of calls within the Domain Object to external static methods. Although I guess if I want "save" to be part of its behaviour then a facility to do so is required in its construction. Perhaps it's a problem with responsibility, the Domain Object shouldn't be burdened with saving. It's just quite a neat feature from the Active Record pattern - it would be nice to implement it in some way.

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  • send email to list of users with different timezones?

    - by ylazez
    i use the following method to send email to list of users i want the (To) in each email to be for just the user only not all users i.e appears to the users that the email is sent to only him my guess is to loop on: message.addRecipients(Message.RecipientType.TO, address); then send the message right? , but this is a heavy process sending an email many times any ideas ? suppose that i have the timezone for each user and i want to send each user the message in his timzone, the same issue i guess setting sent date for each user in his timezone then sending the message, right ? the method is: try { Properties props = System.getProperties(); props.put("mail.smtp.host", "localhost"); // Get a mail session Session session = Session.getDefaultInstance(props, null); // Define a new mail message Message message = new MimeMessage(session); InternetAddress ia = new InternetAddress(); ia.setPersonal("MySite"); ia.setAddress(from); message.setFrom(ia); Address[] address = new Address[recievers.size()]; for (int i = 0; i < recievers.size(); i++) { address[i] = new InternetAddress(recievers.get(i)); } message.addRecipients(Message.RecipientType.TO, address); message.setSubject(subject); // Create a message part to represent the body text BodyPart messageBodyPart = new MimeBodyPart(); messageBodyPart.setContent(body, "text/html"); // use a MimeMultipart as we need to handle the file attachments Multipart multipart = new MimeMultipart(); // add the message body to the mime message multipart.addBodyPart(messageBodyPart); // Put all message parts in the message message.setContent(multipart); message.setSentDate(getCurrentDate()); // Send the message Transport.send(message); } catch (Exception ex) {}

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  • Facebook-ios-sdk with embedded UIWebView

    - by Benchtop Creative
    I'm working with the new facebook-ios-sdk and have successfully integrated the api into my native app. I am able to authenticate a user and properly setup permissions using a popup dialog with the ios-sdk classes. For a portion of my app I need to use the facebook connection within a UIWebView, using javascript and html to process data within the webview. Given that the user is already logged in and authenticated via the above routine, I would have assumed that the UIWebView would share those credentials, or that there would at least be some way to pass or assign the credentials to the webview. Unfortunately, I found this earlier post which seems to suggest that this scheme doesn't quite work (iOS - being logged-in in a webView after logging in with the SDK). Has anyone else encountered this and/or found a work around? This seems like it would be a fairly straightforward use case given that I'm not trying to launch mobile safari or something like that - it's all within the same native app. It just seems like there must be some sort of easy trick or setting that I'm missing. Maybe somehow setting cookies in the new UIWebView? or something like this?

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  • WPF - Transparency - Stream Desktop Content

    - by Niels Willems
    Greetings I'm in the process of making a Scoreboard for a game (Starcraft II). This scoreboard is being made as a WPF Application with a C# code-behind. I already have a version which works for 90% in WinForms but I lacked the support to easily make it look a lot nicer which are available in WPF. The point of this application will be to form a kind of overlay on top of a running game. This game is in Fulscreen(Windowed Mode) so when in WinForms I coded it so that it should always be on top. It would do so and that was no problem. Since the main look of the app in WPF is based on an image with a transparent background I have set most Background values to Transparent. However when I do this the entire application does not get registered by streaming software. For example it just shows my Desktop or the game I'm playing but not my application even though it IS there. I can see it with my own eyes but the audience on the stream cannot. Does anyone have any experience with this matter because it's really doing my head in. My entire application will be useless if it is not visible on streams. If I have to put the background on a color rather than transparent the UI will be completely demolished as well in terms of looks. I'm basically trying to make a game-overlay in C# & WPF. I have read you can do this on different ways as well but I have little to no knowledge of C++ nor do I know anything about DirectX Thank you for your time reading and your possible insights. Edit: The best solution would be an overlay similar to that one of Steam/Xfire/Dolby Axon. Edit 2: I've had no luck with all the suggestions so I basically made the transparent bits of my image non transparent and let the user decide which one to use depending on what streaming software they would be using.

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  • 500 internal server error at form connection

    - by klox
    hi..all..i've a problem i can't connect to database what's wrong with my code?this is my code: $("#mod").change(function() { var barcode; barCode=$("#mod").val(); var data=barCode.split(" "); $("#mod").val(data[0]); $("#seri").val(data[1]); var str=data[0]; var matches=str.match(/(EE|[EJU]).*(D)/i); $.ajax({ type:"post", url:"process1.php", data:"value="+matches+"action=tunermatches", cache:false, async:false, success: function(res){ $('#rslt').replaceWith( "<div id='value'><h6>Tuner range is" + res + " .</h6></div>" ); } }); }); and this is my process file: switch(postVar('action')) { case 'tunermatches' : tunermatches(postVar('tuner')); break; function tunermatches($tuner)){ $Tuner=mysql_real_escape_string($tuner); $sql= "SELECT remark FROM settingdata WHERE itemname="Tuner_range" AND itemdata="$Tunermatches"; $res=mysql_query($sql); $dat=mysql_fetch_array($res,MYSQL_NUM); if($dat[0]>0) { echo $dat[0]; } mysql_close($dbc); }

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  • Progressively stream the output of an ASP.NET page - or render a page outside of an HTTP request

    - by Evgeny
    I have an ASP.NET 2.0 page with many repeating blocks, including a third-party server-side control (so it's not just plain HTML). Each is quite expensive to generate, in terms of both CPU and RAM. I'm currently using a standard Repeater control for this. There are two problems with this simple approach: The entire page must be rendered before any of it is returned to the client, so the user must wait a long time before they see any data. (I write progress messages using Response.Write, so there is feedback, but no actual results.) The ASP.NET worker process must hold everything in memory at the same time. There is no inherent needs for this: once one block is processed it won't be changed, so it could be returned to the client and the memory could be freed. I would like to somehow return these blocks to the client one at a time, as each is generated. I'm thinking of extracting the stuff inside the Repeater into a separate page and getting it repeatedly using AJAX, but there are some complications involved in that and I wonder if there is some simper approach. Ideally I'd like to keep it as one page (from the client's point of view), but return it incrementally. Another way would be to do something similar, but on the server: still create a separate page, but have the server access it and then Response.Write() the HTML it gets to the response stream for the real client request. Is there a way to avoid an HTTP request here, though? Is there some ASP.NET method that would render a UserControl or a Page outside of an HTTP request and simply return the HTML to me as a string? I'm open to other ideas on how to do this as well.

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  • How to visually reject user input in a table?

    - by FX
    In the programming of a table-based application module (i.e. the user mostly enters tabular data in an already laid-out table), how would you reject user input for a given cell? The scenario is: the user edits the cell, enters something (text, picture, ...) and you want them to notice when they finish editing (hitting enter, for example) that their entry is not valid for your given "format" (in the wider meaning: it can be that they entered a string instead of a number, that their entry is too long, too short, they include a picture while it's not acceptable, ...). I can see two different things happening: You can rather easily fit their entry into your format, and you do so, but you want them to notice it so they can change if your guess is not good enough (example: they entered "15.47" in a field that needs to be an integer, so your program makes it "15") You cannot guess what to do with their entry, and want to inform them that it's not valid. My question specifically is: what visual display can you offer to inform the user that his input is invalid? Is it preferable to refuse to leave the editing mode, or not? The two things I can imagine are: using colors (red background if invalid, yellow background for my case 1 above) when you reject an input, do something like Apple does for password entry of user accounts: you make the cell "shaking" (i.e. oscillating left and right) for one second, and keep the focus/editing in their so they don't loose what they've typed. Let's hear your suggestions. PS: This question is, at least in my thought process, somehow a continuation and a specialization of my previous question on getting users to read error messages. PPS: Made this community wiki, was that the right thing to do on this kind of question or not?

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  • Updating target workbook - extracting data from source workbook

    - by Allan
    My question is as follows: I have given a workbook to multiple people. They have this workbook in a folder of their choice. The workbook name is the same for all people, but folder locations vary. Let's assume the common file name is MyData-1.xls. Now I have updated the workbook and want to give it to these people. However when they receive the new one (let's call it MyData-2.xls) I want specific parts of their data pulled from their file (MyData-1) and automatically put into the new one provided (MyData-2). The columns and cells to be copied/imported are identical for both workbooks. Let's assume I want to import cell data (values only) from MyData-1.xls, Sheet 1, cells B8 through C25 ... to ... the same location in the MyData-2.xls workbook. How can I specify in code (possibly attached to a macro driven import data now button) that I want this data brought into this new workbook. I have tried it at my own location by opening the two workbooks and using the copy/paste-special with links process. It works really well, but It seems to create a hard link between the two physical workbooks. I changed the name of the source workbook and it still worked. This makes me believe that there is a "hard link" between the tow and that this will not allow me to give the target (MyData-2.xls) workbook to others and have it find their source workbook.

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  • Best way to migrate export/import from SQL Server to oracle

    - by matao
    Hi guys! I'm faced with needing access for reporting to some data that lives in Oracle and other data that lives in a SQL Server 2000 database. For various reasons these live on different sides of a firewall. Now we're looking at doing an export/import from sql server to oracle and I'd like some advice on the best way to go about it... The procedure will need to be fully automated and run nightly, so that excludes using the SQL developer tools. I also can't make a live link between databases from our (oracle) side as the firewall is in the way. The data needs to be transformed in the process from a star schema to a de-normalised table ready for reporting. What I'm thinking about is writing a monster query for SQL Server (which I mostly have already) that will denormalise and read out the data from SQL Server into a flat file using the sql server equivalent of sqlplus as a scheduled task, dump into a Well Known Location, then on the oracle side have a cron job that copies down the file and loads it with sql loader and rebuilds indexes etc. This is all doable, but very manual. Is there one or a combination of FOSS or standard oracle/SQL Server tools that could automate this for me? the Irreducible complexity is the query on one side and building indexes on the other, but I would love to not have to write the CSV dumping detail or the SQL loader script, just say dump this view out to CSV on one side, and on the other truncate and insert into this table from CSV and not worry about mapping column names and all other arcane sqlldr voodoo... best practices? thoughts? comments? edit: I have about 50+ columns all of varying types and lengths in my dataset, which is why I'd prefer to not have to write out how to generate and map each single column...

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  • The Current State Of Serving a PHP 5.x App on the Apache, LightTPD & Nginx Web Servers?

    - by Gregory Kornblum
    Being stuck in a MS stack architecture/development position for the last year and a half has prevented me from staying on top of the world of open source stack based web servers recent evolution more than I would have liked to. However I am now building an open source stack based application/system architecture and sadly I do not have the time to give each of the above mentioned web servers a thorough test of my own to decide. So I figured I'd get input from the best development community site and more specifically the people who make it so. This is a site that is a resource for information regarding a specific domain and target audience with features to help users not only find the information but to also interact with one another in various ways for various reasons. I chose the open source stack for the wealth of resources it has along with much better offers than the MS stack (i.e. WordPress vs BlogEngine.NET). I feel Java is more in the middle of these stacks in this regard although I am not ruling out the possibility of using it in certain areas unrelated to the actual web app itself such as background processes. I have already come to the conclusion of using PHP (using CodeIgniter framework & APC), MySQL (InnoDB) and Memcached on CentOS. I am definitely serving static content on Nginx. However the 3 servers mentioned have no consensus on which is best for dynamic content in regards to performance. It seems LightTPD still has the leak issue which rules it out if it does, Nginx seems it is still not mature enough for this aspect and of course Apache tries to be everything for everybody. I am still going to compile the one chosen with as many performance tweaks as possible such as static linking and the likes. I believe I can get Apache to match the other 2 in regards to serving dynamic content through this process and not having it serve anything static. However during my research it seems the others are still worth considering. So with all things considered I would love to hear what everyone here has to say on the matter. Thanks!

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  • pushd - handling multiple drives from cmd

    - by user673600
    I'm trying to figure out how to install some programs where the components reside on two different drives on a networked path. However whenever I use pushd \\xyz\c$ I get a mapped drive which means I cannot use any knowledge of using for example c:\install e:\mycomponents.dll. Is there anyway that I can do this once I have used the pushd command? How can I ensure that I keep the drives the same for example. I'm in the process of installing services. So it seems that when I install the service, I need to keep the path as the same as the actual location of the .exe which means that I'm running into issues. Is there a way to simply use pushd but at the sametime not actually map drives? As when installing services, when I've been using net use, I've found that there is an issue with installing on drives which are mapped, as the service whilst can be installed doesn't find the actual .exe when it comes to starting up the service. So to expand this, is there a way to solve this using net use or pushd or a combination that lets me install a service as such: c:\windows\..\installutil e:\mynode? So to clarify, I need to somehow be able to see both drives on the remote machine by their relative drives i.e. E:\ and C:\ - if I use a mapped drive letter then it means installing service is a pain because I cannot use the path.

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  • My python program always brings down my internet connection after several hours running, how do I debug and fix this problem?

    - by Shane
    I'm writing a python script checking/monitoring several server/websites status(response time and similar stuff), it's a GUI program and I use separate thread to check different server/website, and the basic structure of each thread is using an infinite while loop to request that site every random time period(15 to 30 seconds), once there's changes in website/server each thread will start a new thread to do a thorough check(requesting more pages and similar stuff). The problem is, my internet connection always got blocked/jammed/messed up after several hours running of this script, the situation is, from my script side I got urlopen error timed out each time it's requesting a page, and from my FireFox browser side I cannot open any site. But the weird thing is, the moment I close my script my Internet connection got back on immediately which means now I can surf any site through my browser, so it must be the script causing all the problem. I've checked the program carefully and even use del to delete any connection once it's used, still get the same problem. I only use urllib2, urllib, mechanize to do network requests. Anybody knows why such thing happens? How do I debug this problem? Is there a tool or something to check my network status once such situation occurs? It's really bugging me for a while... By the way I'm behind a VPN, does it have something to do with this problem? Although I don't think so because my network always get back on once the script closed, and the VPN connection never drops(as it appears) during the whole process.

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  • MySQL Can Connect Remotely but not Locally

    - by A Wizard Did It
    This is a weird problem and I'm not sure what's going on. I installed MySQL on a linux box I have running Ubuntu 10.04 LTS. I can access mysql via SSH mysql -p and perform all my commands that way. I added a user, and I can use AddedUser to connect remotely from my machine, but not from the local machine. It makes no sense to me... SELECT host, user FROM mysql.user Yields: +-----------+------------------+ | host | user | +-----------+------------------+ | % | AddedUser | | 127.0.0.1 | root | | li241-255 | root | | localhost | debian-sys-maint | | localhost | root | +-----------+------------------+ Problem is I'm developing on this machine using Node.js, and I can't connect locally from the server using the same username. I've tried FLUSH PRIVILEGES but that seems to have no effect. I know it's not Node.js because I'm using the same code on another database and it's working in that environment. Edit This is the error node is giving me. node.js:50 throw e; // process.nextTick error, or 'error' event on first tick ^ Error: ECONNREFUSED, Connection refused at Stream._onConnect (net.js:687:18) at IOWatcher.onWritable [as callback] (net.js:284:12) Edit 2 I have the right port & server as best I can tell. My /etc/mysql/my.cnf contains this: port = 3306 socket = /var/run/mysqld/mysqld.sock My MySQL object contains: { host: 'localhost', port: 3306, user: 'removed', password: 'removed', database: '', typeCast: true, flags: 260047, maxPacketSize: 16777216, charsetNumber: 192, debug: false, ending: false, connected: false, _greeting: null, _queue: [], _connection: null, _parser: null, server: 'ExternalIpAddress' } Possibly useful? netstat -ln | grep mysql unix 2 [ ACC ] STREAM LISTENING 1016418 /var/run/mysqld/mysqld.sock

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  • How to check if new version of Chrome is available?

    - by serg
    I am trying to build an extension that would notify a user when new version of Chrome is available. I tried to inspect network traffic when Chrome is checking for an update and it is sending a request to http://74.125.95.113/service/update2?w=3:{long_encoded_string} page that returns XML with information I need: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <gupdate xmlns="http://www.google.com/update2/response" protocol="2.0" server="prod"> <daystart elapsed_seconds="31272"/> <app appid="{8A69D345-D564-463C-AFF1-A69D9E530F96}" status="ok"> <updatecheck status="noupdate"/> <ping status="ok"/> </app> </gupdate> Besides sending {long_encoded_string} as URL parameter it is also sending some encoded cookie. Maybe someone familiar with Chrome build process can shed some light on those encoded strings and how to build them? Maybe there is another easier way (I have a feeling that string encoding is a dead end for me)?

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  • Inserting default "admin" user into database during Rails App startup

    - by gbc
    I'm building my first real rails application for a little in-house task. Most of the application tasks require authentication/authorization. The first time the app starts up (or starts with a wiped db), I'd like the process to be: User logs into the admin panel using "admin" & "admin" for authentication info. User navigates to admin credentials editing page and changes name and password to something safer so that "admin" & "admin" is no longer a valid login. To achieve this result, I'd like to stuff a default username & password combination into the database on if the application starts up and detects that there are no user credentials in the 'users' table. For example: if User.count == 0 User.create(:name => "admin", :password => "admin") end However, I'm unsure where to place that code. I tried adding an initializer script in the config/initializers, but the error I received appeared to indicate that the model classes weren't yet loaded into the application. So I'm curious to know at what point I can hook into the application startup cycle and insert data into the database through ActiveRecord before requests are dispatched.

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  • How to configure and run a fastcgi application using Lighthttpd...

    - by Airy
    Hi, i've installed Lighthttpd for windows and i'd created a simple program in c++ which uses fastcgi libraries. i'll post the code here... #include "fcgi_stdio.h" #include <stdlib.h> int count; void initialize(void) { count=0; } void main(void) { initialize(); while (FCGI_Accept() >= 0) { printf("Content-type: text/html\r\n" "\r\n" "<title>FastCGI Hello! (C, fcgi_stdio library)</title>" "<h1>FastCGI Hello! (C, fcgi_stdio library)</h1>" "Request number %d running on host <i>%s</i>\n", ++count, getenv("SERVER_HOSTNAME")); } } I've spawned the fastcgi application in lighthttpd using the below configuration in lightttpd-inc.conf fastcgi.server = ( ".exe" => ( "" => ( "bin-path" => "D:\tinycgi.exe", "port" => 8080, "min-procs" => 1, "max-procs" => 1 ) ) ) while sending a request using the browser the server is responding with this message in the console 2009-02-18 16:08:34: (mod_fastcgi.c.2494) unexpected end-of-file (perhaps the fa stcgi process died): pid: 0 socket: tcp:localhost:8080 2009-02-18 16:08:34: (mod_fastcgi.c.3325) response not received, request sent: 1 024 on socket: tcp:localhost:8080 for /new/tinycgi.exe , closing connection I think the fastcgi application is not spawned correctly. Thank you, Varun

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  • How to properly recreate BITMAP, that was previously shared by CreateFileMapping()?

    - by zim22
    Dear friends, I need your help. I need to send .bmp file to another process (dialog box) and display it there, using MMF(Memory Mapped File) But the problem is that image displays in reversed colors and upside down. In first application I open picture from HDD and link it to the named MMF "Gigabyte_picture" HANDLE hFile = CreateFile("123.bmp", GENERIC_READ, FILE_SHARE_READ, NULL, OPEN_EXISTING, 0, NULL); CreateFileMapping(hFile, NULL, PAGE_READONLY, 0, 0, "Gigabyte_picture"); In second application I open mapped bmp file and at the end I display m_HBitmap on the static component, using SendMessage function. HANDLE hMappedFile = OpenFileMapping(FILE_MAP_READ, FALSE, "Gigabyte_picture"); PBYTE pbData = (PBYTE) MapViewOfFile(hMappedFile, FILE_MAP_READ, 0, 0, 0); BITMAPINFO bmpInfo = { 0 }; LONG lBmpSize = 60608; // size of the bmp file in bytes bmpInfo.bmiHeader.biBitCount = 32; bmpInfo.bmiHeader.biHeight = 174; bmpInfo.bmiHeader.biWidth = 87; bmpInfo.bmiHeader.biPlanes = 1; bmpInfo.bmiHeader.biSizeImage = lBmpSize; bmpInfo.bmiHeader.biSize = sizeof(BITMAPINFOHEADER); UINT * pPixels = 0; HDC hDC = CreateCompatibleDC(NULL); HBITMAP m_HBitmap = CreateDIBSection(hDC, &bmpInfo, DIB_RGB_COLORS, (void **)& pPixels, NULL, 0); SetBitmapBits(m_HBitmap, lBmpSize, pbData); SendMessage(gStaticBox, STM_SETIMAGE, (WPARAM)IMAGE_BITMAP,(LPARAM)m_HBitmap); ///////////// HWND gStaticBox = CreateWindowEx(0, "STATIC","", SS_CENTERIMAGE | SS_REALSIZEIMAGE | SS_BITMAP | WS_CHILD | WS_VISIBLE, 10,10,380, 380, myDialog, (HMENU)-1,NULL,NULL);

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