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  • Doesn't (didn't) Scala have automatically generated setters?

    - by Malvolio
    Google and my failing memory are both giving me hints that it does, but every attempt is coming up dry. class Y { var y = 0 } var m = new Y() m.y_(3) error: value y_ is not a member of Y Please tell me I am doing something wrong. (Also: please tell me what it is I am doing wrong.) EDIT The thing I am not doing wrong, or at least not the only thing I am doing wrong, is the way I am invoking the setter. The following things also fail, all with the same error message: m.y_ // should be a function valued expression m.y_ = (3) // suggested by Google and by Mchl f(m.y_) // where f takes Int => Unit as an argument f(m.y) // complains that I am passing in Int not a function I am doing this all through SimplyScala, because I'm too lazy and impatient to set up Scala on my tiny home machine. Hope it isn't that... And the winner is ... Fabian, who pointed out that I can't have a space between the _ and the =. I thought out why this should be and then it occurred to me: The name of the setter for y is not y_, it is y_= ! Observe: class Y { var y = 0 } var m = new Y() m.y_=(3) m.y res1: Int = 3 m.y_= error: missing arguments for method y_= in class Y; follow this method with `_` if you want to treat it as a partially applied function m.y_= ^ m.y_=_ res2: (Int) => Unit = def four(f : Int => Unit) = f(4) four(m.y_=) m.y res3: Int = 4 Another successful day on StackExchange.

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  • PHP extend a class method that is called from another class which extends it and calls the method wi

    - by dan.codes
    I am trying to extend a class and override one of its methods. lets call that class A. My class, class B, is overiding a protected method. Class C extends class A and Class D extends class C. Inside of Class D, the method I am trying to overwrite is also extended here and that calls parent::mymethodimoverriding. That method does not exist in class C so it goes to it in class A. That is the method I am overiding in class B and obviously you can't extend A with B and have those changes show up in D since it does not fall in line with the class hierarchy. I might be wrong, so correct me please. so if my class b is called and ran then class D gets called it runs the method in A and overwrites what I had set. I am thinking there must be a way to get this to work, I am just missing something. here is an example, as you can see in class A there is a call to setTitle and it is set to "Example" In my class I set it to "NewExample". My class is getting called before class D so when class D is called it goes back to the parent and sets the title back to "Example" class A{ protected function _thefunction(){ setTitle("Example"); } } class B extends A{ protected function _thefunction(){ My new code here setTitle("NewExample"); } } class C extends A{ nothing that matters in here for what I am doing } class D extends C{ protected function _thefunction(){ parent::_thefunction(); additional code here } }

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  • If Statements Skipping or Evaluating Strangely, JavaScript and jquery

    - by tlm2021
    So in jQuery, I have a global variable "currentSubNav" that stores a current visible element. The following code executes on "mouseenter". I need it to get store element's ID, check to see if there was one. If there wasn't, set the new visible element to the default. $('#mainMenu a').mouseenter(function() { var newName = $(this).attr("id"); if(newName == ''){ var newName = "default"; } Then it checks to see if the new element matches the current one. If so, it returns. If not, it performs the animations to bring in the new one. if(newName == currentSubNav){ return; }else{ $("div[name=" + currentSubNav + "]").animate({"left": "+=600px", "opacity": "toggle"}, "slow"); $("div[name=" + newName + "]").css({"margin-top": "0"}); $("div[name=" + newName + "]").fadeIn(2000); $("div[name=" + currentSubNav + "]").animate({"left": "-=600px"}, 0); currentSubNav = newName; return; } }); I'm using Chrome at the moment, and according to the dev tools that isn't what happens. Problem #1 "$(this).attr("id");" isn't returning undefined as the documentation claims. It seems to be returning "". BUT, when I have the if statement as I do above, it skips over the statement entirely. I set a breakpoint, but it never pauses execuation, so the statement is never evaluated. Problem #2 After the animations occur, instead of using the return at the end of the statements it goes back and uses the return for the "newName == currentSubNav" if statement. I guess that not a big deal, but it's not the intended behavior. I'm fairly new to JavaScript, and it appears I'm missing something about how JavaScript works. But I can't find what anywhere. Any help? Blockquote

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  • Visual Studio 2008 having problems with namespaces when used as type in Generic coolection

    - by patrick
    I just upgraded last week from Visual Studio 2005 to 2008. I am having an issue with compiler resolving namespaces when I use a class as a type in a Generic collection. Intellisense recognizes the class and the compiler generates no errors when I use the class except when it is a type in a Generic collection declaration either as return type for a Property or as a parameter to a method. This is happening in my only project that is targeting the 3.5 framework, but changing the project containing the class to use the 3.5 framework doesn't fix the problem. Examples Compile fine MyClass myClass = new MyClass(); SortedList <DateTime,MyClass> listOfClasses = new SortedList<DateTime,MyClass> Compile error - Namespace could not be found public SortedList<DateTime,MyClass> ClassList { get; set; } private void DoSomethingToLists(SortedList<DateTime,MyClass> classList) Intellisense has no problem resolving the namespace, only the compiler. Is this a known bug or am I missing something obvious? Will SP1 fix it? I was able to create a new library containing just this class targeting 3.5 and am now able to successfully use this in both 3.5 and 2.0 projects. My guess is that even though I tried to change the target of my original library, since it was still referencing 2.0 projects there was some conflict.

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  • How to access frame (not iframe) contents from jQuery.

    - by kazanaki
    Hello I have 2 frames in one page like this (home.html) <frameset rows="50%, 50%"> <frame id="treeContent" src="treeContent.html" /> <frame id="treeStatus" src="treeStatus.html" /> </frameset> and then in one frame (treeStatus.html) I have something like <body style="margin: 0px"> <div id="statusText">Status bar for Tree</div> </body> I want from the top window to manipulate the div located in the child frame via jquery (e.g show and hide). I have seen several questions like this and they suggest the following $(document).ready(function(){ $('#treeStatus').contents().find("statusText").hide(); }); I do not know if this works with iframes but in my case where I have simple frames it does not seem to work. The code is placed inside home.html Here is some output from firebug console >>> $('#treeStatus') [frame#treeStatus] >>> $('#treeStatus').contents() [] >>> $('#treeStatus').children() [] So how do I access frame elements from the top frame? Am I missing something here?

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  • File upload issue

    - by Varun
    I am working on a PHP based, ticket management system. While creating a ticket, one can upload an attachment. I want to put a limit (say 10 MB) per file upload. To implement this I plan the following- 1. In php.ini set post_max_size = 10M 2.In PHP script which receives the POST- Since the file is larger than post_max_size, $_FILES[] will be empty. But I can still check the content-length header and discard the upload, if size more than 10M. While testing this I tried uploading a file of 1 GB and analysed the http traffic and this is what I found. - the entire 1 GB data is first uploaded to a to the server temporarily and discarded once the http request completes. Though I couldn't exactly find out where the file was getting saved(as it was not there in the temporary directory in the server.), but my http traffic analyzer showed that the browser did send 1 GB data to the server. - the PHP script execution started only after completion of the http request(i.e after uploading the entire 1 GB) Now I have 2 concerns: a) People may exploit my server bandwidth by trying to upload large file, which I will have to discard anyways. b) Even worse, if someone starts uploading a huge file (say 100 GB), entire 100 GB data is first uploaded to the server temporarily, that means for that period, it will consume that much of memory on my server. What's the common solution for this. Am I missing something here?

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  • Echoing variable construct instead of content

    - by danp
    I'm merging two different versions of a translations array. The more recent version has a lot of changes, over several thousand lines of code. To do this, I loaded and evaluated the new file (which uses the same structure and key names), then loaded and evaluated the older version, overwriting the new untranslated values in the array with the values we already have translated. So far so good! However, I want to be able to echo out the constructor for this new merged array so I can cut and paste it into the new translation file, and have job done (apart from completing the rest of the translations..). The code looks like this (lots of different keys, not just index): $lang["index"]["chart1_label1"] = "Subscribed"; $lang["index"]["chart1_label2"] = "Unsubscribed"; And the old.. $lang["index"]["chart1_label1"] = "Subscrito"; $lang["index"]["chart1_label2"] = "Não subscrito"; After loading the two files, I end up with a merged $lang array, which I then want to echo out in the same form, so it can be used by the project. However, when I do something like this.. foreach ($lang as $key => $value) { if (is_array($value)) { foreach ($value as $key2 => $value2) { echo "$lang['".$key."']"; // ... etc etc } } } ..obviously I get "ArrayIndex" etc etc instead of "$lang". How to echo out $lang without it being evaluated..? Once this is working, can add in the rest of the brackets etc (I realise they are missing), but just want to make this part work first. If there's a better way to do this, all ears too! Thanks.

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  • How to access remote mysql host on Ubuntu inside VMware?

    - by Nick Grossman
    Hi, I'm running Ubuntu 10.10 inside VMware fusion on Mac OSX Snow Leopard. Inside ubuntu, I'm attempting to use command-line mysql to connect to a database hosted on a separate web server. For some reason, mysql misinterprets the remote hostname as a local address, and is not able to connect to the database. Steps: (from ubuntu inside VMware) mysql -u <my-username> -h mysql-2.sandbox.wrkng.net -p Enter Password: <my password> expected: to log into mysql got: ERROR 1045 (28000): Access denied for user '<my-username>'@'c-71-233-98-90.hds1.ma.comcast.net' (using password: YES) Note that the hostname referenced in the error message is different than the one I inputted to the mysql command. Also, performing the same command from the Mac (host of the VM) terminal successfully connects to the database. I am not seasoned with VMware or linux, so I may be missing something obvious here -- it seems like somewhere along the way either ubuntu or the VM has a networking issue. Note also that accessing the internet via ubuntu inside the VM works fine. Any help is greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Custom bean instantiation logic in Spring MVC

    - by Michal Bachman
    I have a Spring MVC application trying to use a rich domain model, with the following mapping in the Controller class: @RequestMapping(value = "/entity", method = RequestMethod.POST) public String create(@Valid Entity entity, BindingResult result, ModelMap modelMap) { if (entity== null) throw new IllegalArgumentException("An entity is required"); if (result.hasErrors()) { modelMap.addAttribute("entity", entity); return "entity/create"; } entity.persist(); return "redirect:/entity/" + entity.getId(); } Before this method gets executed, Spring uses BeanUtils to instantiate a new Entity and populate its fields. It uses this: ... ReflectionUtils.makeAccessible(ctor); return ctor.newInstance(args); Here's the problem: My entities are Spring managed beans. The reason for this is to inject DAOs on them. Instead of calling new, I use EntityFactory.createEntity(). When they're retrieved from the database, I have an interceptor that overrides the public Object instantiate(String entityName, EntityMode entityMode, Serializable id) method and hooks the factories into that. So the last piece of the puzzle missing here is how to force Spring to use the factory rather than its own BeanUtils reflective approach? Any suggestions for a clean solution? Thanks very much in advance.

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  • What's a good way to write batch scripts in C#?

    - by Scott Bilas
    I would like to write simple scripts in C#. Stuff I would normally use .bat or 4NT .btm files for. Copying files, parsing text, asking user input, and so on. Fairly simple but doing this stuff right in a batch file is really hard (no exceptions for example). I'm familiar with command line "scripting" wrappers like AxScript so that gets me part of the way there. What I'm missing is the easy file-manipulation framework. I want to be able to do cd(".."), copy(srcFile, destFile) type functionality. Tools I have tried: NANT, which we use in our build process. Not a good scripting tool. Insanely verbose XML syntax and to add a simple function you must write an extension assembly. Can't do it inline. PowerShell. Looks great, but I just haven't been able to switch over to this as my primary shell. Too many differences from 4NT. Whatever I do needs to run from an ordinary command prompt and not require a special shell to run it through. Can PowerShell be used as a script executor? Perl/Python/Ruby. Really hate learning an entirely new language and framework just to do batch file operations. Haven't been able to dedicate the time I need to do this. Plus, we're a 99% .NET shop for our toolchain and I really want to leverage our existing experience and codebase. Are there frameworks out there that are trying to solve this problem of "make a batch file in C#" that you have used? I want the power of C#/.NET with the immediate-mode type functionality of a typical cmd.exe shell language. Am I alone in wanting something like this?

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  • Windows Workflow Foundation 4.0 Designer Rehosting with Custom Activities

    - by Robert
    I have several WF 4.0 workflows that I have created for an application my company is developing. Some of these workflows are simple, and some are very complex (i.e. many steps, several different types of activities, custom activities). For many of these workflows, I have created several custom code activities to support some internal process types. The workflows work great and we have had very few problems when it comes to maintaining them within VS 2010. We now want to move that responsibility off to our business users, so I have created a WPF application to rehost the WF designer (according to the MS samples). My problem is that when I open one of the workflows that contains custom code activities, those activities are represented as red boxes with the error message of "Activity could not be loaded because of errors in XAML." I have done research and have found several posts that mention that this is usually a problem with namespacing and referencing. The rehosted designer is in a namespace similar to this: Company.Application.Workflow.Designer And the custom code activities are contained within a separate custom workflow library, which I have included as a reference in the designer project. The library's namespace is similar to this: Company.Application.Workflow.Data.Activities As I have mentioned, the library is set as a reference in the designer's project, and I see it being copied to the output when I build the project. I have also included the reference in the XAML of the main designed application. What am I missing?

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  • get_bookmarks() object doesn't return link_category

    - by ninja
    I'm trying to fetch all link-categories from the built in Wordpress linklist (or bookmarks if you will). To do this, I simply stored all links in a variable like this: <?php $lists = get_bookmarks(); foreach($lists as $list) { $cats[] = $list->link_category; } ?> To my surprise even var_dump'ing $cats gave me "String(0)", so I var_dump'ed out $lists instead, and it gave me this: array(8) { [0]=> object(stdClass)#5126 (13) { ["link_id"]=> string(1) "1" ["link_url"]=> string(27) "http://codex.wordpress.org/" ["link_name"]=> string(13) "Documentation" ["link_image"]=> string(0) "" ["link_target"]=> string(0) "" ["link_description"]=> string(0) "" ["link_visible"]=> string(1) "Y" ["link_owner"]=> string(1) "1" ["link_rating"]=> string(1) "0" ["link_updated"]=> string(19) "0000-00-00 00:00:00" ["link_rel"]=> string(0) "" ["link_notes"]=> string(0) "" ["link_rss"]=> string(0) "" } Now, codex.wordpress.org is a default link that comes with wordpress, it's in a category called "Linklist", and as you can see, the object contains everything about that link, EXCEPT the categoryname. According to the codex this object should contain a field named "link_category", so I'm getting confused here. Am I missing something? Is the function broke? Regards NINJA

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  • What is the correct install process to setup Node.js with Windows Azure Emulator

    - by PazoozaTest Pazman
    This question is related to this question: Node.js running under IIS Express Keeps Crashing to which I need help with reinstalling and getting node.js up and running in windows emulator working. Hello I am reinstalling my machine: Toshiha Laptop 2 GB Ram 32 bit processor What is the correct procedure from start to finish to get node.js development working, so far nothing has worked and the emulator (IIS Express) worker processor keeps crashing. No matter how many instances they all end up crashing. Up until two weeks ago my node development was working fine, but I had to do a reinstall, and since then I haven't been doing any node.js development on windows emulator because the latest June 2012 Azure SDK for Node.js is buggy. These are the steps I have taken: 1) Reformat HD 2) Insert Windows 7 N SP1 CD 3) Reboot machine into CD installation 4) Follow and wait until Windows 7 installed 5) Run Add/Remove programs + enable IIS + IIS management tools 6) Run Windows Update (installed about 53 updates) 7) Go here http://www.windowsazure.com/en-us/develop/nodejs/ 8) Click Windows Installer June 2012 and install Windows Azure SDK for Node.js - June 2012 9) Run Azure Powershell 10) Navigate to c:\node\testSite\webrole1 11) launch site: start-azureemulator -launch 12) Play around on website (then crash!) Problem signature: Problem Event Name: APPCRASH Application Name: iisexpress.exe Application Version: 8.0.8298.0 Application Timestamp: 4f620349 Fault Module Name: iiscore.dll Fault Module Version: 8.0.8298.0 Fault Module Timestamp: 4f63b65c Exception Code: c0000005 Exception Offset: 00021767 OS Version: 6.1.7601.2.1.0.256.28 Locale ID: 1033 Additional Information 1: f66d Additional Information 2: f66d807b515d6b2dc6f28f66db769a01 Additional Information 3: 7b2f Additional Information 4: 7b2f6797d07ebc2c23f2b227e779722e Am I missing a step in my resintall process? Do I have all the required files to do node.js windows azure emulator development? Why is IIS Express crashing all the time? Can I still do node.js windows azure emulator development without using IIS Express and use my local Windows 7 N (SP1) IIS 7.x that comes shipped?

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  • MVC3 html.TextBox

    - by BigTommy79
    I have login view that takes a LoginPageViewModel: public class LoginPageViewModel : PageViewModel { public string ReturnUrl { get; set; } public bool PreviousLoginFailed { get; set; } public LoginFormViewModel EditForm { get; set; } } which is rendered in the view. When a user tries to log in I only want to post the LoginFormViewModel (Model.EditForm) to the controller: public ActionResult Login(LoginFormViewModel loginDetails) { //do stuff } Using Html.TextBox I can specify the name of the form field manually 'loginDetails.UserName' and post back to the controller and everything works. @model Web.Controllers.User.ViewModels.LoginPageViewModel @using (Html.BeginForm()){ @Html.Hidden("loginDetails.ReturnUrl", Model.ReturnUrl) @Html.LabelFor(x => x.EditForm.UserName, "User Name:") @Html.TextBox("loginDetails.UserName", Model.EditForm.UserName) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(x => x.EditForm.UserName) ..... But what I want to do is to use the staticaly typed helper, something like: @Html.TextBoxFor(x => x.EditForm.UserName) But I'm unable to get this to work. Are you only able to post back the same model when useing the strongly typed helpers? Is there something I'm missing on this? Intellisense doesn't seem to give any clues such as a form field string.

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  • Changing pointer of self

    - by rob5408
    I have an object that I alloc/init like normal just to get a instance. Later in my application I want to load state from disk for that object. I figure I could unarchive my class (which conforms to NSCoding) and just swap where my instance points to. To this end I use this code... NSString* pathForDataFile = [self pathForDataFile]; if([[NSFileManager defaultManager] fileExistsAtPath:pathForDataFile] == YES) { NSLog(@"Save file exists"); NSData *data = [[NSMutableData alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:pathForDataFile]; NSKeyedUnarchiver *unarchiver = [[NSKeyedUnarchiver alloc] initForReadingWithData:data]; [data release]; Person *tempPerson = [unarchiver decodeObjectForKey:@"Person"]; [unarchiver finishDecoding]; [unarchiver release]; if (tempPerson) { [self release]; self = [tempPerson retain]; } } Now when I sprinkled some NSLogs throughout my application I noticed self.person: <Person: 0x3d01a10> (After I create the object with alloc/init) self: <Person: 0x3d01a10> (At the start of this method) tempPerson: <Person: 0x3b1b880> (When I create the tempPerson) self: <Person: 0x3b1b880> (after i point self to the location of the tempPerson) self.person: <Person: 0x3d01a10> (After the method back in the main program) What am I missing?

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  • Granting administrator privileges to an application launched at startup without UAC prompt?

    - by iKenndac
    Background I've written a small C#/.NET 4.0 application that syncs various settings from a game installed in Program Files to and from other copies of the same game on different machines (think Chrome bookmark sync, but for this game). The sync itself is a relatively simple affair, dealing with files stored inside the game's Program Files folder. On my machine, this works fine without having to elevate my application through UAC. Windows 7 makes the game use Program Files virtualisation and my application works fine with that. However, on a lot of tester's machines, I'm getting reports that the application either can't work with the files and in come cases can't even see the game's folder! Having the user right-click and "Run as Administrator" solves the problem in every case. So, we just set the application's manifest to require admin privileges, right? That's fine (although not ideal) for when the user manually invokes the application or the sync process because they'll be interacting with the application and ready to accept a UAC request. However, one of the features of my application is a "Sync Automatically" option, which allows the user to "set and forget" the application. With this set, the application puts itself into the registry at HKCU\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run to be run at startup and sits in the system tray syncing the settings in the background as needed. Obviously, I need to be smarter here. Presenting a UAC prompt as soon as the user logs in to their account or at random intervals afterwards isn't the way forwards. So, my question! What's the best way to approach a situation where I'd need to run an application at startup that needs administrator privileges? Is there a way to have the user authorise an installation that causes the system to automatically run the application with the correct privileges without a prompt at startup/login?

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  • Sorting an array of strings in reverse alphabetical order in Java

    - by Quacky
    I've been tasked with turning this code into a reverse sort, but for the life of me cannot figure out how to do it. These are my sort, findlargest and swap methods. I have a feeling I am missing something glaringly obvious here, any help would be really appreciated. public static void sort(String[] arr) { for (int pass = 1; pass < arr.length; pass++) { int largestPos = findLargest(arr, arr.length - pass); if (largestPos != arr.length - pass) { swap(arr, largestPos, arr.length - pass); } } } public static int findLargest(String[] arr, int num) { int largestPos = 0; for (int i = 1; i <= num; i++) { if (arr[i].compareToIgnoreCase(arr[largestPos]) > 0) { largestPos = i; } } return largestPos; } public static void swap(String[] arr, int first, int second) { String temp = arr[first]; arr[first] = arr[second]; arr[second] = temp; } }

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  • Can I control object creation using MEF?

    - by Akash
    I need to add some extension points to our existing code, and I've been looking at MEF as a possible solution. We have an IRandomNumberGenerator interface, with a default implementation (ConcreteRNG) that we would like to be swappable. This sounds like an ideal scenario for MEF, but I've been having problems with the way we instantiate the random number generators. Our current code looks like: public class Consumer { private List<IRandomNumberGenerator> generators; private List<double> seeds; public Consumer() { generators = new List<IRandomNumberGenerator>(); seeds = new List<double>(new[] {1.0, 2.0, 3.0}); foreach(var seed in seeds) { generators.Add(new ConcreteRNG(seed); } } } In other words, the consumer is responsible for instantiating the RNGs it needs, including providing the seed that each instance requires. What I'd like to do is to have the concrete RNG implementation discovered and instantiated by MEF (using the DirectoryCatalog). I'm not sure how to achieve this. I could expose a Generators property and mark it as an [Import], but how do I provide the required seeds? Is there some other approach I am missing?

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  • WCF publish/subscribe service, and ASP.NET MVC client

    - by d3j4vu
    I managed to develop a custom WCF service, using the publish / subscribe model, and hosted inside a managed windows service. Everything's working. I developed an interface as the service contract implementing a method definition marked as a non-one way operation contract (OperationContract(IsOneWay = false)]. This, to make possible returns an instance of a custom class derived from System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult. In the MVC app, event fires ok. It wraps inside an action method, (just the one defined in the interface), but, and this is my current problem, i believe that something relative to the execution context of the windows service (and the hosted wcf counterpart) blocks the execution of the action method in the MVC app. This is what i have until now (some pieces ripped off just to be more clear): /// Method definition for the contract's service. Maps to a MVC ActionMethod. [OperationContract(IsOneWay = false)] ActionResult Imagen(string data, CustomActionResult result); The class to hold an ActionResult derived class instance: public class ServiceEventArgsMvc : ServiceEventArgs { /// <summary> /// /// </summary> public CustomActionResult Result { get; set; } } And the code in the MVC client app: /// <summary> /// Just a simple class to hold an abstract ActionResult derived class instance. /// </summary> public ActionResult Image(string data, CustomActionResult result) { ViewData["data"] = data; return View(); } Ok. ActionMethod sucessfully executes...but when it's done (and usually expected obtain a reditection to a View named Image, like the action method), the WCF service throws a Timeout exception, making clear that he's still waiting for a response from the MVC client. The response never arrives, so the MVC app never finish his work (redirect to the "Image" view as expected). Any ideas?. Guess i'm missing something very simple, but i don't know what it could be. This is drivin' me nuts.

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  • When do Symfony's user attributes get written to session?

    - by Rob Wilkerson
    I have a Symfony app that populates the "widgets" of a portal application and I'm noticing something (that seems) odd. The portal app has iframes that make calls to the Symfony app. On each of those calls, a random user key is passed on the query string. The Symfony app stores that key its session using myUser->setAttribute(). If the incoming value is different from what it has in session, it overwrites the session value. In pseudo-code (and applying a synchronous nature for clarity even though it may not exist): # Widget request arrives with ?foo=bar if the user attribute 'foo' does not equal 'bar' overwrite the user attribute 'foo' with 'bar' end What I'm noticing is that, on a portal page with multiple widgets (read: multiple requests coming in more or less simultaneously) where the value needs to be overwritten, each request is trying to overwrite. Is this a timing problem? When I look at the log prints, I'd expect the first request that arrives to overwrite and subsequent requests to see that the user attribute they received matches what was just put into cache by the initial request. In this scenario, it could be that subsequent requests begin (and are checked) even before the first one--the one that should overwrite the cached value--has completely finished. Are session values not really available to subsequent requests until one request has completed entirely or could there be something else that I'm missing? Thanks.

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  • How to access a variable outside a function in Javascript

    - by Luke101
    Here is the code I am working with: $(document).ready(function () { var TemplateEditor = function () { var GroupClassName = 'group'; var SelectedGroup = 0; var BindClicks = function () { $('.CriteriaSelections').unbind('click').click(function (event) { event.preventDefault(); if (fnIsTheClickedBoxaGroup($(this))) { TemplateEditor.GroupClicked(); } else { TemplateEditor.CriteriaClicked($(this), SelectedGroup); } }); $('.groupselected').unbind('click').click(function (event) { event.preventDefault(); SelectedGroup = $(this).attr('group-'.length); TemplateEditor.SelectGroup(SelectedGroup); }); } var fnGetGroupID = function (Obj) { if (fnIsTheClickedBoxaGroup(Obj) == true) { return null; } else { //Get parent which is the group var ObjParent = Obj.parent(); var GID = ObjParent.attr('id').substr('group-'.length); return GID; } } var fnIsTheClickedBoxaGroup = function (Obj) { var GetClass = Obj.attr('class'); if (GetClass == GroupClassName) { return true; } else { return false; } } return { Init: function () { BindClicks(); }, CriteriaClicked: function (Obj, GroupID) { $('<div>').attr({ id: '' }).addClass('selection').text(Obj).appendTo('#group-' + GroupID); }, GroupClicked: function () { }, SelectGroupClicked: function () { }, UpdateTargetPanel: function () { } }; } (); TemplateEditor.Init(); }); I am trying to access this variable: GroupClassName This variable is inside this function var fnIsTheClickedBoxaGroup = function (Obj) { var GetClass = Obj.attr('class'); if (GetClass == GroupClassName) { return true; } else { return false; } } When I run the program it says GroupClassName is undefined. Am I missing something here?

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  • Ajax post failing in asp

    - by Dave Kiss
    hey guys, this might be really stupid, but hopefully someone can help. I'm trying to post to an external script using ajax so i can mail the data, but for some reason my data is not making it to the script. $(document).ready(function() { $("#submitContactForm").click(function () { $('#loading').append('<img src="http://www.xxxxxxxx.com/demo/copyshop/images/loading.gif" alt="Currently Loading" id="loadingComment" />'); var name = $('#name').val(); var email = $('#email').val(); var comment = $('#comment').val(); var dataString = 'name='+ name + '&email=' + email + '&comment=' + comment; $.ajax({ url: 'http://www.xxxxx.com/demo/copyshop/php/sendmail.php', type: 'POST', data: '?name=Dave&[email protected]&comment=hiiii', success: function(result) { $('#loading').append('success'); } }); return false; }); }); the php script is simple (for now - just wanted to make sure it worked) <?php $name = $_POST['name']; $email = $_POST['email']; $comment = $_POST['comment']; $to = '[email protected]'; $subject = 'New Contact Inquiry'; $message = $comment; mail($to, $subject, $message); ?> the jquery is embedded in an .aspx page (a language i'm not familiar with) but is posting to a php script. i'm receiving emails properly but there is no data inside. am i missing something? i tried to bypass the variables in this example, but its still not working thanks

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  • Need a Java based interruptible timer thread

    - by LambeauLeap
    I have a Main Program which is running a script on the target device(smart phone) and in a while loop waiting for stdout messages. However in this particular case, some of the heartbeat messages on the stdout could be spaced almost 45secs to a 1minute apart. something like: stream = device.runProgram(RESTORE_LOGS, new String[] {}); stream.flush(); String line = stream.readLine(); while (line.compareTo("") != 0) { reporter.commentOnJob(jobId, line); line = stream.readLine(); } So, I want to be a able to start a new interruptible thread after reading line from stdout with a required a sleep window. Upon being able to read a new line, I want to be able to interrupt/stop(having trouble killing the process), handle the newline of stdout text and restart a process. And it the event I am not able to read a line within the timer window(say 45secs) I want to a way to get out of my while loop either. I already tried the thread.run, thread.interrupt approach. But having trouble killing and starting a new thread. Is this the best way out or am I missing something obvious?

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  • Is Mapping SIMPLE data to winform control really as hard as it seems?

    - by HotOil
    Hi: I'm making a leap from MFC to WinForms. It has all gone smoothly so far; The windows/gui parts of winforms app development are making good sense to me. But. Now all I want to do is display simple data types in the controls on the form, and retrieve them from the controls when the user clicks. This is a very simple operation in MFC.. (DataExchange) but seems to be much more complicated in .NET. Binding ? DataObject ? DataSet ? no.. I don't want a dataset or records or columns or any of that. I just want to map an or a bool to a checkbox or a radiobutton.. I have looked but have not found any good examples of doing this in C++. Is it really this hard? Really? What am I missing? Thanks-

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  • Retrieving my own data via FaceBook API

    - by goggin13
    I am building a website for a comedy group which uses Facebook as one of their marketing platforms; one of the requirements for the new site is to display all of their Facebook events on a calendar. Currently, I am just trying to put together a Python script which can pull some data from my own Facebook account, like a list of all my friends. I presume once I can accomplish this I can move to pulling more complicated data out of my clients account (since they have given me access to their account). I have looked at many of the posts here, and also went through the Facebook API documentation, including Facebook Connect, but am really beating my head against the wall. Everything I have read seems like overkill, as it involves setting up a good deal of infrastructure to allow my app to set up connections to any arbitrary user's account (who authorizes me). Shouldn't it be much simpler, given I only ever need to access 1 account? I cannot find a way to retrieve data without having to display the Facebook login window. I have a script which will retrieve all my friends, but it includes a redirect where I have to physically log myself in to Facebook. Would appreciate any advice or links, I just feel like I must be missing something simple. Thank you!

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