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  • Reverse WiFi to Broadcast connection coming from a USB device

    - by Daniel Clem
    I am using the app called Clockworkmod Tether. It connects using a script ( command line " gksu ./run.sh " ) on the computer. All my programs connect to the internet perfectly, minitube, midori, transmission torrents. But the network manager does not show any connection, wired or wireless. So this may cause issues? What I want to do is take this connection, and be able to share it some way, any way, by wireless. This Acer Timeline "Aspire 5810TZ" does have an Ethernet, so wired out to a router might be an option. But I would prefer to simply reverse the Wireless card to broadcast out to about 2 or 3 devices. Is this possible? Yes I have taken a look at the other questions already posted here, but the answers are 1 year old or older, and not clear at all. I am moderately comfortable (4.5 out of 10 ) on the command line. But pretty much need line by line directions for what commands are needed and what order, ect. Edit I have already tried the method of "Left click network manager, Create New Wireless Network" It is created fine, and I am able to connect to it with a tablet, but am un-able to get an outside connection with it. Using the "Shared to other computers" option because DHCP doesn't seem to work, and WEP Passphrase Security. I get an IP address on the connected device. But as I said, won't bring up any outside webpages or the like. So perhaps this is the wrong approach?

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  • Reverse-Engineer Driver for Backlit Keyboard

    - by user87847
    Here's my situation: I recently purchased a Sager NP9170 (same as the Clevo P170EM) and it has a multi-colored, backlit keyboard. Under Windows 7, you can launch an app that allows you to change the color of the backlighting to any of a handful of colors (blue, green, red, etc). I want that same functionality under Linux. I haven't been able to find any software that does this, so I guess I'm going to have to write it myself. I'm a programmer by trade, but I've haven't done much low level programming, and I've certainly never written a device driver, so I was wondering if anyone could answer these two questions: 1) Is there any software already out there that does this sort of thing? I've looked fairly thoroughly but haven't found anything applicable. 2) Where would I start in trying to reverse engineer this sort of thing? Any useful articles, tutorials, books that might help? And just to clarify: The backlighting already works, that's not the problem. I just want to be able to change the color of the backlighting. This functionality is supported by the hardware. The laptop came with windows software that does this and I want the same functionality in Linux. I am willing to write this software myself, I just want to know the best way to go about it. Thanks!

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  • AspNetCompatibility in WCF Services &ndash; easy to trip up

    - by Rick Strahl
    This isn’t the first time I’ve hit this particular wall: I’m creating a WCF REST service for AJAX callbacks and using the WebScriptServiceHostFactory host factory in the service: <%@ ServiceHost Language="C#" Service="WcfAjax.BasicWcfService" CodeBehind="BasicWcfService.cs" Factory="System.ServiceModel.Activation.WebScriptServiceHostFactory" %>   to avoid all configuration. Because of the Factory that creates the ASP.NET Ajax compatible format via the custom factory implementation I can then remove all of the configuration settings that typically get dumped into the web.config file. However, I do want ASP.NET compatibility so I still leave in: <system.serviceModel> <serviceHostingEnvironment aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true"/> </system.serviceModel> in the web.config file. This option allows you access to the HttpContext.Current object to effectively give you access to most of the standard ASP.NET request and response features. This is not recommended as a primary practice but it can be useful in some scenarios and in backwards compatibility scenerios with ASP.NET AJAX Web Services. Now, here’s where things get funky. Assuming you have the setting in web.config, If you now declare a service like this: [ServiceContract(Namespace = "DevConnections")] #if DEBUG [ServiceBehavior(IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults = true)] #endif public class BasicWcfService (or by using an interface that defines the service contract) you’ll find that the service will not work when an AJAX call is made against it. You’ll get a 500 error and a System.ServiceModel.ServiceActivationException System error. Worse even with the IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults enabled you get absolutely no indication from WCF what the problem is. So what’s the problem?  The issue is that once you specify aspNetCompatibilityEnabled=”true” in the configuration you *have to* specify the AspNetCompatibilityRequirements attribute and one of the modes that enables or at least allows for it. You need either Required or Allow: [AspNetCompatibilityRequirements(RequirementsMode = AspNetCompatibilityRequirementsMode.Required)] without it the service will simply fail without further warning. It will also fail if you set the attribute value to NotAllowed. The following also causes the service to fail as above: [AspNetCompatibilityRequirements(RequirementsMode = AspNetCompatibilityRequirementsMode.NotAllowed)] This is not totally unreasonable but it’s a difficult issue to debug especially since the configuration setting is global – if you have more than one service and one requires traditional ASP.NET access and one doesn’t then both must have the attribute specified. This is one reason why you’d want to avoid using this functionality unless absolutely necessary. WCF REST provides some basic access to some of the HTTP features after all, although what’s there is severely limited. I also wish that ServiceActivation errors would provide more error information. Getting an Activation error without further info on what actually is wrong is pretty worthless especially when it is a technicality like a mismatched configuration/attribute setting like this.© Rick Strahl, West Wind Technologies, 2005-2010Posted in ASP.NET  WCF  AJAX  

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  • Is there some smart way of customizing ajax message text in jQuery?

    - by Fedor
    I have tons of ajax components on this booking engine. I need to customize the text inside of the modal for each of the components to suite. I added: $('#loader').bind('ajaxStart', function() { $(this).show().addClass('modalOpen'); }).bind('ajaxComplete', function() { $(this).removeClass('modalOpen').hide() }); Is there some advanced way of changing the text inside of the loading element before I do separate .ajax calls? Or do I just have to manually do something like $('#loader').text('blah'); $.ajax({}) Furthermore, this may sound silly but is there a way to not have the loader show up for certain components? If not I imagine I'll have to do something like $('someel').someEvent(function() { $('#loader').addClass('override-hide'); $.ajax({ success:function() { $('#loader').removeClass('override-hide'); } }) }) #loader.override-hide { display:none !important; }

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  • DOJO : How do you reinitiate form elements after ajax call ?

    - by Dural
    I'm trying to do a couple of things using Zend Framework & Dojo Toolkit, and any help would be appreciated. Here's the problem: I have a form that is rendered with the Zend Framework form class, which has an ajax radio button selection. Clicking one of these radio buttons will send an ajax request to another controller, which has no layout, just a rendered form. The ajax request will then populate a div with the new form options. Problem is, when I replace the innerHTML of the div with the ajax response, all the form inputs and elements are not inheriting the same Dojo styling and form validation. I was wondering if there is a way to reinitate form elements after an ajax call? I have tried to use the code attached which I found and modified slightly for this example, however it did not work. If I use the line dojo.parser.parse( div ); nothing changes (rg_adress in the example is the ID of a form element that is placed on the DOM). Here is the console.log of rg_address: <input type="text" dojotype="dijit.form.ValidationTextBox" required="1" invalidmessage="The first name of the recipient" value="" name="rg_address" id="rg_address" class="textbox"/> onClick=' dojo.xhrGet( { url: "/transfer/newrecipient/", handleAs: "text", timeout: 10000, // Time in milliseconds // The LOAD function will be called on a successful response. load: function(response, ioArgs) { $("#newRecipient").html(response); $("#newPayMethod").html(""); $("#newPayDetail").html(""); var div = dojo.byId("rg_address"); console.log( div ); dojo.parser.parse( div ); return response; }, // The ERROR function will be called in an error case. error: function(response, ioArgs) { $("#newRecipient").html("Error loading registration form"); $("#newPayMethod").html(""); $("#newPayDetail").html(""); return response; } });' Thanks, Dural

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  • How to get an ASP.NET MVC Ajax response to redirect to new page instead of inserting view into Updat

    - by Jeff Widmer
    I am using the Ajax.BeginForm to create a form the will do an ajax postback to a certain controller action and then if the action is successful, the user should get redirected to another page (if the action fails then a status message gets displayed using the AjaxOptions UpdateTargetId). using (Ajax.BeginForm("Delete", null, new { userId = Model.UserId }, new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "UserForm", LoadingElementId = "DeletingDiv" }, new { name = "DeleteForm", id = "DeleteForm" })) { [HTML DELETE BUTTON] } If the delete is successful I am returning a Redirect result: [Authorize] public ActionResult Delete(Int32 UserId) { UserRepository.DeleteUser(UserId); return Redirect(Url.Action("Index", "Home")); } But the Home Controller Index view is getting loaded into the UpdateTargetId and therefore I end up with a page within a page. Two things I am thinking about: Either I am architecting this wrong and should handle this type of action differently (not using ajax). Instead of returning a Redirect result, return a view which has javascript in it that does the redirect on the client side. Does anyone have comments on #1? Or if #2 is a good solution, what would the "redirect javascript view" look like?

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  • How can I catch all ajax requests in javascript ?

    - by Annan
    Is it possible to have a global event handler for ajax requests that automatically gets called when any ajax request returns ? I'm interested in this because I'm making a greasemonkey script for an ajax site. In previous scripts I either ran the main function every few seconds or overwrote parts of the site's javascript, both things that are messy.

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  • How can I alter an external variable from inside my AJAX?

    - by tmedge
    I keep on having these same two problems. I have been trying to use Remy Sharp's wonderful tagSuggest plugin, and it works great. Until I try to use an AJAX call to get tags from my database. My setGlobalTags() works great, with my defined myTagList at the top of the function. What I want to do is set myTagList equal to the result from my AJAX. My problem is that I can neither call setGlobalTags() from inside my success or error functions, nor actually alter the original myTagList. Also, I keep on having this other issue as well. I keep this code in my Master page, and my AJAX returns 'success' on almost every page. I only (and always) get the error alert when I navigate to a page that actually contains something of id="ParentTags". I don't see why this is happening, because my $('#ParentTags').tagSuggest(); is definitely after my AJAX call. I realize that this is probably just some dumb conventions error, but I am new to this and I'm here to learn from you guys. Thanks in advance! $(function() { var myTagList = ['test', 'testMore', 'testALot']; $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: 'Admin/GetTagList', dataType: 'json', success: function(resultTags) { myTagList = resultTags; alert(myTagList[0]); setGlobalTags(myTagList); }, error: function() { alert('Error'); setGlobalTags(myTagList); } }); setGlobalTags(myTagList); $('#ParentTags').tagSuggest(); });

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  • Asp.net MVC Ajax form that return Json to a javascript method.

    - by Diego Correa
    Hello guys, I have an ajax form that saves a object in the database then return a Message like this: return Json(new {Message = "Message!"}, JsonRequestBehavior.AllowGet); We are ok here, but I don't know HOW I'll get this result in the view to display in a jQuery modal. My ajax form is like the following and I want to get the result on the OnSuccess method: <%using (Ajax.BeginForm("Form", "Controller", new AjaxOptions() { OnSuccess = "MethodThatIWantToGetTheJson" })) Any ideas?

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  • What's the Microsoft Ajax equivalent to jquery.ajaxSetup() or .ajaxError()?

    - by Seth Petry-Johnson
    I have an ASP.NET MVC site that uses both Microsoft Ajax [Ajax.BeginForm()] and jQuery to make asynchronous requests. I want to configure both frameworks such that a generic error handler is automatically attached if the developer does not explicitly specify a failure callback. In jQuery I can accomplish this with either .ajaxSetup() or .ajaxError(). What is the equivalent in the Microsoft Ajax client library? I'm fairly sure it's something in the Sys object but I can't find it...

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  • Can I use this Ajax script to communicate and exchange data between client and server?

    - by lala
    This block of code is for client.html (it is located in this www.client.com/client.html) - client side. The I have the code below that goes something like this: ajaxRequest.open("GET", "http://www.server.com/ajax.php", true); This is how I call the file ajax.php located in the server. Unfortunately I have no luck at all. It cannot connect to the server I'm calling. BTW, the ips /test site I've been using are all no restrictions, and is accessible to all. However, I tried to simulate by putting both client.html and ajax.php in same site and it works well. So my question is does this script works only if you are in same site? or does it work also in client-server scenario? What else do I have to do in order to make this work? //client.html <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> <!-- //Browser Support Code function ajaxFunction(){ var ajaxRequest; // The variable that makes Ajax possible! try{ // Opera 8.0+, Firefox, Safari ajaxRequest = new XMLHttpRequest(); } catch (e){ // Internet Explorer Browsers try{ ajaxRequest = new ActiveXObject("Msxml2.XMLHTTP"); } catch (e) { try{ ajaxRequest = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } catch (e){ // Something went wrong alert("Your browser broke!"); return false; } } } // Create a function that will receive data sent from the server ajaxRequest.onreadystatechange = function(){ if(ajaxRequest.readyState == 4){ document.myForm.time.value = ajaxRequest.responseText; } } ajaxRequest.open("GET", "http://www.server.com/ajax.php", true); ajaxRequest.send(null); } //--> </script> <form name='myForm'> Name: <input type='text' onChange="ajaxFunction();" name='username' /> <br /> Time: <input type='text' name='time' /> </form> </body> </html> // ajax.php <?php echo date("H:i:s"); ?>

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  • What's the best way to send user-inputted text via AJAX to Google App Engine?

    - by Cuga
    I'm developing in Google App Engine (python sdk) and I want to use jQuery to send an Ajax request to store an answer to a question. What is the best way to send this data to the server? Currently I have: function storeItem(question_id) { var answerInputControl = ".input_answer_"+question_id; var answer_text = $(answerInputControl).text(); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "store_answer.html", data: "question="+question_id, success: function(responseText){ alert("Retrieved: " + responseText); } }); } This takes a question Id and provides it to the server via the query string. But on the server-side, I'm unable to access the content of the answer control which I want to store. Without Ajax, I'm able to perform this operation with the following: class StoreAnswers(webapp.RequestHandler): def post(self): question_id = self.request.get("question_id") answer_text = self.request.get("input_answer" + question_id) But when doing this call through Ajax, my answer_text is empty. Do I need to send the contents of this control as part of the data with the Ajax request? Do I add the control itself to the query string? Its contents? Does it matter that the content might be a few hundred characters long? Is this the most-recommended practice? If sending it as a query string, what's the best way to escape the content so that a malicious user doesn't harm the system?

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  • How do I get the response time from a jQuery ajax call?

    - by Dumpen
    So I am working on tool that can show long a request to a page is taking. I am doing this by using jQuery Ajax (http://api.jquery.com/jQuery.ajax/) and I want to figure out the best way to get the response time. I found a thread (http://forum.jquery.com/topic/jquery-get-time-of-ajax-post) which describes using the "Date" in JavaScript, but is this method really reliable? An example of my code could be this below $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "some.php", }).done(function () { // Here I want to get the how long it took to load some.php and use it further });

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  • Can an Ajax call complete before the DOM is loaded?

    - by Ek0nomik
    I am grabbing data through a jQuery Ajax call, and displaying it on the page. I need to wait for both the DOM to load and for the Ajax call to complete before I can use the data to display it on the page. Can an Ajax call ever complete before the DOM has loaded? I'm just trying to determine where I need to put my method that will manipulate the DOM and use the data I'm getting back.

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  • How can I delete a row in the view only if the AJAX call & db deletion was successful?

    - by user1760663
    I have a table where each row has a button for deletion. Actually I delete the row everytime without checking if the ajax call was successfull. How can I achieve that, so that the row will only be deleted if the ajax call was ok. Here is my clickhandler on each row $("body").on('click', ".ui-icon-trash" ,function(){ var $closestTr = $(this).closest('tr'); // This will give the closest tr // If the class element is the child of tr deleteRowFromDB(oTable, closestTr); $closestTr.remove() ; // Will delete that }); And here my ajax call function deleteRowFromDB(oTable, sendallproperty){ var deleteEntryRoute = #{jsRoute @Application.deleteConfigurationEntry() /} console.log("route is: " + deleteEntryRoute.url) $.ajax({ url: deleteEntryRoute.url({id: sendallproperty}), type: deleteEntryRoute.method, data: 'id=' + sendallproperty });

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  • How can I pass select field ID and its value to ajax without having any form?

    - by user3766078
    I have a select field which has ID name as 'region_code' well as its value. And I want pass ID in ajax. As you can see below, the input field is not included in any form. It has a value and the ID Is it possible to get value in ajax as shown below? echo '<select id="region_code" onchange="show_region_code();">'; $result = mysql_query("SELECT region_code, region_name FROM list_region"); while($rows = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo "<option value=\"$rows[0]\">".$rows["1"].'</option>'; } echo '</select>'; My ajax function as below function show_region_code() { var region_code = $("#region_code").val(); $.ajax ({ type: "POST", url: "show_region_code.php", data: { region_code1: region_code }, success: function(data) { $("#region_code").html(data); } }); }

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  • Anti-Forgery Request in ASP.NET MVC and AJAX

    - by Dixin
    Background To secure websites from cross-site request forgery (CSRF, or XSRF) attack, ASP.NET MVC provides an excellent mechanism: The server prints tokens to cookie and inside the form; When the form is submitted to server, token in cookie and token inside the form are sent by the HTTP request; Server validates the tokens. To print tokens to browser, just invoke HtmlHelper.AntiForgeryToken():<% using (Html.BeginForm()) { %> <%: this.Html.AntiForgeryToken(Constants.AntiForgeryTokenSalt)%> <%-- Other fields. --%> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> <% } %> which writes to token to the form:<form action="..." method="post"> <input name="__RequestVerificationToken" type="hidden" value="J56khgCvbE3bVcsCSZkNVuH9Cclm9SSIT/ywruFsXEgmV8CL2eW5C/gGsQUf/YuP" /> <!-- Other fields. --> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> </form> and the cookie: __RequestVerificationToken_Lw__=J56khgCvbE3bVcsCSZkNVuH9Cclm9SSIT/ywruFsXEgmV8CL2eW5C/gGsQUf/YuP When the above form is submitted, they are both sent to server. [ValidateAntiForgeryToken] attribute is used to specify the controllers or actions to validate them:[HttpPost] [ValidateAntiForgeryToken(Salt = Constants.AntiForgeryTokenSalt)] public ActionResult Action(/* ... */) { // ... } This is very productive for form scenarios. But recently, when resolving security vulnerabilities for Web products, I encountered 2 problems: It is expected to add [ValidateAntiForgeryToken] to each controller, but actually I have to add it for each POST actions, which is a little crazy; After anti-forgery validation is turned on for server side, AJAX POST requests will consistently fail. Specify validation on controller (not on each action) Problem For the first problem, usually a controller contains actions for both HTTP GET and HTTP POST requests, and usually validations are expected for HTTP POST requests. So, if the [ValidateAntiForgeryToken] is declared on the controller, the HTTP GET requests become always invalid:[ValidateAntiForgeryToken(Salt = Constants.AntiForgeryTokenSalt)] public class SomeController : Controller { [HttpGet] public ActionResult Index() // Index page cannot work at all. { // ... } [HttpPost] public ActionResult PostAction1(/* ... */) { // ... } [HttpPost] public ActionResult PostAction2(/* ... */) { // ... } // ... } If user sends a HTTP GET request from a link: http://Site/Some/Index, validation definitely fails, because no token is provided. So the result is, [ValidateAntiForgeryToken] attribute must be distributed to each HTTP POST action in the application:public class SomeController : Controller { [HttpGet] public ActionResult Index() // Works. { // ... } [HttpPost] [ValidateAntiForgeryToken(Salt = Constants.AntiForgeryTokenSalt)] public ActionResult PostAction1(/* ... */) { // ... } [HttpPost] [ValidateAntiForgeryToken(Salt = Constants.AntiForgeryTokenSalt)] public ActionResult PostAction2(/* ... */) { // ... } // ... } Solution To avoid a large number of [ValidateAntiForgeryToken] attributes (one attribute for one HTTP POST action), I created a wrapper class of ValidateAntiForgeryTokenAttribute, where HTTP verbs can be specified:[AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Class | AttributeTargets.Method, AllowMultiple = false, Inherited = true)] public class ValidateAntiForgeryTokenWrapperAttribute : FilterAttribute, IAuthorizationFilter { private readonly ValidateAntiForgeryTokenAttribute _validator; private readonly AcceptVerbsAttribute _verbs; public ValidateAntiForgeryTokenWrapperAttribute(HttpVerbs verbs) : this(verbs, null) { } public ValidateAntiForgeryTokenWrapperAttribute(HttpVerbs verbs, string salt) { this._verbs = new AcceptVerbsAttribute(verbs); this._validator = new ValidateAntiForgeryTokenAttribute() { Salt = salt }; } public void OnAuthorization(AuthorizationContext filterContext) { string httpMethodOverride = filterContext.HttpContext.Request.GetHttpMethodOverride(); if (this._verbs.Verbs.Contains(httpMethodOverride, StringComparer.OrdinalIgnoreCase)) { this._validator.OnAuthorization(filterContext); } } } When this attribute is declared on controller, only HTTP requests with the specified verbs are validated:[ValidateAntiForgeryTokenWrapper(HttpVerbs.Post, Constants.AntiForgeryTokenSalt)] public class SomeController : Controller { // Actions for HTTP GET requests are not affected. // Only HTTP POST requests are validated. } Now one single attribute on controller turns on validation for all HTTP POST actions. Submit token via AJAX Problem For AJAX scenarios, when request is sent by JavaScript instead of form:$.post(url, { productName: "Tofu", categoryId: 1 // Token is not posted. }, callback); This kind of AJAX POST requests will always be invalid, because server side code cannot see the token in the posted data. Solution The token must be printed to browser then submitted back to server. So first of all, HtmlHelper.AntiForgeryToken() must be called in the page where the AJAX POST will be sent. Then jQuery must find the printed token in the page, and post it:$.post(url, { productName: "Tofu", categoryId: 1, __RequestVerificationToken: getToken() // Token is posted. }, callback); To be reusable, this can be encapsulated in a tiny jQuery plugin:(function ($) { $.getAntiForgeryToken = function () { // HtmlHelper.AntiForgeryToken() must be invoked to print the token. return $("input[type='hidden'][name='__RequestVerificationToken']").val(); }; var addToken = function (data) { // Converts data if not already a string. if (data && typeof data !== "string") { data = $.param(data); } data = data ? data + "&" : ""; return data + "__RequestVerificationToken=" + encodeURIComponent($.getAntiForgeryToken()); }; $.postAntiForgery = function (url, data, callback, type) { return $.post(url, addToken(data), callback, type); }; $.ajaxAntiForgery = function (settings) { settings.data = addToken(settings.data); return $.ajax(settings); }; })(jQuery); Then in the application just replace $.post() invocation with $.postAntiForgery(), and replace $.ajax() instead of $.ajaxAntiForgery():$.postAntiForgery(url, { productName: "Tofu", categoryId: 1 }, callback); // Token is posted. This solution looks hard coded and stupid. If you have more elegant solution, please do tell me.

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  • How to limit reverse SSH tunelling ports?

    - by funktku
    We have a public server which accepts SSH connections from multiple clients behind firewalls. Each of these clients create a Reverse SSH tunnel by using the ssh -R command from their web servers at port 80 to our public server. The destination port(at the client side) of the Reverse SSH Tunnel is 80 and the source port(at public server side) depends on the user. We are planning on maintaining a map of port addresses for each user. For example, client A would tunnel their web server at port 80 to our port 8000; client B from 80 to 8001; client C from 80 to 8002. Client A: ssh -R 8000:internal.webserver:80 clienta@publicserver Client B: ssh -R 8001:internal.webserver:80 clientb@publicserver Client C: ssh -R 8002:internal.webserver:80 clientc@publicserver Basically, what we are trying to do is bind each user with a port and not allow them to tunnel to any other ports. If we were using the forward tunneling feature of SSH with ssh -L, we could permit which port to be tunneled by using the permitopen=host:port configuration. However, there is no equivalent for reverse SSH tunnel. Is there a way of restricting reverse tunneling ports per user?

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  • How does a debug build make reverse engineering easy?

    - by danny
    Some answer here stated that debug info would make it easier to reverse engineer the software. When I use Visual C++ and distribute an executable with debugging information but without other files (.pdb), will it contain any interesting things? I looked to the executable with a hex editor and found nothing like symbol names, for now I assume the .exe file just links to information in the .pdb files, right? Do you know whether it contains variable names? function/member names? line numbers? anything interesting? Thanks!

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