Search Results

Search found 24931 results on 998 pages for 'information visualization'.

Page 803/998 | < Previous Page | 799 800 801 802 803 804 805 806 807 808 809 810  | Next Page >

  • Rails 2.3.11 Server Crashing After 4 Requests

    - by Taka
    I have a Rails 2.3.11 application running on my local Windows machine using InstantRails. I cd to my application directory, run ruby script/server to start the server running, and point my browser to localhost:3000. I get the page I expect, and am able to click a few links to other pages (all of them are static). The problem starts when I load the 4th page or so. My server crashes, with this message: Processing HomeController#index (for 127.0.0.1 at 2012-06-23 15:48:40) [GET] Rendering template within layouts/application Rendering home/index Completed in 11ms (View: 9, DB: 1) | 200 OK [http://localhost/index] C:/rails/ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.11/lib/active_support/memoizable.rb:46: [BUG] Segmentation fault ruby 1.8.7 (2012-02-08 patchlevel 358) [i386-mingw32] This application has requested the Runtime to terminate it in an unusual way. Please contact the application's support team for more information. I've uninstalled this gem and reinstalled it, which didn't help. It doesn't seem to be the gem though, because the segmentation fault sometimes occurs in C:/rails/ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/mongrel-1.1.2-x86-mswin32/lib/mongrel.rb:114 or C:/rails/ruby/lib/ruby/1.8/benchmark.rb:306 Versions: >ruby -v ruby 1.8.7 (2012-02-08 patchlevel 358) [i386-mingw32] >rails -v Rails 2.3.11 I'd like to get this fixed so while I'm developing I don't have to keep restarting my server. Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • Persisting Joda DateTime instead of Java Date in hibernate

    - by Tauren
    My entities currently contain java Date properties. I'm starting to use Joda Time for date manipulation and calculations quite frequently. This means that I'm constantly having to convert my Dates into Joda DateTime objects and back again. So I was wondering, is there any reason I shouldn't just change my entities to store Joda DateTime objects instead of Java Date objects? Please note that these entities are persisted via Hibernate. I found the jodatime-hibernate project, but I also was reading on the Joda mailing list that it wasn't compatible with newer versions of hibernate. And it seems like it isn't very well maintained. So I'm wondering if it would be best to just continue converting between Date and DateTime, or if it would be wise to start persisting DateTime objects. My concern is being reliant on a poorly maintained library. Edit: Note that one of my objectives is to be better able to store timezone information. Storing just a Date appears to save the date in the local timezone. As my application can be used globally, I need to know the timezone as well. Joda Time Hibernate seems to address this as well in the user guide.

    Read the article

  • How to transfer objects through the header in WCF

    - by Michael
    I'm trying to transfer some user information in the header of the message through message inspectors. I have created a behavior which adds the inspector to the service (both client and server). But when I try to communicate with the service I get the following error: XmlException: Name cannot begin with the '<' character, hexadecimal value 0x3C. I have also get exception telling me that DataContracts where unexpected. Type 'System.DelegateSerializationHolder+DelegateEntry' with data contract name 'DelegateSerializationHolder.DelegateEntry:http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/System' is not expected. Consider using a DataContractResolver or add any types not known statically to the list of known types - for example, by using the KnownTypeAttribute attribute or by adding them to the list of known types passed to DataContractSerializer. The thing is that my object contains other objects which are marked as DataContract and I'm not interested adding the KnownType attribute for those types. Another problem might be that my object to serialize is very restricted in form of internal class and internal properties etc. Can anyone guide me in the right direction. What I'm I doing wrong? Some code: public virtual object BeforeSendRequest(ref Message request, IClientChannel channel) { var header = MessageHeader.CreateHeader("<name>", "<namespace>", object); request.Headers.Add(header); return Guid.NewGuid(); }

    Read the article

  • Processing a log to fix a malformed IP address ?.?.?.x

    - by skymook
    I would like to replace the first character 'x' with the number '7' on every line of a log file using a shell script. Example of the log file: 216.129.119.x [01/Mar/2010:00:25:20 +0100] "GET /etc/.... 74.131.77.x [01/Mar/2010:00:25:37 +0100] "GET /etc/.... 222.168.17.x [01/Mar/2010:00:27:10 +0100] "GET /etc/.... My humble beginnings... #!/bin/bash echo Starting script... cd /Users/me/logs/ gzip -d /Users/me/logs/access.log.gz echo Files unzipped... echo I'm totally lost here to process the log file and save it back to hd... exit 0 Why is the log file IP malformed like this? My web provider (1and1) has decide not to store IP address, so they have replaced the last number with the character 'x'. They told me it was a new requirement by 'law'. I personally think that is bs, but that would take us off topic. I want to process these log files with AWstats, so I need an IP address that is not malformed. I want to replace the x with a 7, like so: 216.129.119.7 [01/Mar/2010:00:25:20 +0100] "GET /etc/.... 74.131.77.7 [01/Mar/2010:00:25:37 +0100] "GET /etc/.... 222.168.17.7 [01/Mar/2010:00:27:10 +0100] "GET /etc/.... Not perfect I know, but least I can process the files, and I can still gain a lot of useful information like country, number of visitors, etc. The log files are 200MB each, so I thought that a shell script is the way to go because I can do that rapidly on my Macbook Pro locally. Unfortunately, I know very little about shell scripting, and my javascript skills are not going to cut it this time. I appreciate your help.

    Read the article

  • need help passing multiple variables from foreach loop to test in switch case statement

    - by Brad
    $list_of_groups = array("FACULTY","STAFF"); foreach ($list_of_groups as $i => $group) { $user_in_group = $adldap->user_ingroup($username,$group); print "<h2>Group: ".$group." user in group? ".$user_in_group."</h2>"; // if 1, means yes } Need to print run the appropriate function based on what returns true. There are user's that are members of both FACULTY and STAFF groups, so I want to check for those users and display the appropriate content for them. So if the user is both faculty and staff, then display this, if they are only of staff, display that, same for faculty, might not make sense, but I will write out some code "in theory" that will help you understand what I am trying to do switch(Get group membership of user) { case "FACULTY": print "Faculty group member"; break; case "STAFF": print "Staff group member"; break; case "FACULTY and STAFF": print "Member of both faculty and staff"; break; } I am unsure on how it will check if they are members of both groups and run that thru the case statement to display the appropriate message. The foreach look currently runs thru every group the user belongs to, prints out the ones from the $list_of_groups and the number 1 to the right of it, signifying they belong to it. The problem I have is trying to use that information to run thru the case statement, I am unsure of how to go about that. This is what it prints out for the user currently passed thru the foreach loop: Group: FACULTY user in group? 1 Group: STAFF user in group? 1 Any help is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How can I get the Hibernate Configuration object from Spring?

    - by Wayne Russell
    Hi, I am trying to obtain Spring-defined Hibernate Configuration and SessionFactory objects in my non-Spring code. The following is the definition in my applicationContext.xml file: Code: <bean id="sessionFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.LocalSessionFactoryBean"> <property name="hibernateProperties"> <props> <prop key="hibernate.dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.MySQLDialect</prop> <prop key="hibernate.show_sql">true</prop> <prop key="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto">update</prop> <prop key="hibernate.cglib.use_reflection_optimizer">true</prop> <prop key="hibernate.cache.provider_class">org.hibernate.cache.HashtableCacheProvider</prop> </props> </property> <property name="dataSource"> <ref bean="dataSource"/> </property> </bean> If I now call getBean("sessionFactory"), I am returned a $Proxy0 object which appears to be a proxy for the Hibernate SessionFactory object. But that isn't what I want - I need the LocalSessionFactoryBean itself because I need access to the Configuration as well as the SessionFactory. The reason I need the Configuration object is that our framework is able to use Hibernate's dynamic model to automatically insert mappings at runtime; this requires that we change the Configuration and rebuild the SessionFactory. Really, all we're trying to do is obtain the Hibernate config that already exists in Spring so that those of our customers that already have that information in Spring don't need to duplicate it into a hibernate.cfg.xml file in order to use our Hibernate features.

    Read the article

  • .NET load assembly error metabase config

    - by peter
    Hi, Yesterday I found out that the mailroot directory had moved to a different location on the C drive. I don't know how this happened as no configs were changed, using IIS7 with IIS6 SMTP service on Windows 2008 R2 web edition. I wanted to restore it to the default c:\inetpub\mailroot location. So I opened system32/inetsrv/MetaBase.xml, and in the node was the problem, BadMailDirectory, DropDirectory etc were all pointing to the wrong location... I changed them back to the default c:\inetpub\mailroot. Later I discovered an ASP.NET application was throwing this error: An error occurred in the Microsoft .NET Framework while trying to load assembly id 1. The server may be running out of resources, or the assembly may not be trusted with PERMISSION_SET = EXTERNAL_ACCESS or UNSAFE. Run the query again, or check documentation to see how to solve the assembly trust issues. For more information about this error: System.IO.FileNotFoundException: Could not load file or assembly 'microsoft.sqlserver.types, Version=10.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=89845dcd8080cc91' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. I figured it had to do with my changes to the mailroot locations, so I gave ASP.NET access to the mailroot directory and it was working.... My question is, how is this possible? Why does APS.NET require access to the mailroot directory to load assemblies? Thanks

    Read the article

  • BizTalk SMTP Message Part Getting XML Encoding

    - by alram
    I have a email multi-part message which I am using to send failed message routing from the messagebox to a business users mailbox. Email{ Body - RawString; OriginalMessage - string}; The original message gets set from the received message that activates the orchestration. For example assume the original failed message is from a Flat file that failed disassembly with the contents: Order,1,2,3,4,5,<6>, I set the message using: Email.OriginalMessage = MyUtil.XlangMsgToStringMethod(FailedMessage);// XmlDocument type, this can be malformed xml, valid xml, or flat file that fails in disassembler. I can then write to the event log to test whats in Email.OriginalMessage: System.Diagnostics.EventLog.WriteEntry("BizTalk Server 2006", Email.OriginalMessage, Information); // This displays the correct original message "Order, 1,2,3,4,5,<6," When the email is delivered using a SMTP server and a dynamic send port, with the attachment set to text/plain mime type, the original message gets xml encoding escaped and wrapped in xml: <?xml version="1.0"?> <string>Order, 1,2,3,4,5,&lt;6&gt;,</string> Any ideas why? The SMTP port has passthrutransmit as pipeline. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Unable to connect to UNC share with WindowsIdentity.Impersonate, but works fine using LogonUser

    - by Rob
    Hopefully I'm not missing something obvious here, but I have a class that needs to create some directories on a UNC share and then move files to the new directory. When we connect using LogonUser things work fine with no errors, but when we try and use the user indicated by Integrated Windows authentication we run into problems. Here's some working and non-working code to give you an idea what is going on. The following works and logs the requested information: [DllImport("advapi32.dll", SetLastError = true)] private static extern bool LogonUser(string lpszUsername, string lpszDomain, string lpszPassword, int dwLogonType, int dwLogonProvider, out IntPtr phToken); [DllImport("kernel32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto)] private static extern bool CloseHandle(IntPtr handle); IntPtr token; WindowsIdentity wi; if (LogonUser("user", "network", "password", 8, // LOGON32_LOGON_NETWORK_CLEARTEXT 0, // LOGON32_PROVIDER_DEFAULT out token)) { wi = new WindowsIdentity(token); WindowsImpersonationContext wic = wi.Impersonate(); Logging.LogMessage(System.Security.Principal.WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent().Name); Logging.LogMessage(path); DirectoryInfo info = new DirectoryInfo(path); Logging.LogMessage(info.Exists.ToString()); Logging.LogMessage(info.Name); Logging.LogMessage("LastAccessTime:" + info.LastAccessTime.ToString()); Logging.LogMessage("LastWriteTime:" + info.LastWriteTime.ToString()); wic.Undo(); CloseHandle(token); } The following fails and gives an error message indicating the network name is not available, but the correct user name is indicated by GetCurrent().Name: WindowsIdentity identity = (WindowsIdentity)HttpContext.Current.User.Identity; using (identity.Impersonate()) { Logging.LogMessage(System.Security.Principal.WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent().Name); Logging.LogMessage(path); DirectoryInfo info = new DirectoryInfo(path); Logging.LogMessage(info.Exists.ToString()); Logging.LogMessage(info.Name); Logging.LogMessage("LastAccessTime:" + info.LastAccessTime.ToString()); Logging.LogMessage("LastWriteTime:" + info.LastWriteTime.ToString()); }

    Read the article

  • Catching MediaPlayer Exceptions from WPF MediaElement Control

    - by ScottCate
    I'm playing video in a MediaElement in WPF. It's working 1000's of times, over and over again. Once in a blue moon (like once a week), I get a windows exception (you know the dialog Dr. Watson Crash??) that happens. The MediaElment doesn't expose an error, it just crashes and sits there with an ugly Crash report on the screen. If you "view this report" you can see it is in fact MediaPlayer that has crashed. I know I can disable the crash reports from popping up - but I'm more interested in finding out what's going wrong. I'm not sure how to capture the results of the Dr. Watson capture, but I have the dialog open now if someone has advice on a better way to capture. Here is the opening line of data, that points to my application, then to wmvdecod.dll AppName: ScottApp.exe AppVer: 2.2009.2291.805 AppStamp:4a36c812 ModName: wmvdecod.dll ModVer: 11.0.5721.5145 ModStamp:453711a3 fDebug: 0 Offset: 000cbc88 And from the Win Event Log. (same information) Event Type: Error Event Source: .NET Runtime 2.0 Error Reporting Event Category: None Event ID: 1000 Date: 7/13/2009 Time: 10:20:27 AM User: N/A Computer:28022 Description: Faulting application ScottApp.exe, version 2.2009.2291.805, stamp 4a36c812, faulting module wmvdecod.dll, version 11.0.5721.5145, stamp 453711a3, debug? 0, fault address 0x000cbc88.

    Read the article

  • Automatically resize jQuery UI dialog to the width of the content loaded by ajax

    - by womp
    I'm having a lot of trouble finding specific information and examples on this. I've got a number of jQuery UI dialogs in my application attached to divs that are loaded with .ajax() calls. They all use the same setup call: $(".mydialog").dialog({ autoOpen: false, resizable: false, modal: true }); I just want to have the dialog resize to the width of the content that gets loaded. Right now, the width just stays at 300px (the default) and I get a horizontal scrollbar. As far as I can tell, "autoResize" is no longer an option for dialogs, and nothing happens when I specify it. I'm trying to not write a separate function for each dialog, so .dialog("option", "width", "500") is not really an option, as each dialog is going to have a different width. Specifying width: 'auto' for the dialog options just makes the dialogs take up 100% of the width of the browser window. What are my options? I'm using jQuery 1.4.1 with jQuery UI 1.8rc1. It seems like this should be something that is really easy. EDIT: I've implemented a kludgy workaround for this, but I'm still looking for a better solution.

    Read the article

  • Linking session state between servlets and EJBs?

    - by wilth
    Hello, I have servlets (in a web module) that access stateless EJB beans (in an EJB module). The EJB module is built using SEAM. Users can have different roles and the EJB services check this using Seam's Identity. I also use a customized Authenticator (although this might not be relevant here). I noticed problems with this approach and I'm suspecting that the session context in the servlets is not "linked" with the session context in the EJB beans. What I think happens is something like: User Joe access servlet A and is assigned Session W1. Servlet A calls a login function on an EJB, using the EJB session E1. Later, user Mary accesses servlet A and is assigned Session W2. When calling the EJBs, however, the EJB session E1 is used and therefore Mary is authenticated as Joe. What also happens is that when Joe is calling the servlet twice in rapid succession, the same session W1 is used, but two different sessions E1 and E2 in the business layer, causing errors. I might be wrong in my suspicion, but maybe I'm actually expecting these "sessions" to be linked together while they in fact are not. If this is true, is there any way of achieving this? I could - of course - use stateful beans and save the authentication information in the beans, but this would break the "Identity" concept of Seam (and in general, it would be preferable to be able to use the Session context in my EJB beans). Any help and pointers are very welcome - thanks! Technology: EJB3, Seam 2.1.2. The servlets are actually the server-side of a GWT app, although I don't think this matters much. I'm using JBoss 5.

    Read the article

  • How to integrate a Ipython console in a PyQT application

    - by user1800689
    I am developing PyQt software for my lab. In this software, I am loading different kind of RAW and analyzed data from a mySQL database (usually in arrays). I would like to integrate an Iython console in a Widget, so that I could interact easily with these data. I had some difficulties with Ipython 0.13 to do this. Here is what I already have (The whole code is very long, so I just show the part containing the widget, the Ipython console and the corresponding import line, if you need more, just tell me): ##I load everything useful to my application, including the following line from IPython.frontend.qt.console.qtconsoleapp import IPythonQtConsoleApp ##then is my whole software ##here is a class containing the Graphical User Interface elements. A button call the following function. self.Shell_Widget is the widget containing the Ipython console, self.MainWindow is the application mainwindow def EmbeddedIpython(self): """ This function should launch an Ipython console """ self.Shell_Widget = QtGui.QDockWidget(self.MainWindow) #Widget creation self.MainWindow.addDockWidget(4,self.Shell_Widget) self.Shell_Widget.setMinimumSize(400,420) console = IPythonQtConsoleApp() #Console Creation console.initialize() console.start() self.Shell_Widget.show() So, as wanted, an Ipython console is launched, and seems to work, but I can not access the whole application variables ,arrays etc... I think the Ipython console is launched independently from my software, but here is my limit in programming... Does someone know how to launch Ipython within my application? Maybe a missing parameter, or a different way to integrate Ipython. for information, this doesn't work: Embedding IPython Qt console in a PyQt application Thank you for your help!!

    Read the article

  • How do I get uri of HTTP packet with winpcap?

    - by Gtker
    Based on this article I can get all incoming packets. /* Callback function invoked by libpcap for every incoming packet */ void packet_handler(u_char *param, const struct pcap_pkthdr *header, const u_char *pkt_data) { struct tm *ltime; char timestr[16]; ip_header *ih; udp_header *uh; u_int ip_len; u_short sport,dport; time_t local_tv_sec; /* convert the timestamp to readable format */ local_tv_sec = header->ts.tv_sec; ltime=localtime(&local_tv_sec); strftime( timestr, sizeof timestr, "%H:%M:%S", ltime); /* print timestamp and length of the packet */ printf("%s.%.6d len:%d ", timestr, header->ts.tv_usec, header->len); /* retireve the position of the ip header */ ih = (ip_header *) (pkt_data + 14); //length of ethernet header /* retireve the position of the udp header */ ip_len = (ih->ver_ihl & 0xf) * 4; uh = (udp_header *) ((u_char*)ih + ip_len); /* convert from network byte order to host byte order */ sport = ntohs( uh->sport ); dport = ntohs( uh->dport ); /* print ip addresses and udp ports */ printf("%d.%d.%d.%d.%d -> %d.%d.%d.%d.%d\n", ih->saddr.byte1, ih->saddr.byte2, ih->saddr.byte3, ih->saddr.byte4, sport, ih->daddr.byte1, ih->daddr.byte2, ih->daddr.byte3, ih->daddr.byte4, dport); } But how do I extract URI information in packet_handler?

    Read the article

  • MS-Access: What could cause one form with a join query to load right and another not?

    - by Daniel Straight
    Form1 Form1 is bound to Table1. Table1 has an ID field. Form2 Form2 is bound to Table2 joined to Table1 on Table2.Table1_ID=Table1.ID Here is the SQL (generated by Access): SELECT Table2.*, Table1.[FirstFieldINeed], Table1.[SecondFieldINeed], Table1.[ThirdFieldINeed] FROM Table1 INNER JOIN Table2 ON Table1.ID = Table2.[Table1_ID]; Form2 is opened with this code in Form1: DoCmd.RunCommand acCmdSaveRecord DoCmd.OpenForm "Form2", , , , acFormAdd, , Me.[ID] DoCmd.Close acForm, "Form1", acSaveYes And when loaded runs: Me.[Table1_ID] = Me.OpenArgs When Form2 is loaded, fields bound to columns from Table1 show up correctly. Form3 Form3 is bound to Table3 joined to Table2 on Table3.Table2_ID=Table2.ID Here is the SQL (generated by Access): SELECT Table3.*, Table2.[FirstFieldINeed], Table2.[SecondFieldINeed] FROM Table2 INNER JOIN Table3 ON Table2.ID = Table3.[Table2_ID]; Form3 is opened with this code in Form2: DoCmd.RunCommand acCmdSaveRecord DoCmd.OpenForm "Form3", , , , acFormAdd, , Me.[ID] DoCmd.Close acForm, "Form2", acSaveYes And when loaded runs: Me.[Table2_ID] = Me.OpenArgs When Form3 is loaded, fields bound to columns from Table2 do not show up correctly. WHY? UPDATES I tried making the join query into a separate query and using that as my record source, but it made no difference at all. If I go to the query for Form3 and view it in datasheet view, I can see that the information that should be pulled into the form is there. It just isn't showing up on the form.

    Read the article

  • Accessing deleted rows from a DataTable

    - by Ken
    Hello: I have a parent WinForm that has a MyDataTable _dt as a member. The MyDataTable type was created in the "typed dataset" designer tool in Visual Studio 2005 (MyDataTable inherits from DataTable) _dt gets populated from a db via ADO.NET. Based on changes from user interaction in the form, I delete a row from the table like so: _dt.FindBySomeKey(_someKey).Delete(); Later on, _dt is passed by value to a dialog form. From there, I need to scan through all the rows to build a string: foreach (myDataTableRow row in _dt) { sbFilter.Append("'" + row.info + "',"); } The problem is that upon doing this after a delete, the following exception is thrown: DeletedRowInaccessibleException: Deleted row information cannot be accessed through the row. The work around that I am currently using (which feels like a hack) is the following: foreach (myDataTableRow row in _dt) { if (row.RowState != DataRowState.Deleted && row.RowState != DataRowState.Detached) { sbFilter.Append("'" + row.info + "',"); } } My question: Is this the proper way to do this? Why would the foreach loop access rows that have been tagged via the Delete() method??

    Read the article

  • Normalizing (webdav) unicode paths

    - by Evert
    Hi guys, I'm working on a WebDAV implementation for PHP. In order to make it easier for Windows and other operating systems to work together, I need jump through some character encoding hoops. Windows uses ISO-8859-1 in it's HTTP request, while most other clients encode anything beyond ascii as UTF-8. My first approach was to ignore this altogether, but I quickly ran into issues when returning urls. I then figured it's probably best to normalize all urls. Using u¨ as an example. This will get sent over the wire by OS/X as u%CC%88 (this is codepoint U+0308) Windows sents this as: %FC (latin1) But, doing a utf8_encode on %FC, I get : %C3%BC (this is codepoint U+00FC) Should I treat %C3%BC and u%CC%88 as the same thing? If so.. how? Not touching it seems to work OK for windows. It somehow understands that it's a unicode character, but updating the same file throws an error (for no particular reason). I'd be happy to provide more information.

    Read the article

  • Figuring out the Nyquist performance limitation of an ADC on an example PIC microcontroller

    - by AKE
    I'm spec-ing the suitability of a dsPIC microcontroller for an analog-to-digital application. This would be preferable to using dedicated A/D chips and a separate dedicated DSP chip. To do that, I've had to run through some computations, pulling the relevant parameters from the datasheets. I'm not sure I've got it right -- would appreciate a check! (EDITED NOTE: The PIC10F220 in the example below was selected ONLY to walk through a simple example to check that I'm interpreting Tacq, Fosc, TAD, and divisor correctly in working through this sort of Nyquist analysis. The actual chips I'm considering for the design are the dsPIC33FJ128MC804 (with 16b A/D) or dsPIC30F3014 (with 12b A/D).) A simple example: PIC10F220 is the simplest possible PIC with an ADC Runs at clock speed of 8MHz. Has an instruction cycle of 0.5us (4 clock steps per instruction) So: Taking Tacq = 6.06 us (acquisition time for ADC, assume chip temp. = 50*C) [datasheet p34] Taking Fosc = 8MHz (? clock speed) Taking divisor = 4 (4 clock steps per CPU instruction) This gives TAD = 0.5us (TAD = 1/(Fosc/divisor) ) Conversion time is 13*TAD [datasheet p31] This gives conversion time 6.5us ADC duration is then 12.56 us [? Tacq + 13*TAD] Assuming at least 2 instructions for load/store: This is another 1 us [0.5 us per instruction] Which would give max sampling rate of 73.7 ksps (1/13.56) Supposing 8 more instructions for real-time processing: This is another 4 us Thus, total ADC/handling time = 17.56us (12.56us + 1us + 4us) So expected upper sampling rate is 56.9 ksps. Nyquist frequency for this sampling rate is therefore 28 kHz. If this is right, it suggests the (theoretical) performance suitability of this chip's A/D is for signals that are bandlimited to 28 kHz. Is this a correct interpretation of the information given in the data sheet in obtaining the Nyquist performance limit? Any opinions on the noise susceptibility of ADCs in PIC / dsPIC chips would be much appreciated! AKE

    Read the article

  • Spring - SessionAttribute problem

    - by Max
    Hello, I want to implement something like this: @Controller @SessionAttributes("promotion") class PromotionController { @RequestMapping("showPromo") void showPromotionInfo( @RequestParam("promId") String promotionId, @ModelAttribute Promotion promotion, Errors errors ) { promotion = Promotions.get(promotionId); if (promotion == null || promotion.validates() == false) { errors.reject("promotion.invalid"); } return "prom"; } } The code is invalid, wont work and has some bad errors, but I don't know how to write it better. When user comes to an URL "showPromo?promId=15", controller should validate if the promotion is valid (outdated/non-existent/etc.). If it is valid - it should show it's information and save the promotion to model and session. If it's not - it should show some error about promotion being invalid. Problem is, I need to save the promotion in the session (for several requests) and don't want to use direct session management. Is it currently possible with Spring? Or am I doing something wrong? Could you please provide the optimal solution to my problem using Spring 3? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Log4net Logging Problem : Very simple file appender logging not working

    - by contactmatt
    Here's my web.config information <configSections> <section name="log4net" type="log4net.Config.Log4NetConfigurationSectionHandler, log4net"/> </configSections> <log4net> <root> <level value="ALL" /> </root> <appender name="RollingFileAppender" type="log4net.Appender.RollingFileAppender"> <file value="c:\temp\log-file.txt" /> <appendToFile value="true" /> <rollingStyle value="Size" /> <maxSizeRollBackups value="10" /> <maximumFileSize value="1MB" /> <staticLogFileName value="true" /> <layout type="log4net.Layout.SimpleLayout" /> </appender> </log4net> ... Here's the code that initalizes the logger protected void SendMessage() { log4net.Config.XmlConfigurator.Configure(); ILog log = LogManager.GetLogger(typeof(Contact)); ... log.Info("here we go!"); log.Debug("debug afasf"); ... } it doesn't work, no matter what I seem to do. I am referencing the 'log4net.dll' correctly, and by debugging the application i can see that the log object is getting initiated properly. This is a asp.net 3.5 framework web project. Any ideas/suggestions? I thought originally this error may be due to a file write permission constraint, but that doesn't seem to be the case (or so I think).

    Read the article

  • asp.Net 2005 "Could not load type"

    - by Melody Friedenthal
    Although I have seen dozens of forum questions relating to "Could not load type", none of the advice in them seemed to apply to my situation. I wrote a new web application using aspx.net VB 2005. It is tiny, with just 2 pages, 1 of which has no code-behind. It runs aok in the IDE but when I installed it on my pc (and also when installed on the production server), and tried to run it this error came up: Parser Error Description: An error occurred during the parsing of a resource required to service this request. Please review the following specific parse error details and modify your source file appropriately. Parser Error Message: Could not load type 'EMTTrainingDatabase.pageMain'. Source Error: Line 1: <%@ Page Language="vb" AutoEventWireup="false" CodeBehind="pageMain.aspx.vb" Inherits="EMTTrainingDatabase.pageMain" %> Line 2: Line 3: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> Source File: /EMTTrainingDatabase/pageMain.aspx Line: 1 -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:2.0.50727.3603; ASP.NET Version:2.0.50727.3082 I checked the web site properties in IIS and the correct ASP.net version is specified: 2.0.50727. I checked the virtual path and it looks correct too: /EMTTrainingDatabase pageMain source code header looks like: <%@ Page Language="vb" AutoEventWireup="false" CodeBehind="pageMain.aspx.vb" Inherits="EMTTrainingDatabase.pageMain" %> Some posters suggest that the bin is in the wrong folder or the bin doesn't contain the rigt contents. I don't have enough knowledge to evaulate this. Can someone help? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • How do I change an attribute in an HTML table's cell if I know the row and column index of the cell?

    - by Mark
    I know nothing about jQuery but am an experienced C++ programmer (not sure if that helps or hurts). I found jQuery code that gives me the row and column index of a cell in an HTML table when a user clicks on that cell. Using such row-column index numbers, I need to change an attribute's value in the previously selected cell and in the cell just clicked. The index numbers are produced and saved with this code: var $trCurrent = 0; // Index of cell selected when page opens var $tdCurrent = 0; // i.e., previously selected cell $(document).ready(function () { $("td").click(function () { // How toclear previously selected cell's attribute here? ('class', 'recent') var oTr = $(this).parents("tr"); $tdCurrent = oTr.children("td").index(this); }); $("tr").click(function () { $trCurrent = $(this)[0].rowIndex; // How to set new attributes here? ('class', 'current'); // and continue work using information from currently selected cell }); }); Any help or hints would be appreciated. I do not even know if this is the way I should get the index of the row and column. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Fork or copy a users browser session in IE

    - by jmoeller
    Is it possible to fork a users session (or do something similar) in a Internet Explorer plugin? I want to process the page the user is on when they click a button in the toolbar. To avoid interrupting the users browsing, I'd like to "copy" everything so I can parse and process the page in the background. The processing can involve things such as loading the content of the result links on a Google search, if that's where the button was clicked. So - what I basically want is to imitate "Ctrl+N" but hide the window from the user, so they won't be interrupted. As you can see, if you fill out and submit the form on http://www.snee.com/xml/crud/posttest.html and press "Ctrl+N", everything posted will still appear in the new window, but it won't post the data twice. I was thinking of somehow copying the IWebBrowser2, but: I'm not sure if that's possible (I haven't been able to find any information on MSDN) I don't know if it copies the sessions as well. Creating a new instance of the IWebBrowser2 and simply navigating to the current URL isn't a valid solution as POST-variables of course doesn't get carried over.

    Read the article

  • MSN Messenger API

    - by MarceloRamires
    back when I was not working with programming (using skills from courses and school) I started developing a simple program that is supposed to get the Artwork of the album to which the song you're currently listening in iTunes to and set it as you Display Picture in MSN Messenger (everything had to be open at the same time). I was so excited about it, made it as nicely as I could back then (now I consider it a design and usability complete fail), and it surprisingly worked. Now, a couple of versions ahead (MSN from 8.5 to 9.0, iTunes from 8 to 9, and windows from Vista to 7) I am getting some incompatibility issues. Where I work, I use Windows 7, Windows Live Messenger 2009 and iTunes 9 - it works just just like before, but at home I have the same exact setup, but something weird happens: When I open the program (having my itunes AND msn open) it doesn't use the active MSN instance, instead it opens a new one, and doesn't work even on this opened one. I've tried it with a couple of libraries: Interop.Messenger.dll - workis like described above Interop.MessengerAPI.dll - works like described above Interop.MessengerPrivate.dll - never worked MSNMessenger.dll - the one I used before - doesn't work anymore at all What could I do ? Info: Visual Studio 2008, .NET 3.5, C#, WinForms application. I'll watch this question and add any information if requested

    Read the article

  • Magento - Authorize.net - Get Payment Update for expired transactions

    - by pspahn
    Magento 1.6.1 I have set up Authorize.net (AIM) for the client's store. Previously they were using saved CC method and entering information manually in Authorize.net's merchant terminal. Most of it is working as expected, however for transactions that are flagged as 'Suspected Fraud' by Authorize.net, if the client does not update the transaction manually before the authorization expires, using 'Get Payment Update' in Magento fails because the transaction is expired (I believe it's five days for an authorize only transaction). For the client, it seems the only way to update this order in Magento is to simply delete the order, as it doesn't appear the Paygate model knows about expired transactions. Performing 'Get Payment Update' simply returns 'There is no update for this payment'. I have already modified the file: /app/code/core/Mage/Paygate/Model/Authorize.net to have the correct API URL as described in issue #27117 ( http://www.magentocommerce.com/bug-tracking/issue?issue=12991 - must be logged in to view ). This resolved the button not working for all other orders; however this does not fix the issue I am describing. Is anyone familiar with Authorize.net's AIM API so that we can update these orders in Magento to something that makes sense (canceled, etc.) without having to delete the order? I am thinking it should be a case of adding a new order status to Magento, checking the update for an 'Expired' status, and setting the order to the newly created order status. -- edit -- I just ran a diff for the file mentioned above and noticed that Magento 1.7.0.2 includes the _isTransactionExpired() method which seems like it would be the fix. Can it be as simple as updating this model with the newer version?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 799 800 801 802 803 804 805 806 807 808 809 810  | Next Page >