Search Results

Search found 23890 results on 956 pages for 'issue'.

Page 803/956 | < Previous Page | 799 800 801 802 803 804 805 806 807 808 809 810  | Next Page >

  • jQueryUI Modal confirmation dialog on form submission

    - by DavidYell
    I am trying to get a modal confirmation dialog working when a user submits a form. My approach, I thought logically, would be to catch the form submission. My code is as follows, $('#multi-dialog-confirm').dialog({ autoOpen: false, height: 200, modal: true, resizable: false, buttons: { 'Confirm': function(){ //$(this).dialog('close'); return true; }, 'Cancel': function(){ $(this).dialog('close'); return false; } } }); $('#completeform').submit(function(e){ e.preventDefault(); var n = $('#completeform input:checked').length; if(n == 0){ alert("Please check the item and mark as complete"); return false; }else{ var q = $('#completeform #qty').html(); if(q > 1){ $('#multi-dialog-confirm').dialog('open'); } } //return false; }); So I'm setting up my dialog first. This is because I'm pretty certain that the scope of the dialog needs to be at the same level as the function which calls it. However, the issue is that when you click 'Confirm' nothing happens. The submit action does not continue. I've tried $('#completeform').submit(); also, which doesn't seem to work. I have tried removing the .preventDefault() to ensure that the form submission isn't completely cancelled, but it doesn't seem to make a difference between that and returning false. Not checking the box, show and alert fine. Might change to dialog at some point ;), clicking 'Cancel' closes the dialog and remains on the page, but the elusive 'Confirm' buttons seems to not continue with the form submission event. If anyone can help, I'd happily share my lunch with you! ;)

    Read the article

  • can javascript process binary data?

    - by Johnny
    admit me describe my questions in situation-oriented way: assume IE is still the dominate web browser(the firefox have document for binary processing): the XMLHttpRequest.responseText or XMLHttpRequest.responseXML in ie desire txt or xml/xhtml/html,but what about the server response the xmlHttprequest whith MIME TYPE application/octet ? would the response string all little than 256 ?(every char of that string < 256), thanks very much for a straight answer, i have no webserver env,so i don't know how to test it out. because use txt or xml have a issue of character set encode, and i don't know how to process #[[[CDDATA node of one encoded xml(ex : utf-8,ascii,gb18030) with javascript, when i getNodeText, does the docObj return me byte or decoded char ? if it was decoded char which according to the header indicated charSet in the httpresponse , it would be all wrong. to avoid mess up with charSet ,i would like the server to response octet data and force strings data to be encoded as utf-8 but another charSet in the binary format. if the response is octal, so i guess the browser would not try to decode the response"txt" does this weird? or miss understanding the fundamental things? EDIT: I believe the question is asking this: Can Javascript safely process strings that aren't encoded in Unicode? What are the problems with trying to do so? EDIT: no no no , i means if http-header: content-type is "application/octet" , would the ie try to decoded it as (16bits Unicode | ie local setting charset ) when i get XMLHttpRequestobj.responseText use javascript ? or it(ie) just wrap every single byte of the response body as a javascript string, then every char in that string little than or equal 256 (char<=256), am i talking Mars language? sadly, if i were Marsizen,i would come as tourist without fuzzy questions. however i am in a country which share at least one property with Mars : RED

    Read the article

  • How can I release this NSXMLParser without crashing my app?

    - by prendio2
    Below is the @interface for an MREntitiesConverter object I use to strip all html tags from a string using an NSXMLParser. @interface MREntitiesConverter : NSObject { NSMutableString* resultString; NSString* xmlStr; NSData *data; NSXMLParser* xmlParser; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableString* resultString; - (NSString*)convertEntitiesInString:(NSString*)s; @end And this is the implementation: @implementation MREntitiesConverter @synthesize resultString; - (id)init { if([super init]) { self.resultString = [NSMutableString string]; } return self; } - (NSString*)convertEntitiesInString:(NSString*)s { xmlStr = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"<data>%@</data>", s]; data = [xmlStr dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding allowLossyConversion:YES]; xmlParser = [[NSXMLParser alloc] initWithData:data]; [xmlParser setDelegate:self]; [xmlParser parse]; return [resultString autorelease]; } - (void)dealloc { [data release]; //I want to release xmlParser here but it crashes the app [super dealloc]; } - (void)parser:(NSXMLParser *)parser foundCharacters:(NSString *)s { [self.resultString appendString:s]; } @end If I release xmlParser in the dealloc method I am crashing my app but without releasing I am quite obviously leaking memory. I am new to Instruments and trying to get the hang of optimising this app. Any help you can offer on this particular issue will likely help me solve other memory issues in my app. Yours in frustrated anticipation: ) Oisin

    Read the article

  • Inserting javascript with jQuery .html

    - by Andrew Appleby
    I'm experiencing an issue with a website I'm working on, where I originally believed I could simply replace $("main").html('THIS') which was originally code for a flash object, with a new and improved HTML5/Javascript version. The original code: $("#main").html('<div style="height: 100%; width: 100%; overflow: hidden;"><object width="100%" height="100%" codebase="http://fpdownload.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=8,0,0,0" classid="clsid:d27cdb6e-ae6d-11cf-96b8-444553540000">\ <param value="images/uploads/'+image_id+'.swf" name="movie">\ <param value="true" name="allowFullScreen">\ <param value="#737373" name="bgcolor">\ <param value="" name="FlashVars">\ <embed width="100%" height="100%" flashvars="" bgcolor="#737373" allowfullscreen="true" src="images/uploads/'+image_id+'.swf" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" pluginspage="http://www.macromedia.com/go/getflashplayer">\ </object></div>\ '); }); And my (failed) attempt at inserting my new code: $("#main").html('<script type="text/javascript">pano=new pano2vrPlayer("container");skin=new pano2vrSkin(pano);pano.readConfigUrl("xml/tablet_'+image_id+'.xml");hideUrlBar();</script>'); It doesn't even work when I just put , so I know it's gotta be the javascript itself. I've looked at the solutions out there, but I can't make sense in how to properly implement them here in the most efficient way. Your help is much appreciated, thanks!

    Read the article

  • Performance of VIEW vs. SQL statement

    - by Matt W.
    I have a query that goes something like the following: select <field list> from <table list> where <join conditions> and <condition list> and PrimaryKey in (select PrimaryKey from <table list> where <join list> and <condition list>) and PrimaryKey not in (select PrimaryKey from <table list> where <join list> and <condition list>) The sub-select queries both have multiple sub-select queries of their own that I'm not showing so as not to clutter the statement. One of the developers on my team thinks a view would be better. I disagree in that the SQL statement uses variables passed in by the program (based on the user's login Id). Are there any hard and fast rules on when a view should be used vs. using a SQL statement? What kind of performance gain issues are there in running SQL statements on their own against regular tables vs. against views. (Note that all the joins / where conditions are against indexed columns, so that shouldn't be an issue.) EDIT for clarification... Here's the query I'm working with: select obj_id from object where obj_id in( (select distinct(sec_id) from security where sec_type_id = 494 and ( (sec_usergroup_id = 3278 and sec_usergroup_type_id = 230) or (sec_usergroup_id in (select ug_gi_id from user_group where ug_ui_id = 3278) and sec_usergroup_type_id = 231) ) and sec_obj_id in ( select obj_id from object where obj_ot_id in (select of_ot_id from obj_form left outer join obj_type on ot_id = of_ot_id where ot_app_id = 87 and of_id in (select sec_obj_id from security where sec_type_id = 493 and ( (sec_usergroup_id = 3278 and sec_usergroup_type_id = 230) or (sec_usergroup_id in (select ug_gi_id from user_group where ug_ui_id = 3278) and sec_usergroup_type_id = 231) ) ) and of_usage_type_id = 131 ) ) ) ) or (obj_ot_id in (select of_ot_id from obj_form left outer join obj_type on ot_id = of_ot_id where ot_app_id = 87 and of_id in (select sec_obj_id from security where sec_type_id = 493 and ( (sec_usergroup_id = 3278 and sec_usergroup_type_id = 230) or (sec_usergroup_id in (select ug_gi_id from user_group where ug_ui_id = 3278) and sec_usergroup_type_id = 231) ) ) and of_usage_type_id = 131 ) and obj_id not in (select sec_obj_id from security where sec_type_id = 494) )

    Read the article

  • Custom Silverlight Splash Screen causes White Screen of Death

    - by wickster05
    I'm developing a Silverlight 4 application and I've created a custom splash screen. At first glance, the custom splash screen worked well - really well. After a few days I started noticing that the splash screen would no longer show and the screen would remain blank. This seems to only occur when I open multiple IE tabs/windows all pointing to this same application. The first few will load fine, while the following tabs/windows will remain "white" - as if nothing has/is loaded. This doesn't appear to be an issue with other browsers that I've tested with (i.e., Firefox and Chrome). Unfortunately, this product requires multiple screens to be open (and I'm not going to require our users to use a non-Microsoft internet browser). Furthermore, we have another product that hosts this Silverlight application inside a WPF WebBrowser control (which is similar to IE - and experiences the same issues as delineated above). Does anyone have any ideas on how to get around this? This is becoming increasingly frustrating. I should also point out, that the default splash screen seems to avoid these issues. When I remove the custom splash screen, we no longer see these problems. ANY help would be appreciated greatly! -Tom

    Read the article

  • adding Json to mutable array resolves in crash

    - by user2957713
    Hello guys I am new to Xcode/iOS developing I trying to add json data to the mutable array , and it results in app crash :( so far here is my code: if(! [defaults objectForKey:@"Person1"]) [defaults setObject:[PersonsFromSearch objectAtIndex:index] forKey:@"Person1"]; else { NSMutableArray *Array = [[NSMutableArray alloc]init]; id object = [defaults objectForKey:@"Person1"]; Array = [object isKindOfClass:[NSArray class]] ? object : @[object]; [Array addObject:[PersonsFromSearch objectAtIndex:index]];//crash here :(( [Array moveObjectFromIndex:[Array count] toIndex:0]; } Crash Dump: * Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '-[__NSCFDictionary addObject:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0xbf98dc0' what is wrong here ? can you please help me to resolve this issue Array contains this (Json?) { Address = "\U05d3\U05e8\U05da \U05d4\U05e9\U05dc\U05d5\U05dd 53"; CellPhone = "052-3275381"; EMail = "[email protected]"; EnglishPerson = "Yehuda Konfortes"; FaceBookLink = ""; Fax1 = "03-7330703"; Fax2 = ""; FileNAme = "100050.jpg"; HomeEMail = ""; HomeFax = ""; HomePhone1 = ""; HomePhone2 = ""; PersonID = 100050; PersonName = "\U05d9\U05d4\U05d5\U05d3\U05d4 \U05e7\U05d5\U05e0\U05e4\U05d5\U05e8\U05d8\U05e1"; Phone1 = "03-7330733"; Phone2 = ""; ZipCode = ""; }

    Read the article

  • Oracle ODBC x64 - getting 0 when selecting a number(9) column

    - by MatsL
    I'm having a really weird problem with a third party web service that uses an ODBC connection to Oracle 10.2.0.3.0. I've written a .NET client that generates the same SQL as the web service so I can find out what's going on. The web service is hosted by IIS 6 that's in x64 mode so we use Oracle x64 client. The oracle client version is 10.2.0.1.0. I have a table that looks like this (I've removed some columns and names): SQL> describe tablename; Name Null? Type ----------------------------------------- -------- ---------------------------- KOD VARCHAR2(30) ORDNING NUMBER(5) AVGIFT NUMBER(9) I then in SQL*Plus issue the following statement: SELECT KOD as kod, AVGIFT as riskPoang FROM tablename Where upper(KODTYP) = 'OBJLIVSV_RISKVERKSAMTYP' ORDER BY ORDNING And I get the following result: KOD RISKPOANG ------------------------------ ---------- Hög risk 55 Mellan risk 35 Låg risk 15 Mycket låg risk 5 But when I execute the exact same SQL using the same DSN on the same machine I get this: Values Kod: Hög risk RiskPoäng: 0 Kod: Mellan risk RiskPoäng: 0 Kod: Låg risk RiskPoäng: 0 Kod: Mycket låg risk RiskPoäng: 0 If I first cast the number to varchar and then back again to number, like this: SELECT KOD as kod, to_number(to_char(AVGIFT, '99'), '9999999999') as riskPoang FROM tablename Where upper(KODTYP) = 'OBJLIVSV_RISKVERKSAMTYP' ORDER BY ORDNING I get the correct result: Values Kod: Hög risk RiskPoäng: 55 Kod: Mellan risk RiskPoäng: 35 Kod: Låg risk RiskPoäng: 15 Kod: Mycket låg risk RiskPoäng: 5 Has anyone else experiences this? It's incredibly annoying and I'm completely stuck and not sure what to do next. We have a third party web service that use these tables so I must get the original SQL-statement to work since I can't modify its code. And pointers are greatly appreciated! :-) Best regards, Mats

    Read the article

  • Concatenating a string and byte array in to unmanaged memory.

    - by Scott Chamberlain
    This is a followup to my last question. I now have a byte[] of values for my bitmap image. Eventually I will be passing a string to the print spooler of the format String.Format("GW{0},{1},{2},{3},", X, Y, stride, _Bitmap.Height) + my binary data; I am using the SendBytesToPrinter command from here. Here is my code so far to send it to the printer public static bool SendStringPlusByteBlockToPrinter(string szPrinterName, string szString, byte[] bytes) { IntPtr pBytes; Int32 dwCount; // How many characters are in the string? dwCount = szString.Length; // Assume that the printer is expecting ANSI text, and then convert // the string to ANSI text. pBytes = Marshal.StringToCoTaskMemAnsi(szString); pBytes = Marshal.ReAllocCoTaskMem(pBytes, szString.Length + bytes.Length); Marshal.Copy(bytes,0, SOMTHING GOES HERE,bytes.Length); // this is the problem line // Send the converted ANSI string + the concatenated bytes to the printer. SendBytesToPrinter(szPrinterName, pBytes, dwCount); Marshal.FreeCoTaskMem(pBytes); return true; } My issue is I do not know how to make my data appended on to the end of the string. Any help would be greatly appreciated, and if I am doing this totally wrong I am fine in going a entirely different way (for example somehow getting the binary data concatenated on to the string before the move to unmanaged space. P.S. As a second question, will ReAllocCoTaskMem move the data that is sitting in it before the call to the new location?

    Read the article

  • Looping and pausing after loading ajax content in Javascript JQuery

    - by Tristan
    I have what I though was a simple problem to solve (never is!) I'm trying to loop through a list of URL's in a javascript array I have made, load the first one, wait X seconds, then load the second, and continue until I start again. I got the array and looping working, trouble is, however I try and implement a "wait" using setInterval or similar, I have a structural issue, as the loop continues in the background. I tried to code it like this: $(document).ready(function(){ // my array of URL's var urlArray = new Array(); urlArray[0] = "urlOne"; urlArray[1] = "urlTwo"; urlArray[2] = "urlThree"; // my looping logic that continues to execute (problem starts here) while (true) { for (var i = 0; i < urlArray.length; i++) { $('#load').load(urlArray[i], function(){ // now ideally I want it to wait here for X seconds after loading that URL and then start the loop again, but javascript doesn't seem to work this way, and I'm not sure how to structure it to get the same effect }); } } });

    Read the article

  • How can I get vim to draw lines correctly for remote editing?

    - by Rick Reynolds
    I'm attempting to edit files on a remote system. I've ssh'd to the system and I start editing with vim. However, I notice that all the lines are drawing 2 lines above where they really exist in the file. I assumed this was a problem I could fix by dropping my terminal settings to something simpler, but that didn't help. My TERM variable was set to xterm-color. I set it to vt100, but that didn't fix the line drawing issue. I also noticed that this seems to be specific to vim. emacs doesn't show the problem, and I haven't noticed any odd drawing artifacts in less, more or other paging tools. Other specifics: I'm ssh-ing into the remote system from a Mac, using the Terminal.app. The remote system is running Ubuntu 9.04. I'm hoping there is something I just need to set in vim to get it to play nice. If it allows me to keep syntax color highlighting, so much the better.

    Read the article

  • Possible to capture all events in a web browser?

    - by David
    I am working on a pet project and am at the research stage. Quick summary I am trying to intercept all form submits, onclick, and every single keydown. My library of choice is either jquery, or jquery + prototypejs. I figure I can batch up the events into a queue/stack and send it back to the server in time interval batches to keep performance relatively stable. Concerns Form submits and change's would be relatively simple.. Something like $("form :inputs").bind("change", function() { ... record event... }); But how to ensure I get precedence over the applications handlers as I have a habit of putting return false on a lot of my form handlers when there is a validation issue. As I understand it, that effectively stops the event in its tracks. My project For my smaller remote clients I will put their products onto a VPS or run it in my home data center. Currently I use a basic authentication system, given a username/password they see the website and then hopefully send me somewhat sane notes on what is broken or should be tweaked. As a better solution, I've written a simple proxy web server that does the above but allows me to have one DNS entry and then depending on credentials it makes an internal request relaying headers and re-writing URLS as needed. Every single html/text or application/* request is compressed and shoved into a sqlite table so I can partially replay what they've done. Now I am shifting to the frontend and would like to capture clicks, keydown's, and submits on everything on the page.

    Read the article

  • How to display two ObservableCollections as a single list in WPF?

    - by nareshbhatia
    I have two ObservableCollections, say ObservableCollection<Cat> and ObservableCollections<Dog>. Cat and Dog both derive from class Pet. I want to display a list of all Pets. How do I do this? I prefer not want create a new ObservableCollection<Pet> by adding items from the two source lists because this list will become stale as more Cats and Dogs are added to the source lists. I can think of two approaches: 1) Create a "Decorator" ObservableCollection that keeps the two source collections as members and iterates over them every time. 2) Create an ObservableCollection<Pet> that does have the combined elements of the two source collections, but is also dependent on the source collections. Thus if a Cat is added to the Cat collection, this collection is notified and it adds the new Cat to itself. Is there a standard way to solve this issue? I don't want to reinvent the wheel!

    Read the article

  • divert asp.net child controls

    - by Eric
    Hi Folks, I am trying to create an asp.net custom control that acts as a hosting container for any other controls, similar to the existing ‘Panel’ control. Basically, I need to build a web control that groups a bunch of other controls. It will consist of a header and a body pane, similar to a normal window in desktop application. The header will contain some simple text and some JavaScript driven code that shows/hides the body pane. The body pane simply hosts any number of other controls. +------------------------------------------------------+ | User Details Show/Hide | +------------------------------------------------------+ | Name: [Eric ] | | Address: [Some where] | | Date of Birth: [01/01/1980] | | | | (any other fields goes on) | | | | | +------------------------------------------------------+ Ideally I want to create a control that packs the whole thing together, so at design time I could use the following markup. <myCtl:SuperContainer runat=”server” Title=”User Details”> <asp:label id=”lblName” runat=”server” text=”Name:”/> <asp:textbox id=”txtName” runat=”server”/> <asp:label id=”lblDOB” runat=”server” text=”Date of Birth:”/> <asp:textbox id=”txtDOB” runat=”server”/> (…other controls definition…) </myCtl:SuperContainer> I plan to include two panels in my control, one for the header and another one for the body, but as you can see, the key issue is to find a way to ‘divert’ the child controls that are defined in the markup to the body panel, instead of the default parent container. I feel it can be some how simply override (manipulate) the control property, but don’t know how to properly do so. Can any one give some idea about how to implement this ‘SuperContainer’ control? Many thank, Eric

    Read the article

  • Comparison operators not supported for type IList when Paging data in Linq to Sql

    - by Dan
    I can understand what the error is saying - it can't compare a list. Not a problem, other than the fact that I don't know how to not have it compare a list when I want to page through a model with a list as a property. My Model: Event : IEvent int Id string Title // Other stuff.. LazyList<EventDate> Dates // The "problem" property Method which pages the data (truncated): public JsonResult JsonEventList(int skip, int take) { var query = _eventService.GetEvents(); // Do some filtering, then page data.. query = query.Skip(skip).Take(take); return Json(query.ToArray()); } As I said, the above is truncated quite a bit, leaving only the main point of the function: filter, page and return JSON'd data. The exception occurs when I enumerate (.ToArray()). The Event object is really only used to list the common objects of all the event types (Meetings, Birthdays, etc - for example). It still implements IEvent like the other types, so I can't just remove the LazyList<EventDate> Dates' property unless I no longer implementIEvent` Anyway, is there a way to avoid this? I don't really want to compare a LazyList when I page, but I do not know how to resolve this issue. Thank you in advance! :)

    Read the article

  • Can not access response.body inside after filter block in Sinatra 1.0

    - by Petr Vostrel
    I'm struggling with a strange issue. According to http://github.com/sinatra/sinatra (secion Filters) a response object is available in after filter blocks in Sinatra 1.0. However the response.status is correctly accessible, I can not see non-empty response.body from my routes inside after filter. I have this rackup file: config.ru require 'app' run TestApp Then Sinatra 1.0.b gem installed using: gem install --pre sinatra And this is my tiny app with a single route: app.rb require 'rubygems' require 'sinatra/base' class TestApp < Sinatra::Base set :root, File.dirname(__FILE__) get '/test' do 'Some response' end after do halt 500 if response.empty? # used 500 just for illustation end end And now, I would like to access the response inside the after filter. When I run this app and access /test URL, I got a 500 response as if the response is empty, but the response clearly is 'Some response'. Along with my request to /test, a separate request to /favicon.ico is issued by the browser and that returns 404 as there is no route nor a static file. But I would expect the 500 status to be returned as the response should be empty. In console, I can see that within the after filter, the response to /favicon.ico is something like 'Not found' and response to /test really is empty even though there is response returned by the route. What do I miss?

    Read the article

  • Registry entry using VC++, Data corrupting

    - by sijith
    Hi I want to set system time to registry, i did like this. But some null characters only getting there. when i am giving LPCTSTR data = TEXT("24/3/2010\0"); LONG setRes = RegSetValueEx (hkey, value, 0, REG_SZ, (LPBYTE)data, 100)); thsi is sucessfully adding into registry How to trace the issue IF possible please check my code include include include void Regkey::create_Registry() { HKEY hkey; DWORD dwDisposition,lpData; SYSTEMTIME time; GetLocalTime( &time ); int hour = time.wHour; if (hour 12) hour -= 12; char szData[20]; sprintf (szData, "%02d/%02d/%04d", time.wDay, time.wMonth, time.wYear); if(RegCreateKeyEx(HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE, TEXT("Software\Sijith\Test"), 0, NULL, 0, 0, NULL, &hkey, &dwDisposition)== ERROR_SUCCESS) { LPCTSTR sk = TEXT("Software\Sijith\Test"); LONG openRes = RegOpenKeyEx(HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE, sk, 0, KEY_ALL_ACCESS , &hkey); LPCTSTR value = TEXT("CheckSoftwareKey"); LONG setRes = RegSetValueEx (hkey, value, 0, REG_SZ, (CONST BYTE *)szData, sizeof(TCHAR) * (_tcslen(szData) + 1)); RegCloseKey(hkey); } } output value name: CheckSoftwareKey valueData: ?????

    Read the article

  • Internet zone is opened when broswer is opened from installer created by .Net 3.5sp1

    - by priya
    Hi All, I have project created in VS2005 and .Net 2.0. The installation is a web-based installation. After installing the proe-requisites the installer opens up the browser to continue with web-based install. On this, it opens up in intranet zone and works perfectly. I recently migrated the project to VS2008 Sp1 and .Net 3.5sp1. No change in my code and the test environment. Here the browser gets opened up in the Internet zone which prevents it from moving forward, until unless I open up a new browser manually and copy paste the url. The internet security options on the both the case are - Internet --- High. For the case2, if i have the security internet option to be 'Medium', it works well. I am not sure why this issue comes up when I change the VS and .Net version. More over the browser gets opened with system priveleges rather than administrator privileges. Please let me know any solution on this. Thanks, Priya.R

    Read the article

  • Using Reachability for Internet *or* local WiFi?

    - by randallmeadows
    I've searched SO for the answer to this question, and it's not really addressed, at least not to a point where I can make it work. I was originally only checking for Internet reachability, using: self.wwanReach = [Reachability reachabilityWithHostName:@"www.apple.com"]; [wwanReach startNotifer]; I now need to support a local WiFi connection (in the absence of reaching the Internet in general), and when I found +reachabilityForLocalWiFi, I also noticed there was +reachabilityForInternetConnection. I figured I could use these, instead of hard-coding "www.apple.com" in there, but alas, when I use self.wwanReach = [Reachability reachabilityForInternetConnection]; [wwanReach startNotifer]; self.wifiReach = [Reachability reachabilityForLocalWiFi]; [wifiReach startNotifer]; the reachability callback that I've set up "never" gets called, for values of "never" up to 10, 12, 15 minutes or so (which was as long as my patience lasted. (User's patience will be much less, I'm sure.) Switching back to +reachabilityWithHostName: works within seconds. I also tried each "pair" individually, in case there was an issue with two notifiers in progress simultaneously, but that made no difference. So: what is the appropriate way to determine reachability to either the Internet/WWAN or a local Wifi network (either one, or both)? [This particular use case is an iPhone or iPad connecting to a Mac mini computer-to-computer network; I'm sure other situations apply.]

    Read the article

  • How can i use a commandlinetool (ie. sox) via subprocess.Popen with mod_wsgi?

    - by marue
    I have a custom django filefield that makes use of sox, a commandline audiotool. This works pretty well as long as i use the django development server. But as soon as i switch to the production server, using apache2 and mod_wsgi, mod_wsgi catches every output to stdout. This makes it impossible to use the commandline tool to evaluate the file, for example use it to check if the uploaded file really is an audio file like this: filetype=subprocess.Popen([sox,'--i','-t','%s'%self.path], shell=False,\ stdout=subprocess.PIPE, stderr=subprocess.PIPE) (filetype,error)=filetype.communicate() if error: raise EnvironmentError((1,'AudioFile error while determining audioformat: %s'%error)) Is there a way to workaround for this? edit the error i get is "missing filename". I am using mod_wsgi 2.5, standard with ubuntu 8.04. edit2 What exactly happens, when i call subprocess.Popen from within django in mod_wsgi? Shouldn't subprocess stdin/stdout be independent from django stdin/stdout? In that case mod_wsgi should not affect programms called via subprocess... I'm really confused right now, because the file i am trying to access is a temporary file, created via a filenamevariable that i pass to the file creation and the subprocess command. That file is being written to /tmp, where the rights are 777, so it can't be a rights issue. And the error message is not "file does not exist", but "missing filename", which suggests i am not passing a filename as parameter to the commandlinetool.

    Read the article

  • Website. AJAX and FIREFOX problems. I dont think Firefox likes ajax..?

    - by DJDonaL3000
    Working on an AJAX website (HTML,CSS,JavaScript, AJAX, PHP, MySQL). I have multiple javascript functions which take rows from mysql, wrap them in html tags, and embed them in the HTML (the usual usage of AJAX). THE PROBLEM: Everything is working perfect, except when I run the site with Firefox (for once its not InternetExplorer causing the trouble). The site is currently in the developmental stage, so its offline, but running on the localhost (WampServer, apache, Windows XP SP3,VISTA,7). All other cross-browser conflicts have been removed, and works perfectly on all major browsers including IE, Chrome, Opera and Safari, but I get absolutely nothing from the HTTPRequest (AJAX) if the browser is Firefox. All browsers have the latest versions. THE CODE: I have a series of javascript functions, all of which are structured as follows: function getDatay(){ var a = document.getElementById( 'item' ).innerHTML; var ajaxRequest; try{//Browser Support Code: // code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari: ajaxRequest = new XMLHttpRequest(); } catch (e){ // code for IE6, IE5: try{ ajaxRequest = new ActiveXObject("Msxml2.XMLHTTP"); } catch (e) { try{ ajaxRequest = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } catch (e){ // Something went wrong alert("Your browser is not compatible - Browser Incompatibility Issue."); return false; } } } // Create a function that will receive data sent from the server ajaxRequest.onreadystatechange = function(){ if(ajaxRequest.readyState < 4){ document.getElementById( 'theDiv' ).innerHTML = 'LOADING...'; } if(ajaxRequest.readyState == 4){ document.getElementById( 'theDiv' ).innerHTML = ajaxRequest.responseText; } } //Post vars to PHP Script and wait for response: var url="01_retrieve_data_7.php"; url=url+"?a="+a; ajaxRequest.open("POST", url, false);//must be false here to wait for ajaxRequest to complete. ajaxRequest.send(null); } My money is on the final five lines of code being the cause of the problem. Any suggestions how to get Firefox and AJAX working together are most welcome...

    Read the article

  • Test MVC using moq

    - by Raminder
    I am new to moq and I was trying to test a controller (MVC) behaviour that when the view raises a certain event, controller calls a certain function on model, here are the classes - public class Model { public void CalculateAverage() { ... } ... } public class View { public event EventHandler CalculateAverage; private void RaiseCalculateAverage() { if (CalculateAverage != null) { CalculateAverage(this, EventArgs.Empty); } } ... } public class Controller { private Model model; private View view; public Controller(Model model, View view) { this.model = model this.view = view; view.CalculaeAverage += view_CalculateAverage; } priavate void view_CalculateAverage(object sender, EventArgs args) { model.CalculateAverage(); } } and the test - [Test] public void ModelCalculateAverageCalled() { Mock<Model> modelMock = new Mock<Model>(); Mock<View> viewMock = new Mock<View>(); Controller controller = new Controller(modelMock.Object, viewMock.Object); viewMock.Raise(x => x.CalculateAverage += null, new EventArgs.Empty); modelMock.Verify(x => x.CalculateAverage()); //never comes here, test fails in above line and exits Assert.True(true); } The issue is that the test is failing in the second last line with "Invocation was not performed on the mock: x = x.CalculateAverage()". Another thing I noticed is that the test terminates on this second last line and the last line is never executed. Am I doing everything correct?

    Read the article

  • Virtual destructor - How does it work?

    - by Prabhu
    Hello All, Few hours back I was fiddling with a Memory Leak issue and it turned out that I really got some basic stuff about virtual destructor wrong!! Let me put explain my class design. class Base { virtual push_elements()<br>{}<br> }; class Derived:public Base { vector<int> x; public: void push_elements(){ for(int i=0;i <5;i++) x.push_back(i); } }; void main() { Base* b = new Derived(); b->push_elements(); delete b; } The bounds checker tool reported a memory leak in the derived class vector. And I figured out that the destructor is not virtual and the derived class destructor is not called.And it surprisingly got fixed when I made the destructor virtual. But my question is "isn't the vector deallocated automatically even if the derived class destructor is not called"? Is that a quirk in BoundsChecker tool or is my understanding of virtual destructor is wrong:)

    Read the article

  • How to use Nhibernate Validator + NHib component + ddl

    - by mynkow
    I just configured my NHibValidator. My NHibernate creates the DB schema. When I set MaxLenght="20" to some property of a class then in the database the length appears in the database column. I am doing this in the NHibValidator xml file. But the problem is that I have components and cannot figure out how to achieve this behaviour. The component is configured correctly in the Customer.hbm.xml file. EDIT: Well, I found that Hibernate Validator users had the same problem two years ago. http://opensource.atlassian.com/projects/hibernate/browse/HV-25 Is this an issue for NHibernate Validator or it is fixed. If it is working tell me how please. ----------------------------------------------------- public class Customer { public virtual string Name{get;set;} public virtual Contact Contacts{ get; } } ----------------------------------------------------- public class Contact { public virtual string Address{get;set;} } ----------------------------------------------------- <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <nhv-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-validator-1.0" namespace="MyNamespace" assembly="MyAssembly"> <class name="Customer"> <property name="Name"> <length max="20"/> </property> <property name="Contacts"> <notNull/> <valid/> </property> </class> </nhv-mapping> ----------------------------------------------------- <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <nhv-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-validator-1.0" namespace="MyNamespace" assembly="MyAssembly"> <class name="Contact"> <property name="Address"> <length max="50"/> <valid/> </property> </class> </nhv-mapping> -----------------------------------------------------

    Read the article

  • Moving front page (cursebird or foursquare)

    - by Dan Samuels
    Ok so I'll be honest, I have a good amount of experience with php/mysql, I've just started learning jQuery and I've done very little, but some with ajax. So using the terms ajax/jquery interchangeably are a bit confusing to me. Anyway as the title suggest I have a website with 5 items, and I want them to move (meaning, if a more recent one is entered, remove the last item, and put the new one on top), they are 5 of the most recent items in the database table, now I've coded jquery as a test so it fades out the last one, the whole thing moves down, makes room at the top, and fades in a new one. However, it's a test and has 0 interaction with the database, the one that fades in is just in a hidden div. So the jQuery part is taken care of. So I'm unsure how to go about this, I was thinking maybe have ajax check a website off the page that has those 5 items in raw format, and if they change then to refresh? Not looking for a "plz code 4 me" answer, just the concept of how it would work, or some links to get off to the right start. edit - Also, the 5 items are ranked, so if I click item 3 I need it to move above item 2 refreshlessly, so this causes a whole other issue I assume.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 799 800 801 802 803 804 805 806 807 808 809 810  | Next Page >