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  • asp.net mvc ajax helper/post additional data w/o jquery.

    - by Jopache
    I would like to use the ajax helper to create ajax requests that send additional, dynamic data with the post (for example, get the last element with class = blogCommentDateTime and send the value of that last one to the controller which will return only blog comments after it). I have successfully done so with the help of jQuery Form plugin like so: $(document).ready(function () { $("#addCommentForm").submit(function () { var lastCommentDate = $(".CommentDateHidden:last").val(); var lastCommentData = { lastCommentDateTicks: lastCommentDate }; var formSubmitParams = { data: lastCommentData, success: AddCommentResponseHandler } $("#addCommentForm").ajaxSubmit(formSubmitParams); return false; }); This form was created with html.beginform() method. I am wondering if there is an easy way to do this using the ajax.beginform() helper? When I try to use the same code but replace html.beginform() with ajax.beginform(), when i try to submit the form, I am issuing 2 posts (which is understandable, one being taken care of by the helper, the other one by me with the JS above. I can't create 2 requests, so this option is out) I tried getting rid of the return false and changing ajaxSubmit() to ajaxForm() so that it would only "prepare" the form, and this leads in only one post, but it does not include the extra parameter that I defined, so this is worthless as well. I then tried keeping the ajaxForm() but calling that whenever the submit button on the form gets clicked rather than when the form gets submitted (I guess this is almost the same thing) and that results in 2 posts also. The biggest reason I am asking this question is that I have run in to some issues with the javascript above and using mvc validation provided by the mvc framework (which i will set up another question for) and would like to know this so I can dive further in to my validation issue.

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  • reset the data in the table of data set in c#.net

    - by shruti
    im populating the data in the combo box using dataset tables...with some table name..now i want to clear those entries or data populated in the combobox every time when the button is clicked...so that new entries can be done.... is there any way to clear the comobo box values??

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  • jQuery AJAX with two domains

    - by Andrew Burns
    OK here is the situation: I have an externally hosted CMS which works great for 99% of our needs. However on the more advanced things I inject my own CSS+JS and do magic. The problem I am running into is loading a simple HTML page from jQuery.ajax() calls. It appears to work in the sense that no warnings or errors are thrown; however in my success handler (which IS ran), the response is blank! I have been scratching my head for the whole morning trying to figure this out and the only thing I can think of is that is has something to do with the cross domain issue (even though it appears to work). Injected JavaScript: $(document).ready(function() { doui(); }); function doui() { $.ajax({ url: 'http://apps.natronacounty-wy.gov/css/feecalc/ui.htm', cache: false, success: ajax_createUI, charset: "utf-8", error: function(e) { alert(e); } }); } function ajax_createUI(data, textStatus) { alert(data); $("#ajax-content").html(data); } My ajax_createUI() success handler is called and textStatus is "success"; however data is empty. This JS file resides @ http://apps.natronacounty-wy.gov/css/js/feecalc.js however the CMS website (which gets the JS injected into it) resides @ http://www.natronacounty-wy.gov/ Am I just being stupid or is it a bug that it looks like it should be working but isn't?

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  • Apache + Passenger not passing on custom status codes

    - by harm
    I'm currently building an API. This API communicates with the client via status codes. I created several custom status codes (as per http://www.w3.org/Protocols/rfc2616/rfc2616-sec6.html#sec6) in order to inform the client on certain things. For example I introduced the 481 status code to signify a specific client error. The Rails app I wrote works like a charm. But when Apache and Passenger are serving it things run aground. When I provoke a 481 error the response header looks like this: HTTP/1.1 500 Internal Server Error Date: Wed, 19 May 2010 06:37:05 GMT Server: Apache/2.2.9 (Debian) Phusion_Passenger/2.2.5 mod_ssl/2.2.9 OpenSSL/0.9.8g X-Powered-By: Phusion Passenger (mod_rails/mod_rack) 2.2.5 Cache-Control: no-cache X-Runtime: 1938 Set-Cookie: _session_id=32bc259dc763193ad57ae7dc19d5f57e; path=/; HttpOnly Content-Length: 62 Status: 481 Content-Type: application/json; charset=utf-8 As you can see the original Status header is still there almost a the end. But the 'true' status header (the very first line) is quiet different. It seems that Apache doesn't like Status headers it has no knowledge of and thus assumes an error. Is there anyway to fix this? Maybe via the mod_headers ( http://httpd.apache.org/docs/2.2/mod/mod_headers.html) module? I don't know enough of Apache to figure this out on my own. Thanks,

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  • Linq-to-SQL: how many datacontexts ?

    - by sh00
    I have a SQL Server 2008 database with 300 tables. The application I have to design is an Windows Forms app, .NET 3.5, C#. Which is the best way to work with Linq-to-SQL ? I intend to make a datacontext for each business entity. Is there any problem ? I need to know if this way of working with Linq-to-SQL has any disadvantage or can create performance issues ? Thanks.

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  • Querying with foreign key

    - by theactiveactor
    Say I have 2 tables whose structures are as follows: tableA id | A1 | A2 tableB id | tableA_id (foreign key) | B1 Entries in A have a one-to-many relationship with entries in B. What kind of query operation would I need to achieve "something like this: select all objects from table B where A1="foo""? Basically, apply a query on tableA and from those result, find corresponding dependent objects in tableB

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  • how to release object from thid party dll?

    - by Mohamed
    hi all, i'm developing a program to convert RTF to html i'm using the DLLs found here http://www.codeproject.com/KB/recipes/RtfConverter.aspx?fid=1458864&df=90&mpp=25&noise=3&sort=Position&view=Quick&select=3427424&fr=1#xx0xx this dll saves a jpg file from html to a specific folder, when i run the program, it cinverts the rtf for the first time and saves the images to the folder perfectly but when i try to convert it again i hace this error "error a generic error occured in GDI+" i think this dll use SaveImage method and to avoid this you must release the Image object you created but i can't modify the DLL, is there is any way to release the object i've created from this dll? this is my code RtfVisualImageAdapter imageAdapter = new RtfVisualImageAdapter( @Application.StartupPath + "\\Program Data\\temp\\{0}{1}", System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Jpeg); RtfImageConvertSettings imageConvertSettings = new RtfImageConvertSettings(imageAdapter); RtfImageConverter imageConverter = new RtfImageConverter(imageConvertSettings); try { IRtfDocument rtfDocument = RtfInterpreterTool.BuildDoc( ConversionText, imageConverter); RtfHtmlConverter htmlConverter = new RtfHtmlConverter(rtfDocument); htmlConverter.Settings.ConvertVisualHyperlinks = true; htmlConverter.Settings.UseNonBreakingSpaces = true; this.richTextBoxPrintCtrl2.Text = htmlConverter.Convert(); } catch (Exception exception) { MessageBox.Show(this, "Error " + exception.Message, this.Text, MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error); }

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  • How to make Emacs sql-mode recognize MySQL #-style comments?

    - by Ken
    I'm reading a bunch of MySQL files that use # (to end-of-line) comments, but my sql-mode doesn't support them. I found the syntax-table part of sql.el that defines /**/ and -- comments, but according to this, Emacs syntax tables support only 2 comment styles. Is there a way to add support for # comments in sql.el easily?

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  • How to write a file that called from a database on a page?

    - by Mehmet Kaleli
    Hi. I have a "news" page that belongs to a company. All news have a header, detail and html page and they come from database. So i have to print those html pages in a repeater on my "news.aspx". But i couldnt write dynamically. How can i do it or is there anyway else? <asp:Repeater ID="news" runat="server" OnItemDataBound="news_OnItemDataBound"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:HiddenField ID="newsid" runat="server" Value='<%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem,"newsid") %>' /> <tr> <td class="haberler-sayfasi-habermetni" style="width:580px;padding-bottom:30px;"> <h1 class="haberler-sayfasi-haberbasligi" style="background-image:url(images/haber-ikon.jpg); background-repeat:no-repeat;padding-left:25px;"> <%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem,"newsheader") %>/h1> <br /> <%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem,"newsspot") %> <br /><br /> <% **Response.WriteFile('dynamical filename with path');** %> </td> </tr> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater>

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  • Any solution to IE8 bug rendering error when hiding elements?

    - by Magnar
    Bug: when hiding an element with JavaScript in IE8, the margin of still-visible other elements on the side is ignored. This bug has been introduced with IE8, since it works as expected in IE6+7 (and other browsers). <html> <head> <style> #a, #b, #c, #d {background: #ccf; padding: 4px; margin-bottom: 8px;} </style> </head> <body> <div id="a">a</div> <div id="b">b</div> <div id="c">c</div> <div id="d">d</div> <script> setTimeout(function () { document.getElementById("b").style.display = "none"; }, 1000); </script> </body> </html> When running this code, notice how a and c have a margin of 8 between them in normal browsers, but a margin of 0 in IE8. Remove the padding, and IE8 behaves like normal. Remove the timeout and IE8 behaves like normal. A border behaves the same way. I've been working with IE-bugs the last 10 years, but this has me stumped. The solution for now is to wrap the divs, and apply the margin to the outer element and other styles to the inner. But that's reminicent of horrible IE6-workarounds. Any better solutions?

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  • How should developers cope with so many GUI configuration combinations?

    - by shawn-harrison
    These days, any decent Windows desktop application must perform well and look good under the following conditions: XP and Vista and Windows 7. 32 bit and 64 bit. With and without Themes. With and without Aero. At 96 and 120 and perhaps custom DPIs. One or more monitors (screens). Each OS has its own preferred font. Oh my! What is a lowly little Windows desktop application developer to do? :( I'm hoping to get a thread started with suggestions on how to deal with this GUI dilemma. First off, I'm on Delphi 7. a) Does Delphi 2010 bring anything new to the table to help with this situation? b) Should we pick an aftermarket component suite and rely on them to solve all these problems? c) Should we go with an aftermarket skinning engine? d) Perhaps a more HTML-type GUI is the way to go. Can we make a relatively complex GUI app with HTML that doesn't require using a browser? (prefer to keep it form based) e) Should we just knuckle down and code through each one of these scenarios and quit bitching about it? f) And finally, how in the world are we supposed to test all these conditions?

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  • Javascript/Canvas/Images scaling problem in Firefox

    - by DocTiger
    I have a problem with the context2d's drawImage function. Whenever I scale an image, it gets a dark border of one pixel, which is kind of ugly. That does only happen in Firefox, not in Opera or Webkit. Is this an antialiasing problem? For hours I studied the examples and available documentation without getting rid of it... I couldn't yet try it on another computer so maybe just maybe it's an issue with the graphics hardware/drivers. I have reproduced this effect with this minimal snippet, assuming exp.jpg is sized 200x200 pixels. <html> <body> <canvas id="canvas" width="400" height="400"></canvas> </body> <script type="text/javascript" src="../../media/pinax/js/jquery-1.3.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" > context = $('#canvas')[0].getContext('2d'); img = new Image(); img.src = "exp.jpg"; //while (!img.complete); context.drawImage(img, 2,2,199,199); context.drawImage(img, 199,2,199,199); </script> </html>

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  • How to make placeholder varablies in jquery validate 1.7?

    - by chobo2
    Hi I am using jquery 1.4.2 and jquery validate 1.7(http://bassistance.de/jquery-plugins/jquery-plugin-validation/) Say I have this example that I just grabbed off some random site(http://www.webreference.com/programming/javascript/jquery/form_validation/) 8 <script type="text/javascript"> 9 $(document).ready(function() { 10 $("#form1").validate({ 11 rules: { 12 name: "required",// simple rule, converted to {required:true} 13 email: {// compound rule 14 required: true, 15 email: true 16 }, 17 url: { 18 url: true 19 }, 20 comment: { 21 required: true 22 } 23 }, 24 messages: { 25 comment: "Please enter a comment." 26 } 27 }); 28 }); 29 </script> now is it possible to do something like this 10 $("#form1").validate({ var NameHolder = "name" 11 rules: { 12 NameHolder: "required",// simple rule, converted to {required:true} 13 email: {// compound rule 14 required: true, 15 email: true So basically I want to make sort of a global variable to hold theses rule names( what correspond to the names on that html control). My concern is the names of html controls can change and it kinda sucks that I will have to go around and change it in many places of my code to make it work again. So basically I am wondering is there away to make a global variable to store this name. So if I need to change the name I only have to change it in one spot in my javascript file sort of the way stopping magic numbers ?

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  • Determining when stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString has finished

    - by alku83
    I have a UIWebView which loads up an HTML page. This page has two buttons on it, say Exit and Submit. I don't want users to be able to click the Exit button, so once the page has finished loading (ie. webViewDidFinishLoad is called), I use stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString to remove one of these buttons, by manipulating the HTML. I also disable user interaction on the UIWebView on webViewDidStartLoad, and enable it again on webViewDidFinishLoad. The problem I am finding is that stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString takes a second or two to complete, and it seems to be done in it's own thread. So what is happening is that webViewDidFinishLoad is called, user interaction is enabled on the UIWebView, and if the user is quick, they can click the Exit button before stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString has finished. As stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString seems to be on it's own thread with no way to know when it's finished (it doesnt call webViewDidFinishLoad), the only way to completely prevent users from tapping the Exit button that I can see is to only enable user interaction on the UIWebView after some delay, which is unreliable (how can I really know how long to delay for?). Am I correct in that stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString is done on it's on thread, and I have no way of being able to tell when it's finished? Any other suggestions for how to get around this problem? EDIT: In short, what I want to know is if it is possible to disable a UIWebView while stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString is executing, and re-enable the UIWebView when the javascript is finished. EDIT 2: There's an article here which seems to imply you can somehow poll the JS engine to see when it's finished, but I can't find any other references saying the same thing: http://drnicwilliams.com/2008/11/10/to-webkit-or-not-to-webkit-within-your-iphone-app/ EDIT 3 Based on the answer from Brad Smith, it seems that I actually need to know when the UIWebView has finished loading itself after the javascript has executed. It's looking more and more like I just need to put a delay of sorts in there.

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  • jquery ajax post not working with .load in codeigniter

    - by bravo
    i wish to .load multiple views result with jquery ajax the original code (js) $(document).ready(function(){ $("#uid").change( function(){ var uid=$("#uid").val(); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "<?= site_url('sp_profile/ajax_userdetail') ?>", dataType: "json", data: "uid="+uid, cache:false, success: function(data){ $("#content").html(data); } }); return false; }); }); this return only one result in what if i want to load 3 results like in <div id="content"></div> <div id="content1"></div> <div id="content2"></div> content could be userid content2 could be user first name content3 could be user last name my js should using .load instead of html right? let me know if i'm wrong. success: function(data){ $("#content").load("<?= site_url('sp_profile/ajax_userdetail')?>"); $("#content2").load("<?= site_url('sp_profile/ajax_userdetail')?>"); $("#content3").load("<?= site_url('sp_profile/ajax_userdetail')?>"); } i stuck with this thing for whole day.. please anyone show me the right way to do the controller and js code.

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  • Recovering From An SQL Injection

    - by Bryan
    Let's not go so far as to say that I'm paranoid, but I've been spending hour after hour learning how to prevent SQL injections (and XSS for what it's worth). What I'm wondering is that a SQL injection doesn't seem like it would do permanent harm to my database if I've made daily backups. Doesn't importing yesterday's copy of my tables just restore them and then I can be on my merry way?

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  • Submit form with POST data in Android app

    - by datguywhowanders
    I've been searching the web for a way to do this for about a week now, and I just can't seem to figure it out. I'm trying to implement an app that my college can use to allow users to log in to various services on the campus with ease. The way it works currently is they go to an online portal, select which service they want, fill in their user name and pwd, and click login. The form data is sent via post (it includes several hidden values as well as just the user name and pwd) to the corresponding login script which then signs them in and loads the service. I've been trying to come at the problem in two ways. I first tried a WebView, but it doesn't seem to want to support all of the html that normally makes this form work. I get all of the elements I need, fields for user and pwd as well as a login button, but clicking the button doesn't do anything. I wondered if I needed to add an onclick handler for it, but I can't see how as the button is implemented in the html of the webview not using a separate android element. The other possibility was using the xml widgets to create the form in a nice relative layout, which seems to load faster and looks better on the android screen. I used EditText fields for the input, a spinner widget for the service select, and the button widget for the login. I know how to make the onclick and item select handlers for the button and spinner, respectively, but I can't figure out how to send that data via POST in an intent that would then launch a browser. I can do an intent with the action url, but can't get the POST data to feed into it. Anyone have any suggestions?

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  • trouble finding element on page using xpath or css

    - by doneright
    Guys, I'm trying to write xpath or css to find/click on list element "All" based on known span(in this case SNG NAME below). On page, there are different lists Which can contain same list item called as "All". So we have to identify "All" based on span(in this case SNG NAME below) can someone shed some light on my issue <html> <head> <body> <div class="grc_selected"> <div class ="lbl_selected"> <span> SNG NAME </span> </div> <div id="id1" class="cl1"> <ul id="id_ul"> <li class="tclass" title="[1] All"> <img class="treeIcon" src="1/2/3.gif"/> <span class="inA">All</span> </li> </ul> </div> </body> </head> </html>

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  • Share ASP.Net membership info between two applications

    - by bill
    Hi All, I have an existing webapp and i'm attempting to setup BlogEngine .Net to share the membership tables Everything seems to work.. accept i can see that the Membership.ValidateUser call in blogengine returns false! While the other apps returns true. I'm at a loss.. Membership.GetUser called from both apps returns the correct user.. Any ideas? thanks!

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  • Rexml - Parsing Data

    - by Paddy
    I have a XML File in the following format: <?xml version='1.0' encoding='UTF-8'?> <entry xmlns='http://www.w3.org/2005/Atom' xmlns:gwo='http://schemas.google.com/analytics/websiteoptimizer/2009' xmlns:app='http://www.w3.org/2007/app' xmlns:gd='http://schemas.google.com/g/2005' gd:etag='W/&quot;DUYGRX85fCp7I2A9WxFWEkQ.&quot;'><id>https://www.google.com/analytics/feeds/websiteoptimizer/experiments/1025910</id><updated>2010-05-31T02:12:04.124-07:00</updated><app:edited>2010-05-31T02:12:04.124-07:00</app:edited><title>Flow Experiment</title><link rel='gwo:goalUrl' type='text/html' href='http://cart.personallifemedia.com/dlg/download.php'/><link rel='alternate' type='text/html' href='https://www.google.com/websiteoptimizer'/><link rel='self' type='application/atom+xml' href='https://www.google.com/analytics/feeds/websiteoptimizer/experiments/1025910'/><gwo:analyticsAccountId>16334726</gwo:analyticsAccountId><gwo:autoPruneMode>None</gwo:autoPruneMode><gwo:controlScript>..... I have to parse and get the data for gd:etag and how do I do it? I was able to get the value using SimpleXML, but i wanted to achieve it in ReXML. Please do advice.

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  • Can I flow divs down the page instead of across it?

    - by Brabster
    If I have a collection of div elements, I can use CSS to have them flow across the page and overflow onto the next line. Here's a simple example: <html> <head> <title>Flowing Divs</title> <style type="text/css"> .flow { float: left; margin: 4em 8em; } </style> </head> <body> <div class="container"> <div class="flow">Div 1</div> <div class="flow">Div 2</div> <div class="flow">Div 3</div> <div class="flow">Div 4</div> <div class="flow">Div 5</div> <div class="flow">Div 6</div> <div class="flow">Div 7</div> <div class="flow">Div 8</div> </div> </body> </html> Is it possible to have the divs flow down the page instead of across it, so that they would flow down columns not along lines, but still occupy the same space as they would if they flowed across? So for the example above, if they flowed into two lines of four divs, could I get the first column to contain Div1 and Div2 instead of Div1 and Div5?

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  • How can I create a small relational database in MySQL?

    - by Sergio Tapia
    I need to make a small database in MySQL that has two tables. Clothes and ClotheType Clothes has: ID, Name, Color, Brand, Price, ClotheTypeID ClotheType has: ID, Description In Microsoft SQL it would be: create table Clothes( id int, primary key(id), name varchar(200), color varchar(200), brand varchar(200), price varchar(200), clothetypeid int, foreign key clothetypeid references ClotheType(id) ) I need this in MySQL.

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  • SQL optimization: deletes taking a long time

    - by Will
    I have an Oracle SQL query as part of a stored proc: DELETE FROM item i WHERE NOT EXISTS (SELECT 1 FROM item_queue q WHERE q.n=i.n) AND NOT EXISTS (SELECT 1 FROM tool_queue t WHERE t.n=i.n); A bit about the tables: item contains about 10k rows with an index on the n column item_queue contains about 1mil rows also with index on n column tool_queue contains about 5mil rows indexed as well I am wondering if the query/subqueries can be optimized somehow to make them run faster, I thought that deletes were generally fairly fast

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  • Auto generate varchar Ticket number via DB...

    - by Rusty
    Hello, I'm looking for suggestion on how to get the DB to auto generate Ticket numbers (preferably via the SQL DB) for a varchar column. I have the following tables in the DB: Activities & Cases and would prefer the format to be "Act000001" or "Cse000001". This would be something similar to the identity column property. Any suggestion would be highly appreciated. Thanks. Rusty

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