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  • Grails - Removing an item from a hasMany association List on data bind?

    - by ecrane
    Grails offers the ability to automatically create and bind domain objects to a hasMany List, as described in the grails user guide. So, for example, if my domain object "Author" has a List of many "Book" objects, I could create and bind these using the following markup (from the user guide): <g:textField name="books[0].title" value="the Stand" /> <g:textField name="books[1].title" value="the Shining" /> <g:textField name="books[2].title" value="Red Madder" /> In this case, if any of the books specified don't already exist, Grails will create them and set their titles appropriately. If there are already books in the specified indices, their titles will be updated and they will be saved. My question is: is there some easy way to tell Grails to remove one of those books from the 'books' association on data bind? The most obvious way to do this would be to omit the form element that corresponds to the domain instance you want to delete; unfortunately, this does not work, as per the user guide: Then Grails will automatically create a new instance for you at the defined position. If you "skipped" a few elements in the middle ... Then Grails will automatically create instances in between. I realize that a specific solution could be engineered as part of a command object, or as part of a particular controller- however, the need for this functionality appears repeatedly throughout my application, across multiple domain objects and for associations of many different types of objects. A general solution, therefore, would be ideal. Does anyone know if there is something like this included in Grails?

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  • Omit return type in C++0x

    - by Clinton
    I've recently found myself using the following macro with gcc 4.5 in C++0x mode: #define RETURN(x) -> decltype(x) { return x; } And writing functions like this: template <class T> auto f(T&& x) RETURN (( g(h(std::forward<T>(x))) )) I've been doing this to avoid the inconvenience having to effectively write the function body twice, and having keep changes in the body and the return type in sync (which in my opinion is a disaster waiting to happen). The problem is that this technique only works on one line functions. So when I have something like this (convoluted example): template <class T> auto f(T&& x) -> ... { auto y1 = f(x); auto y2 = h(y1, g1(x)); auto y3 = h(y1, g2(x)); if (y1) { ++y3; } return h2(y2, y3); } Then I have to put something horrible in the return type. Furthermore, whenever I update the function, I'll need to change the return type, and if I don't change it correctly, I'll get a compile error if I'm lucky, or a runtime bug in the worse case. Having to copy and paste changes to two locations and keep them in sync I feel is not good practice. And I can't think of a situation where I'd want an implicit cast on return instead of an explicit cast. Surely there is a way to ask the compiler to deduce this information. What is the point of the compiler keeping it a secret? I thought C++0x was designed so such duplication would not be required.

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  • How can I programmatically determine if my workstation is locked?

    - by AgentConundrum
    I'm writing up some productivity/metrics tools for myself to help monitor my focus throughout the day. Recently, I've noticed that I tend to get off track more than usual and feel the need to get up and go for walks/drinks/etc and I'm concerned that I'm "wasting" too much time. Since I always lock my computer when I go anywhere, and I unlock it as soon as I return (even if I'm just reading at my desk, etc), I was wondering how I can determine, in code, how long the machine is locked. I'm writing this in C# if that helps, but I'm open to other ideas. I like the windows service idea (and have accepted it) for simplicity and cleanliness, but unfortunately I don't think it will work for me in this particular case. I wanted to run this on my workstation at work rather than home (or in addition to home, I suppose), but it's locked down pretty hard courtesy of the DoD. That's part of the reason I'm rolling my own, actually. I'll write it up anyway and see if it works. Thanks everyone!

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  • Oracle Forms on-button-pressed trigger to solve three scenarios

    - by DBase486
    Hello, I'm writing a when-button-pressed trigger on a save button for an Oracle Forms 6i form, and it has to fulfill a couple of scenarios. Here's some background information: the fields we're primarily concerned with are: n_number, alert_id, end_date For all three scenarios we are comparing candidate records against the following records in the database (for the sake of argument, let's assume they're the only records in the database so far): alert_id|| n_number|| end_date ------------------------------------- 1|| 5|| _______ 2|| 6|| 10/25/2009 Scenario 1: The user enters a new record: alert_id 1 n_number 5 end_date NULL Objective: prevent the user from committing duplicate rows Scenario 2: The user enters a new record: alert_id 1 n_number 10 end_date NULL Objective: Notify the user that this alert_id already exists, but allow the user the ability to commit the row, if desired. Scenario 3: The user enters a new record: alert_id 2 n_number 6 end_date NULL Objective: Notify the user that this alert_id has occurred in the past (i.e. it has a not-null end_date), but allow the user to commit the row, if desired. I've written the code, which seems to comply with the first two scenarios, but prevents me from fulfilling the third. Issues: When I enter the third scenario case, I am prompted to commit the record, but when I attempt this, the "duplicate_stop" alert pops up, preventing me. Issues: I'm getting the following error: ORA-01843: not a valid month. While testing the code for the third scenario in Toad (hard-coding the values, etc) things seemed to be fine. Why would I encounter these problems at run-time? Help is very much appreciated. Thank you

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  • Weird problem with PHP mail() under Linux.

    - by Vilx-
    This is the case when it "works on my machine". Except that my machine is Windows, and the target is some sort of Linux. The idea is that the mail() function puts a newline between the MIME-Version and Content-Type headers, thus breaking the whole thing. Here's the code, simpliefied as much as possible: <?php $HTMLPart = chunk_split(base64_encode('<html><body style="color: red">Test.</body></html>')); $PlaintextPart = chunk_split(base64_encode('>>> TEST <<<')); $Headers =<<<AKAM From: "My Test" <[email protected]> Reply-To: [email protected] MIME-Version: 1.0 Content-Type: multipart/alternative; boundary="9-1410065408-1410065408=:27514" AKAM; $Body =<<<AKAM This is a multi-part message in MIME format. --9-1410065408-1410065408=:27514 Content-Type: text/plain; charset="windows-1252" Content-Transfer-Encoding: base64 $PlaintextPart --9-1410065408-1410065408=:27514 Content-Type: text/html; charset="windows-1252" Content-Transfer-Encoding: base64 $HTMLPart --9-1410065408-1410065408=:27514-- AKAM; echo 'Try 3: '; echo mail('[email protected]', 'Testmail', $Body, $Headers) ? 'WIN' : 'FAIL'; ?>

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  • error while updating a database in ASP.NET

    - by Viredae
    I am having trouble updating an SQL database, the problem is not that it doesn't update at all, but that particular parameters are being updated while the others are not. here is the code for updating the parameters: string EditRequest = "UPDATE Requests SET Description = @Desc, BJustif = @Justif, Priority = @Priority, Requested_System = @Requested, Request_Status = @Stat WHERE"; EditRequest += " Req_ID=@ID"; SqlConnection Submit_conn = new SqlConnection(WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["DBConn"].ConnectionString); SqlCommand Submit_comm = new SqlCommand(EditRequest, Submit_conn); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@ID", Request.QueryString["reqid"]); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Desc", DescBox.Text); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Justif", JustifBox.Text); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Priority", PriorityList.SelectedValue); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Requested", RelatedBox.Text); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Stat", 1); Submit_conn.Open(); Submit_comm.ExecuteNonQuery(); Submit_comm.Dispose(); Submit_comm = null; Submit_conn.Close(); get_Description(); Page.ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(this.GetType(), "Refresh", "ReloadPage();", true); this function is called by a button on a pop-up form which shows the parameters content that is being changed in a text box which is also used to submit the changes back to the database, but when I press submit, the parameters which are displayed on the form don't change, I can't find any problem wit the code, even though I've compared it to similar code which is working fine. In case you need to, here is one of the text boxes I'm using to display and edit the content: <asp:TextBox ID="JustifBox" TextMode="MultiLine" runat="server" Width="250" Height="50"></asp:TextBox> What exactly is wrong with the code?

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  • Titanium TableViewRow classname with custom rows

    - by pancake
    I would like to know in what way the 'className' property of a Ti.UI.TableViewRow helps when creating custom rows. For example, I populate a tableview with custom rows in the following way: function populateTableView(tableView, data) { var rows = []; var row; var title, image; var i; for (i = 0; i < data.length; i++) { title = Ti.UI.createLabel({ text : data[i].title, width : 100, height: 30, top: 5, left: 25 }); image = Ti.UI.createImage({ image : 'some_image.png', width: 30, height: 30, top: 5, left: 5 }); /* and, like, 5+ more views or whatever */ row = Ti.UI.createTableViewRow(); row.add(titleLabel); row.add(image); rows.push(row); } tableView.setData(rows); } Of course, this example of a "custom" row is easily created using the standard title and image properties of the TableViewRow, but that isn't the point. How is the allocation of new labels, image views and other child views of a table view prevented in favour of their reuse? I know in iOS this is achieved by using the method -[UITableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:] to fetch a row object from a 'reservoir' (so 'className' is 'identifier' here) that isn't currently being used for displaying data, but already has the needed child views laid out correctly in it, thus only requiring to update the data contained within (text, image data, etc). As this system is so unbelievably simple, I have a lot of trouble believing the method employed by the Titanium API does not support this. After reading through the API and searching the web, I do however suspect this is the case. The 'className' property is recommended as an easy way to make table views more efficient in Titanium, but its relation to custom table view rows is not explained in any way. If anyone could clarify this matter for me, I would be very grateful.

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  • Extremely CPU Intensive Alarm Clock

    - by SoulBeaver
    For some reason my program, a console alarm clock I made for laughs and practice, is extremely CPU intensive. It consumes about 2mB RAM, which is already quite a bit for such a small program, but it devastates my CPU with over 50% resources at times. Most of the time my program is doing nothing except counting down the seconds, so I guess this part of my program is the one that's causing so much strain on my CPU, though I don't know why. If it is so, could you please recommend a way of making it less, or perhaps a library to use instead if the problem can't be easily solved? /* The wait function waits exactly one second before returning to the * * called function. */ void wait( const int &seconds ) { clock_t endwait; // Type needed to compare with clock() endwait = clock() + ( seconds * CLOCKS_PER_SEC ); while( clock() < endwait ) {} // Nothing need be done here. } In case anybody browses CPlusPlus.com, this is a genuine copy/paste of the clock() function they have written as an example for clock(). Much why the comment //Nothing need be done here is so lackluster. I'm not entirely sure what exactly clock() does yet. The rest of the program calls two other functions that only activate every sixty seconds, otherwise returning to the caller and counting down another second, so I don't think that's too CPU intensive- though I wouldn't know, this is my first attempt at optimizing code. The first function is a console clear using system("cls") which, I know, is really, really slow and not a good idea. I will be changing that post-haste, but, since it only activates every 60 seconds and there is a noticeable lag-spike, I know this isn't the problem most of the time. The second function re-writes the content of the screen with the updated remaining time also only every sixty seconds. I will edit in the function that calls wait, clearScreen and display if it's clear that this function is not the problem. I already tried to reference most variables so they are not copied, as well as avoid endl as I heard that it's a little slow compared to \n.

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  • Help! Getting an error copying the data from one column to the same column in a similar recordset..

    - by Mike D
    I have a routine which reads one recordset, and adds/updates rows in a similar recordset. The routine starts off by copying the columns to a new recordset: Here's the code for creating the new recordset.. For X = 1 To aRS.Fields.Count mRS.Fields.Append aRS.Fields(X - 1).Name, aRS.Fields(X - 1).Type, aRS.Fields(X - _ 1).DefinedSize, aRS.Fields(X - 1).Attributes Next X Pretty straight forward. Notice the copying of the name, Type, DefinedSize & Attributes... Further down in the code, (and there's nothing that modifies any of the columns between.. ) I'm copying the values of a row to a row in the new recordset as such: For C = 1 To aRS.Fields.Count mRS.Fields(C - 1) = aRS.Fields(C - 1) Next C When it gets to the last column which is a numeric, it craps with the "Mutliple-Step Operation Generated an error" message. I know that MS says this is an error generated by the provider, which in this case is ADO 2.8. There is no open connect to the DB at this point in time either. I'm pulling what little hair I have left over this one... (and I don't really care at this point that the column index is 'X' in one loop & 'C' in the other... I'll change it later when I get the real problem fixed...)

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  • How to detect .NET WPF memory leak or GC long run?

    - by Néstor Sánchez A.
    I have the next very strange situation and problem: .NET 4.0 application for diagram editing (WPF). Runs ok in my PC: 8GM RAM, 3.0GHz, i7 quad-core. While creating objects (mostly diagram nodes and connectors, plus all the undo/redo information) the TaskManager show, as expected, some memory usage "jumps" (up and down). These mem-usage "jumps" also remains executing AFTER user interaction ended. Maybe this is the GC cleaning/regorganizing memory? To see what is going on, I've used the Ants mem profiler, but somewhat it prevents those "jumps" to happen after user interaction. PROBLEM: It Freezes/Hangs after seconds or minutes of usage in some slow/weak laptos/netbooks of my beta testers (under 2GHz of speed and under 2GB of RAM). I was thinking of a memory leak, but... EDIT: Also, there is the case that the memory usage grows and grows until collapse (only in slow machines). In a Windows XP Mode machine (VM in Win 7) with only 512MB of RAM Assigned it works fine without mem-usage "jumps" after user interaction (no GC cleaning?!). So, I really have a big trouble because I cannot reproduce the error, only see these strange behaviour (mem jumps), and the tool supposed to show me what is happening is hiding the problem (like the "observer's paradox"). Any ideas on what's happening and how to solve it?

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  • How to check if a node's value in one XML is present in another XML with a specific attribute?

    - by Manish
    The question seems to be little confusing. So let me describe my situation through an example: Suppose I have an XML: A.xml <Cakes> <Cake>Egg</Cake> <Cake>Banana</Cake> </Cakes> Another XML: B.xml <Cakes> <Cake show="true">Egg</Cake> <Cake show="true">Strawberry</Cake> <Cake show="false">Banana</Cake> </Cakes> Now I want to show some text say "TRUE" if all the Cake in A.xml have show="true" in B.xml else "FALSE". In the above case, it will print FALSE. I need to develop an XSL for that. I can loop through all the Cake in A.xml and check if that cake has show="true" in B.xml but I don't know how to break in between (and set a variable) if a show="false" is found. Is it possible? Any help/comments appreciated.

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  • HTML Helper/Text Box validation

    - by slandau
    I have this input on the view: <%= Html.TextBoxCurrentDateWithoutPermission("EffectiveDate", Model.EffectiveDate.HasValue ? Model.EffectiveDate.Value.ToString("dd-MMM-yyyy") : "", new string[] { PERMISSIONS.hasICAdvanced }, new { @class = "economicTextBox", propertyName = "EffectiveDate", onchange = "parseAndSetDt(this); ", dataType = "Date" })%> Here is the custom HTML Helper: public static MvcHtmlString TextBoxCurrentDateWithoutPermission( this HtmlHelper htmlHelper, string name, object value, string[] permissions, object htmlAttributes ) { foreach (string permission in permissions) { if (Chatham.Web.UI.Extranet.SessionManager.DisplayUser.IsInRole(permission)) { // the user has the permission => render the textbox return htmlHelper.TextBox(name, value, htmlAttributes); } } // the user has no permission => render a readonly checkbox var mergedHtmlAttributes = new RouteValueDictionary(htmlAttributes); mergedHtmlAttributes["disabled"] = "disabled"; return htmlHelper.TextBox(name, value == "" ? DateTime.Now : value, mergedHtmlAttributes); } The way this works now is, when a user does NOT have the permission passed in, the box is disabled. The way it needs to be -- if the user does NOT have the permission passed in, it needs to be enabled, however the only dates it can accept are todays date AND dates in the future. So I need JQuery validation (or just plain JS), for this textbox on the page for the following case: If the textbox is enabled AND the user does not have the permission, allow the user to input the current date or future dates ONLY.

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  • how to get large pictures from photo album via facebook graph api

    - by Nav
    I am currently using the following code to retrieve all the photos from a user profile FB.api('/me/albums?fields=id,name', function(response) { //console.log(response.data.length); for (var i = 0; i < response.data.length; i++) { var album = response.data[i]; FB.api('/' + album.id + '/photos', function(photos) { if (photos && photos.data && photos.data.length) { for (var j = 0; j < photos.data.length; j++) { var photo = photos.data[j]; // photo.picture contain the link to picture var image = document.createElement('img'); image.src = photo.picture; document.body.appendChild(image); image.className = "border"; image.onclick = function() { //this.parentNode.removeChild(this); document.getElementById(info.id).src = this.src; document.getElementById(info.id).style.width = "220px"; document.getElementById(info.id).style.height = "126px"; }; } } }); } }); but, the photos that it returns are of poor quality and are basically like thumbnails.How to retrieve larger photos from the albums. Generally for profile picture I use ?type=large which returns a decent profile image but the type=large is not working in the case of photos from photo albums and also is there a way to get the photos in zip format from facebook once I specify the photo url as I want users to be able to download the photos.

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  • setting write permissions on theme subdirectory?

    - by Scott B
    I've a theme which supports multiple templates, each with a header background image whose color can be set by the site owner via a colorpicker widget in my theme's options panel. This has the effect of opening the background image, recoloring it and resaving it back to the server. I've had zero issues with this routine until recently when a customer installed the theme on a web host whose default read/write permissions are apparently much more restrictive than the norm. In this case, the user was unable to alter the colors of the template images because of the permissions settings. I'm looking for a bit of understanding on what the permissions would need to be (assuming I purposefully set them via script) to allow the logged in wordpress user to write to files under my theme's styles directory. The code I'm using to write to the image file is below... $img = imagecreatefromgif("../wp-content/themes/mytheme/styles/".get_option('my_theme')."/image.gif"); $color = imagecolorallocate($img, $info["red"], $info["green"], $info["blue"]); imagecolorset($img, 0, $info["red"], $info["green"], $info["blue"]); imagegif($img, $path);

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  • Is Assert.Fail() considered bad practice?

    - by Mendelt
    I use Assert.Fail a lot when doing TDD. I'm usually working on one test at a time but when I get ideas for things I want to implement later I quickly write an empty test where the name of the test method indicates what I want to implement as sort of a todo-list. To make sure I don't forget I put an Assert.Fail() in the body. When trying out xUnit.Net I found they hadn't implemented Assert.Fail. Of course you can always Assert.IsTrue(false) but this doesn't communicate my intention as well. I got the impression Assert.Fail wasn't implemented on purpose. Is this considered bad practice? If so why? @Martin Meredith That's not exactly what I do. I do write a test first and then implement code to make it work. Usually I think of several tests at once. Or I think about a test to write when I'm working on something else. That's when I write an empty failing test to remember. By the time I get to writing the test I neatly work test-first. @Jimmeh That looks like a good idea. Ignored tests don't fail but they still show up in a separate list. Have to try that out. @Matt Howells Great Idea. NotImplementedException communicates intention better than assert.Fail() in this case @Mitch Wheat That's what I was looking for. It seems it was left out to prevent it being abused in another way I abuse it.

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  • Codeigniter - change url at method call

    - by NemoPS
    I was wondering if the following can be done in codeigniter. Let's assume I have a file, called Post.php, used to manage posts in an admin interface. It has several methods, such as index (lists all posts), add, update, delete... Now, I access the add method, so that the url becomes /posts/add And I add some data. I click "save" to add the new post. It calls the same method with an if statement like "if "this-input-post('addnew')"" is passed, call the model, add it to the database Here follows the problem: If everything worked fine, it goes to the index with the list of all posts, and displays a confirmation BUT No the url would still be posts/add, since I called the function like $this-index() after verifying data was added. I cannot redirect it to "posts/" since in that case no confirmation message would be shown! So my question is: can i call a method from anther one in the same class, and have the url set to that method (/posts/index instead of /posts/add)? It's kinda confusing, but i hope i gave you enough info to spot the problem Cheers!

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  • What files does JDIC need to run?

    - by Domchi
    I'm trying to call JDIC from my application, but I can't get it to run. What files do I need and where? From what I've been able to gather from their site, I basically need to put jdic.jar in classpath... however there is also a lib folder with jdic.jar with a bit different size, and jdic_native_applet.jar, jdic_stub_unix.jar, jdic_stub_windows.jar and several folders with what I gather are platform specific files. I get this exception when instantiating AssociationService: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.jdesktop.jdic.filetypes.internal.AppAssociationReaderFactory_windows at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:200) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:188) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:307) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:301) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:252) at org.jdesktop.jdic.filetypes.AssociationService.<init>(Unknown Source) at QuickTest.main(QuickTest.java:101) I've tried last "official" release and last alpha release. I'm running Java 6 and Win7 64bit. Does JDIC even work under Win7 (or 64bit, although I use 32bit Java)? I see no release after 2006, and no activity in the project after about 2008... while Win7 came in 2009. I know that parts of JDIC, like Desktop, were included in Java 6, however that doesn't seem to be the case with file associations. And if it doesn't, are there any (hopefully cross-platform) alternatives for managing file associations? There are some things for Windows only that I tried, but that requires running native commands with administrator privileges which I don't know how to pull, apart from asking user to run my app as administrator and then use Runtime.exec()... If there are no alternatives to JDIC, I'm interested if anyone has managed to handle file associations well with cross-platform installers?

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  • If I use Unicode on a ISO-8859-1 site, how will that be interpreted by a browser?

    - by grg-n-sox
    So I got a site that uses ISO-8859-1 encoding and I can't change that. I want to be sure that the content I enter into the web app on the site gets parsed correctly. The parser works on a character by character basis. I also cannot change the parser, I am just writing files for it to handle. The content in my file I am telling the app to display after parsing contains Unicode characters (or at least I assume so, even if they were produced by Windows Alt Codes mapped to CP437). Using entities is not an option due to the character by character operation of the parser. The only characters that the parser escapes upon output are markup sensitive ones like ampersand, less than, and greater than symbols. I would just go ahead and put this through to see what it looks like, but output can only be seen on a publishing, which has to spend a couple days getting approved and such, and that would be asking too much for just a test case. So, long story short, if I told a site to output ?ÇÑ¥?? on a site with a meta tag stating it is supposed to use ISO-8859-1, will a browser auto-detect the Unicode and display it or will it literally translate it as ISO-8859-1 and get a different set of characters?

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  • Jquery hide is not working in my Dialog box close span

    - by kumar
    $('.ui-dialog-titlebar-close ui-corner-all').hide(); this is the hide for my Jquery dialog close 'X' span.. this is not working in my case. I am trying to hide that Close becuase its not showing me in my dialog when I resize my dialog then its showing me.. some reason my CSS not showing me that Close button correctly on my POPUP. Can any body help me out. here is my code and CSS. $("#window").dialog({ resizable: true, height: 180, title: titles, width: 500, modal: true, open: function () { $('.ui-widget-overlay').show(); $('.ui-dialog-titlebar-close ui-corner-all').hide(); }, buttons: { "OK": function () { $(this).dialog("close"); if (redirectURL) { window.location = redirectURL; } } } }); here is my CSS. <style> .ui-widget-overlay { background: black; opacity: 0.5; filter: alpha(opacity = 50); position: absolute; top: 0; left: 10; } </style> Can any body tell me how to show My Close 'X' correctly on my dialog or I need to hide that Close 'X' thanks

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  • [C++][OpenMP] Proper use of "atomic directive" to lock STL container

    - by conradlee
    I have a large number of sets of integers, which I have, in turn, put into a vector of pointers. I need to be able to update these sets of integers in parallel without causing a race condition. More specifically. I am using OpenMP's "parallel for" construct. For dealing with shared resources, OpenMP offers a handy "atomic directive," which allows one to avoid a race condition on a specific piece of memory without using locks. It would be convenient if I could use the "atomic directive" to prevent simultaneous updating to my integer sets, however, I'm not sure whether this is possible. Basically, I want to know whether the following code could lead to a race condition vector< set<int>* > membershipDirectory(numSets, new set<int>); #pragma omp for schedule(guided,expandChunksize) for(int i=0; i<100; i++) { set<int>* sp = membershipDirectory[5]; #pragma omp atomic sp->insert(45); } (Apologies for any syntax errors in the code---I hope you get the point) I have seen a similar example of this for incrementing an integer, but I'm not sure whether it works when working with a pointer to a container as in my case.

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  • Create JTable in a JPanel and add row

    - by DK64
    On my program I've dinamically created a JFrame that contains a JPanel called jp. jp also contains a JTable that I would like to fill with some rows. case KeyEvent.VK_R: JFrame frame = new JFrame("Snake v2.0 - Rankings"); JPanel jp = new JPanel(); jp.setPreferredSize(new Dimension(300,300)); JTable table = new JTable(); JScrollPane tableContainer = new JScrollPane(table); jp.add(tableContainer, BorderLayout.CENTER); DefaultTableModel tm = (DefaultTableModel) table.getModel(); tm.addRow(new Object[] {"#","Player","Score","Date"}); frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.HIDE_ON_CLOSE); frame.setLocationRelativeTo(null); frame.setResizable(false); frame.getContentPane().add(jp); frame.pack(); frame.setVisible(true); break; This is my code. When I press R on the keyboard, the JFrame with that JPanel inside appears but the table doesnt (picture). What could I do?

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  • Argument type deduction, references and rvalues

    - by uj2
    Consider the situation where a function template needs to forward an argument while keeping it's lvalue-ness in case it's a non-const lvalue, but is itself agnostic to what the argument actually is, as in: template <typename T> void target(T&) { cout << "non-const lvalue"; } template <typename T> void target(const T&) { cout << "const lvalue or rvalue"; } template <typename T> void forward(T& x) { target(x); } When x is an rvalue, instead of T being deduced to a constant type, it gives an error: int x = 0; const int y = 0; forward(x); // T = int forward(y); // T = const int forward(0); // Hopefully, T = const int, but actually an error forward<const int>(0); // Works, T = const int It seems that for forward to handle rvalues (without calling for explicit template arguments) there needs to be an forward(const T&) overload, even though it's body would be an exact duplicate. Is there any way to avoid this duplication?

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  • why does setting stderr=subprocess.STDOUT fix a subprocess.check_output call?

    - by ShankarG
    I have a python script running on a small server that is called in three different ways - from within another python script, by cron, or by gammu-smsd (an SMS daemon with the wonderful mobile utility [gammu]). The script is for maintenance and contained the following kludge to measure used space on the system (presumably this is possible from within Python, but this was quick and dirty): reportdict['Used Space'] = subprocess.check_output(["df / | tail -1 | awk '{ print $5; }'"], shell=True)[0:-1] Oddly enough this line would only fail when the script was called by a shell script running from gammu-smsd. The line would fail with a CalledProcessError exception saying "returned exit status 2", even though the output attribute of the CalledProcessError object contained the correct output. The only command in the sequence of shell commands that would give such an error status would be awk, with status 2 indicating a fatal error. If the python script with this line was called by cron, by another python script, or from the command line, this line would work fine. I broke my head trying to fix the environment for the script, thinking this must be the problem. Finally though I put in stderr=subprocess.STDOUT, like so: reportdict['Used Space'] = subprocess.check_output(["df / | tail -1 | awk '{ print $5; }'"], stderr=subprocess.STDOUT, shell=True)[0:-1] This was a debug measure to help me figure out if some output was coming on stderr. But after this the script started working, even when called from gammu-smsd! Why might this be the case? I ask for future reference when using subprocess...

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  • using 'or' operator not working for menu

    - by John Wilkes
    In my code here, I have a CSS class called "active" which I use if the $_GET['page'] == tutorials, php, mysql, etc... The problem is, even if the 'page' variable is not equal to any of these values, the Tutorials button in this case is still active for some reason. Any ideas why this would be happening? Am I using the 'or' (||) operand incorrectly? <?php if($_GET['page'] == 'tutorials' || 'php' || 'mysql' || 'html' || 'css' || 'js') { ?> <li class="active"> <?php } else { ?> <li> <?php } ?> <a href="index.php?page=tutorials">Tutorials</a> <ul> <li><a href="index.php?page=php">PHP</a></li> <li><a href="index.php?page=mysql">MySQL</a></li> <li><a href="index.php?page=html">HTML</a></li> <li><a href="index.php?page=css">CSS</a></li> <li><a href="index.php?page=js">JS</a></li> </ul> </li>

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  • Need an advice for unit testing using mock object

    - by Andree
    Hi there, I just recently read about "Mocking objects" for unit testing and currently I'm having a difficulties implementing this approach in my application. Please let me explain my problem. I have a User model class, which is dependent on 2 data sources (database and facebook web service). The controller class simply use this User model as an interface to access data and it doesn't care about where the data came from. Currently I never done any unit test to this User model because it is dependent on an external web service. But just a while ago, I read about object mocking and now I know that it is a common approach to unit test a class that depends on external resources (like in my case). Now I want to create a unit test for the User model, but then I encountered a design issue: In order for the User model to use a mocked Facebook SDK, I have to inject this mocked Facebook SDK to the User object (probably using a setter). Therefore I can't construct the Facebook SDK inside the User object. I have to construct it outside the User object, and inject the SDK into the User object. The real client of my User model is the application's controller. Therefore I have to construct the Facebook SDK inside the controller and inject it to the user object. Well, this is a problem because I want my controller to be as clean as possible. I want my controller to be ignorant about the application's data source. I'm not good at explaining something systematically, so you'll probably sleeping before reading this last paragraph. But anyway, I want to ask if anyone here ever encountered the same problem as mine? How do you solve this problem? Regards, Andree

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