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  • Rails rake test returns an error message

    - by eakkas
    I am a rails newbie and receive the following message when I run rake test. This is a an application based on rails community engine. I tried creating a test application just to make sure that my gems etc. are fine and I am able to run rake test successfully in that application. It would be great if someone could shed a light on what is going wrong... /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.5/lib/active_support/whiny_nil.rb:52:in `method_missing': undefined method `merge' for nil:NilClass (NoMethodError) from /home/eakkas/NetBeansProjects/hello_ce/vendor/plugins/community_engine/app/controllers/users_controller.rb:17 from /usr/local/lib/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/custom_require.rb:31:in `gem_original_require' from /usr/local/lib/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/custom_require.rb:31:in `require' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.5/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:158:in `require_without_desert' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/desert-0.5.3/lib/desert/ruby/object.rb:8:in `require' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/desert-0.5.3/lib/desert/ruby/object.rb:32:in `__each_matching_file' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/desert-0.5.3/lib/desert/ruby/object.rb:7:in `require' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.5/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:265:in `require_or_load' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/desert-0.5.3/lib/desert/rails/dependencies.rb:27:in `depend_on' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/desert-0.5.3/lib/desert/rails/dependencies.rb:26:in `each' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/desert-0.5.3/lib/desert/rails/dependencies.rb:26:in `depend_on' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.5/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:136:in `require_dependency' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/initializer.rb:414:in `load_application_classes' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/initializer.rb:413:in `each' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/initializer.rb:413:in `load_application_classes' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/initializer.rb:411:in `each' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/initializer.rb:411:in `load_application_classes' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/initializer.rb:197:in `process' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/initializer.rb:113:in `send' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/initializer.rb:113:in `run'

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  • nServiceBus - Not all commands being received by handler

    - by SimonB
    In a test project based of the nServiceBus pub/sub sample, I've replace the bus.publish with bus.send in the server. The server sends 50 messages with a 1sec wait after each 5 (ie 10 burst of 5 messages). The client does not get all the messages. The soln has 3 projects - Server, Client, and common messages. The server and client are hosted via the nServiceBus generic host. Only a single bus is defined. Both client and server are configured to use StructureMap builder and BinarySerialisation. Server Endpoint: public class EndPointConfig : AsA_Publisher, IConfigureThisEndpoint, IWantCustomInitialization { public void Init() { NServiceBus.Configure.With() .StructureMapBuilder() .BinarySerializer(); } } Server Code : for (var nextId = 1; nextId <= 50; nextId++) { Console.WriteLine("Sending {0}", nextId); IDataMsg msg = new DataMsg { Id = nextId, Body = string.Format("Batch Msg #{0}", nextId) }; _bus.SendLocal(msg); Console.WriteLine(" ...sent {0}", nextId); if ((nextId % 5) == 0) Thread.Sleep(1000); } Client Endpoint: public class EndPointConfig : AsA_Client, IConfigureThisEndpoint, IWantCustomInitialization { public void Init() { NServiceBus.Configure.With() .StructureMapBuilder() .BinarySerializer(); } } Client Clode: public class DataMsgHandler : IMessageHandler<IDataMsg> { public void Handle(IDataMsg msg) { Console.WriteLine("DataMsgHandler.Handle({0}, {1}) - ({2})", msg.Id, msg.Body, Thread.CurrentThread.ManagedThreadId); } } Client and Server App.Config: <MsmqTransportConfig InputQueue="nsbt02a" ErrorQueue="error" NumberOfWorkerThreads="1" MaxRetries="5" /> <UnicastBusConfig DistributorControlAddress="" DistributorDataAddress=""> <MessageEndpointMappings> <add Messages="Test02.Messages" Endpoint="nsbt02a" /> </MessageEndpointMappings> </UnicastBusConfig> All run via VisualStudio 2008. All 50 messages are sent - but after the 1st or 2nd batch. only 1 msg per batch is sent? Any ideas? I'm assuming config or misuse but ....?

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  • Determining when stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString has finished

    - by alku83
    I have a UIWebView which loads up an HTML page. This page has two buttons on it, say Exit and Submit. I don't want users to be able to click the Exit button, so once the page has finished loading (ie. webViewDidFinishLoad is called), I use stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString to remove one of these buttons, by manipulating the HTML. I also disable user interaction on the UIWebView on webViewDidStartLoad, and enable it again on webViewDidFinishLoad. The problem I am finding is that stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString takes a second or two to complete, and it seems to be done in it's own thread. So what is happening is that webViewDidFinishLoad is called, user interaction is enabled on the UIWebView, and if the user is quick, they can click the Exit button before stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString has finished. As stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString seems to be on it's own thread with no way to know when it's finished (it doesnt call webViewDidFinishLoad), the only way to completely prevent users from tapping the Exit button that I can see is to only enable user interaction on the UIWebView after some delay, which is unreliable (how can I really know how long to delay for?). Am I correct in that stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString is done on it's on thread, and I have no way of being able to tell when it's finished? Any other suggestions for how to get around this problem? EDIT: In short, what I want to know is if it is possible to disable a UIWebView while stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString is executing, and re-enable the UIWebView when the javascript is finished. EDIT 2: There's an article here which seems to imply you can somehow poll the JS engine to see when it's finished, but I can't find any other references saying the same thing: http://drnicwilliams.com/2008/11/10/to-webkit-or-not-to-webkit-within-your-iphone-app/ EDIT 3 Based on the answer from Brad Smith, it seems that I actually need to know when the UIWebView has finished loading itself after the javascript has executed. It's looking more and more like I just need to put a delay of sorts in there.

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  • Problems migrating databinding in VB.NET from Winforms to ASP.NET 2.0

    - by David
    And this was supposed to be so easy... I have existing business and data access layers that handle the retrieval and update of the data in question. These work great with the existing Winforms application (.Net V2.0) Now, in trying to write a new web-based UI, I'm running into all sorts of problems (last time I wrote asp.net code was in 1.1). Specifically, I can't data bind a text box to a business object. Oh, sure there's the ObjectDataSource but that wants to know how to do CRUD operations on the data. What I'm looking for is something that acts like the 'classic' binding objects so that, in my code, it's as simple as retrieving the object and doing a a refresh. The data component like FormView and DetailsView are so generic-looking that it's ridiculous. The existing application would have tabbed dialogs, text boxes grouped by panels, etc. On top of that, I have a directive to use master pages and unless one control causes it, I can't seem to get the content section to expand. I can't just put a text box 'below' the bottom of "Content1" and have it resize the content section - which gives me the same results as an earlier question I posted when the footer wasn't being 'pushed down' - relative position solved that but doesn't seem to solve it with placing small text boxes in the area. What I want is fairly simple. Something like: bindingobject.datasource = businessdataobject bindingobject.refresh ...and have the text boxes refresh with the new values. Likewise to have 'businessdataobject' properties updated as the user enters new data. I was able to do this with the GridView (grdRequests.DataSource = lstRequests) by making a list of asp:BoundField tags inside the collection of the GridView. Am I tilting at windmills here?

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  • How to return a value from facebook javascript connect api fucntions

    - by dezwald
    I am trying to create wrapper functions on facebook javascript connect api methods. My problem is that i can not return a value within the facebook api FB_RequireFeatures method. i want my isFBConnected() function to return true or false based on if i'm logged into facebook or not. What is happening is that when i return true it returns it to the child function, which makes sense however, my global "login" variable does not get set to true. I've tried setting a timeout to wait until the facebook connect finishes executing and still no luck. any help or other solutions are welcome! my isFBConnected wrapper function is stated below: function isFBConnected(){ var api_key = '<?=$this->apiKey?>'; var channel_path = '<?=$this->xdReceiver?>'; var host_url = '<?=$this->hostUrl?>'; var servicePathShort = '<?=$this->servicePathShort?>'; var login = false; FB_RequireFeatures(["Api"], function(){ // Create an ApiClient object, passing app's API key and // a site relative URL to xd_receiver.htm FB.Facebook.init(api_key, channel_path); var api = FB.Facebook.apiClient; // If FB user session exists - load stats data if(api.get_session()!=null){ if(api.get_session().uid!='' && api.get_session().uid!=undefined){ login = true; alert(api.get_session().uid); return true; } } login = false; return false; }); return false; }

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  • Instanced drawing with OpenGL ES 2.0

    - by Mårten Wikström
    In short: Is it possible to use the gl_InstanceID built-in variable in OpenGL ES 2.0? And, if so, how? Some more info: I want to draw multiple instances of an object using glDrawArraysInstanced and gl_InstanceID, and I want my application to run on multiple platforms, including iOS. The specification clearly says that these features require ES 3.0. According to the iOS Device Compatibility Reference ES 3.0 is only available on a few devices (those based on the A7 GPU; so iPhone 5s, but not on iPhone 5 or earlier). So my first assumption was that I needed to avoid using instanced drawing on older iOS devices. However, further down in the compatibility reference document it says that the EXT_draw_instanced extension is supported for all SGX Series 5 processors (that includes iPhone 5 and 4s). This makes me think that I could indeed use instanced drawing on older iOS devices too, by looking up and using the appropriate extension function (EXT or ARB) for glDrawArraysInstanced. I'm currently just running some test code using SDL and GLEW on Windows so I haven't tested anything on iOS yet. However, in my current setup I'm having trouble using the gl_InstanceID built-in variable in a vertex shader. I'm getting the following error message: 'gl_InstanceID' : variable is not available in current GLSL version Enabling the "draw_instanced" extension in GLSL has no effect: #extension GL_ARB_draw_instanced : enable #extension GL_EXT_draw_instanced : enable The error goes away when I specifically declare that I need ES 3.0 (GLSL 300 ES): #version 300 es Although that seem to work fine on my Windows desktop machine in an ES 2.0 context I doubt that this would work on an iPhone 5. So, shall I abandon the idea of being able to use instanced drawing on older iOS devices?

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  • Is hardware accelerated CSS3 in Safari 4 & 5 broken, or my CSS and JS?

    - by Dan Forys
    Hi all, I've created a somewhat silly site that shows you the expected weather forecast for any city in the World. On webkit based browsers, when the weather is sunny a sun with CSS3 animated rotated sunbeams appears. This works fine on Chrome. An example (sunny, at the moment) page is: http://willitraintoday.co.uk/iceland/reykjavik/ However, when viewed in Safari 4 or 5 on Mac Snow Leopard, when the sun appears the sky background appears over it. Weirder still, as the cloud containing the advert moves across the sky, it squashes the main text. When the cloud reaches the left edge, the text appears wider than normal and starts squashing down again. I've tried: - Disabling the CSS3 animation; it works fine in Safari - Juggling the z-index of various elements; to no avail Is there something up with my Javascript or CSS, or is the hardware accelerated snow leopard Safari broken in this case? It seems not to happen in Safari 4 on Leopard, but I don't have Leopard any more to test myself. Grateful for any opinions!

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  • getting data from tableviewcell to 2nd view

    - by chubsta
    I am very new to this and am trying to learn by creating a few little apps for myself. I have a navigation-based app where the user taps the row to select a film title - i then want the second view to show details of the film. Thanks to a very helpful person here i am getting the results of the row pressed as 'rowTitle' as follows : (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSString *key = [keys objectAtIndex:indexPath.section]; NSArray *nameSection = [names objectForKey:key]; NSString *rowTitle = [nameSection objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; NSLog(@"rowTitle = %@", rowTitle); [tableView deselectRowAtIndexPath:indexPath animated:YES]; I am, however, struggling to make the data at 'rowTitle' available to the 2nd view - basically, if i can get the info - for example rowTitle is "aliens2" - i want to be able to add a new extension to the end of the string returned by 'rowTitle' in order to point to an image (if that makes sense) in the second view... something like tempImageName=[** this is where the info from rowTitle needs to be i suppose**]; tempImageType=@".png"; finalImageName=[tempImageName stringByAppendingString:tempImageType]; does this make sense to anyone (apologies if it doesnt - i know what i want but how to explain it is a little more awkward!) Thanks again for any help anyone can give (and any help as to formatting these questions would be useful too obviously!!)!

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  • web service client authentication

    - by Jack
    I want to consume Java based web service with c#.net client. The problem is, I couldnt authenticate to the service. it didnt work with this: mywebservice.Credentials = new System.Net.NetworkCredential(userid, userpass); I tried to write base class for my client method. public class ClientProtocols : SoapHttpClientProtocol { protected override WebRequest GetWebRequest(Uri uri) { System.Net.WebRequest request = base.GetWebRequest(uri); if (null != Credentials) request.Headers.Add("Authorization", GetAuthHeader()); return request; } protected override WebResponse GetWebResponse(WebRequest request) { WebResponse response = base.GetWebResponse(request); return response; } private string GetAuthHeader() { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); sb.Append("Basic "); NetworkCredential cred = Credentials.GetCredential(new Uri(Url), "Basic"); string s = string.Format("{0}:{1}", cred.UserName, cred.Password); sb.Append(Convert.ToBase64String(Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(s))); return sb.ToString(); } } How can I use this class and authorize to the web service? Thanks.

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  • MySQL Ratings From Two Tables

    - by DirtyBirdNJ
    I am using MySQL and PHP to build a data layer for a flash game. Retrieving lists of levels is pretty easy, but I've hit a roadblock in trying to fetch the level's average rating along with it's pointer information. Here is an example data set: levels Table: level_id | level_name 1 | Some Level 2 | Second Level 3 | Third Level ratings Table: rating_id | level_id | rating_value 1 | 1 | 3 2 | 1 | 4 3 | 1 | 1 4 | 2 | 3 5 | 2 | 4 6 | 2 | 1 7 | 3 | 3 8 | 3 | 4 9 | 3 | 1 I know this requires a join, but I cannot figure out how to get the average rating value based on the level_id when I request a list of levels. This is what I'm trying to do: SELECT levels.level_id, AVG(ratings.level_rating WHERE levels.level_id = ratings.level_id) FROM levels I know my SQL is flawed there, but I can't figure out how to get this concept across. The only thing I can get to work is returning a single average from the entire ratings table, which is not very useful. Ideal Output from the above conceptually valid but syntactically awry query would be: level_id | level_rating 1| 3.34 2| 1.00 3| 4.54 My main issue is I can't figure out how to use the level_id of each response row before the query has been returned. It's like I want to use a placeholder... or an alias... I really don't know and it's very frustrating. The solution I have in place now is an EPIC band-aid and will only cause me problems long term... please help!

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  • How to change the behavior of string objects in web service calls via Windows Communication Foundati

    - by Geri Langlois
    I have third party api's which require string values to be submitted as empty strings. On an asp.net page I can use this code (abbreviated here) and it works fine: public class Customer { private string addr1 = ""; public string Addr1 { get {return addr1;} set {addr1 = value;} } private string addr2 = ""; public string Addr2 { get {return addr2;} set {addr2 = value;} } private string city = ""; public string City { get {return city;} set {city = value;} } } Customer cust = new Customer(); cust.Addr1 = "1 Main St."; cust.City = "Hartford"; int custno = CustomerController.InsertCustomer(cust); The Addr2 field, which was not initialized is still an empty string when inserted. However, using the same code but called it through a web service based on Windows Communication Foundation the Addr2 field is null. Is there a way (or setting) where all string fields, even if uninitialized, would return an empty string (unless, of course, a value was set).

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  • c++ use of winmain()

    - by Jack
    Hi, I just started learning programming for windows in c++. I had this crazy image, that win32 programming is based on calling windows functions and sending parameters to and from them. Like, when you want to create window, you call some win32 function that handles windows GUI and say "Hi, please, create me new window, 100 x 100 px, with two buttons", and that GUI function says "Hi, no problem, when something happends, like user clicks one button, I will change this variable xy located in this location". So, I thought that it will be very similiar to console programming. But the very first instruction surprised me. I always thought that every program executes main() function first. So, when I launch app, windows stores some parameters on top of stack and run that application. So I assumed that initializing main() is just a c++ way to tell the compiler where the first instruction should be. But in win32 programming, there is function called winmain() which starts first. So I am little confused. I thought it´s rule that compiler must have main() to start with, that main just defines where ti start, like some start point identifier. So, please, why is there winmain() function instead of main()? When I thought that C++ programming is as logical as assembler, it confuses me once again.

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  • c++ use of winmain()

    - by Jack
    Hi, I just started learning programming for windows in c++. I had this crazy image, that win32 programming is based on calling windows functions and sending parameters to and from them. Like, when you want to create window, you call some win32 function that handles windows GUI and say "Hi, please, create me new window, 100 x 100 px, with two buttons", and that GUI function says "Hi, no problem, when something happends, like user clicks one button, I will change this variable xy located in this location". So, I thought that it will be very similiar to console programming. But the very first instruction surprised me. I always thought that every program executes main() function first. So, when I launch app, windows stores some parameters on top of stack and run that application. So I assumed that initializing main() is just a c++ way to tell the compiler where the first instruction should be. But in win32 programming, there is function called winmain() which starts first. So I am little confused. I thought it´s rule that compiler must have main() to start with, that main just defines where ti start, like some start point identifier. So, please, why is there winmain() function instead of main()? When I thought that C++ programming is as logical as assembler, it confuses me once again.

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  • Convert SQL to LINQ in MVC3 with Ninject

    - by Jeff
    I'm using MVC3 and still learning LINQ. I'm having some trouble trying to convert a query to LINQ to Entities. I want to return an employee object. SELECT E.EmployeeID, E.FirstName, E.LastName, MAX(EO.EmployeeOperationDate) AS "Last Operation" FROM Employees E INNER JOIN EmployeeStatus ES ON E.EmployeeID = ES.EmployeeID INNER JOIN EmployeeOperations EO ON ES.EmployeeStatusID = EO.EmployeeStatusID INNER JOIN Teams T ON T.TeamID = ES.TeamID WHERE T.TeamName = 'MyTeam' GROUP BY E.EmployeeID, E.FirstName, E.LastName ORDER BY E.FirstName, E.LastName What I have is a few tables, but I need to get only the newest status based on the EmployeeOpertionDate. This seems to work fine in SQL. I'm also using Ninject and set my query to return Ienumerable. I played around with the group by option but it then returns IGroupable. Any guidance on converting and returning the property object type would be appreciated. Edit: I started writing this out in LINQ but I'm not sure how to properly return the correct type or cast this. public IQueryable<Employee> GetEmployeesByTeam(int teamID) { var q = from E in context.Employees join ES in context.EmployeeStatuses on E.EmployeeID equals ES.EmployeeID join EO in context.EmployeeOperations on ES.EmployeeStatusID equals EO.EmployeeStatusID join T in context.Teams on ES.TeamID equals T.TeamID where T.TeamName == "MyTeam" group E by E.EmployeeID into G select G; return q; } Edit2: This seems to work for me public IQueryable<Employee> GetEmployeesByTeam(int teamID) { var q = from E in context.Employees join ES in context.EmployeeStatuses on E.EmployeeID equals ES.EmployeeID join EO in context.EmployeeOperations.OrderByDescending(eo => eo.EmployeeOperationDate) on ES.EmployeeStatusID equals EO.EmployeeStatusID join T in context.Teams on ES.TeamID equals T.TeamID where T.TeamID == teamID group E by E.EmployeeID into G select G.FirstOrDefault(); return q; }

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  • Fast, easy, and secure method to perform DB actions with GET

    - by rob - not a robber
    Hey All, Sort of a methods/best practices question here that I am sure has been addressed, yet I can't find a solution based on the vague search terms I enter. I know starting off the question with "Fast and easy" will probably draw out a few sighs, so my apologies. Here is the deal. I have a logged in area where an ADMIN can do a whole host of POST operations to input data relating to their profile. The way I have data structured is pretty distinct and well segmented in most tables as it relates to the ID of the admin. Now, I have a table where I dump one type of data into and differentiate this data by assigning the ADMIN's unique ID to each record. In other words, all ADMINs have this one type of data writing to this table. I just differentiate by the ADMIN ID with each record. I was planning on letting the ADMIN remove these records by clicking on a link with a query string - obviously using GET. Obviously, the query structure is in the link so any logged in admin could then exploit the URL and delete a competitor's records. Is the only way to safely do this through POST or should I pass through the session info that includes password and validate it against the ADMIN ID that is requesting the delete? This is obviously much more work for me. As they said in the auto repair biz I used to work in... there are 3 ways to do a job: Fast, Good, and Cheap. You can only have two at a time. Fast and cheap will not be good. Good and cheap will not have fast turnaround. Fast and good will NOT be cheap. haha I guess that applies here... can never have Fast, Easy and Secure all at once ;) Thanks in advance...

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  • mysql row locking via php

    - by deezee
    I am helping a friend with a web based form that is for their business. I am trying to get it ready to handle multiple users. I have set it up so that just before the record is displayed for editing I am locking the record with the following code. $query = "START TRANSACTION;"; mysql_query($query); $query = "SELECT field FROM table WHERE ID = \"$value\" FOR UPDATE;"; mysql_query($query); (okay that is greatly simplified but that is the essence of the mysql) It does not appear to be working. However, when I go directly to mysql from the command line, logging in with the same user and execute START TRANSACTION; SELECT field FROM table WHERE ID = "40" FOR UPDATE; I can effectively block the web form from accessing record "40" and get the timeout warning. I have tried using BEGIN instead of START TRANSACTION. I have tried doing SET AUTOCOMMIT=0 first and starting the transaction after locking but I cannot seem to lock the row from the PHP code. Since I can lock the row from the command line I do not think there is a problem with how the database is set up. I am really hoping that there is some simple something that I have missed in my reading. FYI, I am developing on XAMPP version 1.7.3 which has Apache 2.2.14, MySQL 5.1.41 and PHP 5.3.1. Thanks in advance. This is my first time posting but I have gleaned alot of knowledge from this site in the past.

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  • Complicated SQL query

    - by Yandawl
    Please bare with me this is difficult to explain xD http://img90.imageshack.us/i/croppercapture1.png/ This is based on an undergraduate degree course where a student takes many units (say 4 core units and 1 optional unit per year). tblAwardCoreUnits and tblAwardOptUnits store which units are optional and core for which award, hence the relationship to tblAward and tblStudentCoreUnits and tblStudentOptUnits store the particular instances of those units which a particular student is taking. Secondly, a unit can have multiple events (say a lecture and a unit) and each of those events has sessions in which a student can attend, hence tblEvents, tblSessions and tblAttendances. The query I am trying to produce is to get a list of all level one students, grouped by their award that lists the percentage of attendances in all the units in the current level. I've tried and tried with this and the following is the best I've managed to come up with so far... I'd REALLY appreciate any help you can give with this! SELECT tblStudents.enrolmentNo, tblStudents.forename, tblStudents.surname, tblAwards.title, (SELECT COUNT((tblAttendances.attended + tblAttendances.authorisedAbsence)) AS SumOfAttendances FROM tblAttendances INNER JOIN (tblStudents ON tblStudents.enrolmentNo = tblAttendances.enrolmentNo)) / FROM tblUnits, tblAwards INNER JOIN ((tblStudents INNER JOIN tblStudentOptUnit ON tblStudents.studentID = tblStudentOptUnit.studentID) INNER JOIN tblStudentCoreUnit ON tblStudents.studentID = tblStudentCoreUnit.studentID) ON tblAwards.awardID = tblStudents.awardID WHERE (((tblStudents.level)="1") AND ((tblStudents.status)="enrolled")) GROUP BY tblAwards.title ORDER BY tblStudents.forname;

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  • Apache is looking for htaccess and htpasswd files that aren't there

    - by user1094092
    Having an issue where Apache is requesting authentication, and looking for an .htpasswd file, based on instructions from an .htaccess file that's no longer in DocumentRoot. Background: In my DocumentRoot, I'd previously copied an .htaccess and .htpasswd file from another machine (along with all of the other website files). .htaccess contents: AuthType Basic AuthName "Password is required" AuthUserFile /some/directory/that/was/on/the/other/server/not/this/one/.htpasswd Require valid-user Here's the catch: I moved .htaccess and .htpasswd out of DocumentRoot and even renamed the files. There is no longer an .htaccess file in DocumentRoot at all. But, when I try to access localhost from a browser, I am prompted to enter the login and password. When I enter the login and password (from the old, not-in-DocumentRoot .hpasswd file), I get a 500 Internal Server error and the log shows: [error] [client 127.0.0.1] (2)No such file or directory: Could not open password file: /some/directory/that/was/on/the/other/server/not/this/one/.htpasswd This has been quite a puzzle, because there's no longer a .htaccess or .htpasswd file anywhere in DocumentRoot !! Have tried several apache restarts and also tried using a blank .htaccess file in the DocumentRoot. Even grepped the entire machine for references to AuthType Basic to see if I missed anything. httpd.conf looks normal enough...I can post that if needed, but this question seems long enough as it is :) Thanks for any assistance you can provide

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  • Calling a function within a jQuery plug-in

    - by Bob Knothe
    I am in the process of creating my first jQuery plug-in that will format numbers automatically to various international formats. There are a couple functions within the plug-in that strips the strings and re-formats the string that needs to be called from another jQuery script. Based on the plug-in structure below (let me know if you need the entire code) can I call and send the parameter(s) to the stripFormat(ii) and targetFormat(ii, iv) functions? Or do I need to change my plug-in structure and if so how? (function($){ var p = $.extend({ aNum: '0123456789', aNeg: '-', aSep: ',', aDec: '.', aInput: '', cPos: 0 }); $.fn.extend({ AutoFormat: function() { return this.each(function() { $(this).keypress(function (e){ code here; }); $(this).keyup(function (e){ code here; }); // Would like to call this function from another jQuery script - see below. function stripFormat(ii){ code here; } // Would like to call this function from another jQuery script - see below. function targetFormat(ii, iv){ code here; } }); } }); })(jQuery); Methods trying to call the plug-in functions: jQuery(function(){ $("input").change(function (){ //temp function to demonstrate the stripFormat() function. document.getElementById(targetElementid).value = targetFormat(targetElementid, targetValue); }); }); I have tried to use these variations without success: document.getElementById(targetElementid).value = $.targetFormat(targetElementid, targetValue); document.getElementById(targetElementid).value = $.autoFormat().targetFormat(targetElementid, targetValue);

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  • need to change TextBox.Text inside TextChanged, something forces form close

    - by Istrebitel
    I am making a TextBox behave like if it could store a null value. In order to do that, i have a variable NullMode that indicates wether the value is stored is Null, and in TextChanged i set that to false, and on specific user action i set it to true and Text to a value that indicates that there is null inside the textbox. Then, based on NullMode, textbox is drawn differently. Now, i have a semaphore-like approach in order to prevent event handle from firing when i dont need it. Here is how it looks: private void input_TextChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (_preventTextBoxEvents) return; _preventTextBoxEvents = true; //if (NullMode) // Text = ""; NullMode = false; ValidateInput(); _preventTextBoxEvents = false; } Now, if i need to set a textbox text to something that should show while in nullmode, i just set _preventTextBoxEvents before i do to true and it works all right. BUT! I need to also remove the text when user tries to input something into the textbox! So i need to set Text to "". Problem is, if i uncomment that, form is closed after the event handler exits. I cannot prevent it (e.Cancel = true in FormClosing doesnt help!) and do not understand what can be causing it. There is no error message too (and i'm not doing try-catch). My logic, when i do Text="". OnTextChanged should fire, it should call my TextChanged and it will see _preventTextBoxEvents is true and exit, so there would be no stack overflow / infinite recursion. What is going on?

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  • CGI Buffering issue

    - by Punit
    I have a server side C based CGI code as: cgiFormFileSize("UPDATEFILE", &size); //UPDATEFILE = file being uploaded cgiFormFileName("UPDATEFILE", file_name, 1024); cgiFormFileContentType("UPDATEFILE", mime_type, 1024); buffer = malloc(sizeof(char) * size); if (cgiFormFileOpen("UPDATEFILE", &file) != cgiFormSuccess) { exit(1); } output = fopen("/tmp/cgi.tar.gz", "w+"); printf("The size of file is: %d bytes", size); inc = size/(1024*100); while (cgiFormFileRead(file, b, sizeof(b), &got_count) == cgiFormSuccess) { fwrite(b,sizeof(char),got_count,output); i++; if(i == inc && j<=100) { ***inc_pb*** = j; i = 0; j++; // j is the progress bar increment value } } cgiFormFileClose(file); retval = system("mkdir /tmp/update-tmp;\ cd /tmp/update-tmp;\ tar -xzf ../cgi.tar.gz;\ bash -c /tmp/update-tmp/update.sh"); However, this doesn't work the way as is seen above. Instead of printing 1,2,...100 to progress_bar.txt one by one it prints at ONE GO, seems it buffers and then writes to the file. fflush() also didn't work. Any clue/suggestion would be really appreciated.

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  • Remove application entry from switch-app menu

    - by bdhar
    What am I trying to achieve? I am writing a windows-form based application in C# .NET 2.0. The application should behave like this: No form should be visible; just a system tray icon is the entire application. So, I have to hide the form during startup and make a NotifyIcon available in the system tray with a ContextMenuStrip attached to it. What have I done so far? I have created a Windows application with the default form's properties WindowState-Minimized and ShowInTaskbar-false. Added a NotifyIcon and attached a ContextMenuStrip to it. What's happening? The application starts as a system tray icon and the form is hidden. So far so good. But when I am working with other applications and when I switch between other application using the Alt-Tab combination in Windows, the application icon appears in the switch-application menu; and when I select my application, the form appears. What's expected? The application should not be available in the switch-application menu; because, the form is empty and there is no functionality attached to it. All that is needed is the system-tray icon. How to hide the application entry from the switch-application menu? Thanks.

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  • Using javascript and php together

    - by EmmyS
    I have a PHP form that needs some very simple validation on submit. I'd rather do the validation client-side, as there's quite a bit of server-side validation that happens to deal with writing form values to a database. So I just want to call a javascript function onsubmit to compare values in two password fields. This is what I've got: function validate(form){ var password = form.password.value; var password2 = form.password2.value; alert("password:"+password+" password2:" + password2); if (password != password2) { alert("not equal"); document.getElementByID("passwordError").style.display="inline"; return false; } alert("equal"); return true; } The idea being that a default-hidden div containing an error message would be displayed if the two passwords don't match. The alerts are just to display the values of password and password2, and then again to indicate whether they match or not (will not be used in production code). I'm using an input type=submit button, and calling the function in the form tag: <form action="<?php echo $_SERVER['PHP_SELF']; ?>" method="post" onsubmit="return validate(this);"> Everything is alerting as expected when entering non-matching values. I would have hoped (and assumed, based on past use) that if the function returned false, the actual submit would not occur. And yet, it is. I'm testing by entering non-matching values in the password fields, and the alerts clearly show me the values and the not equal result, but the actual form action is still occurring and it's trying to write to my database. I'm pretty new at PHP; is there something about it that will not let me combine with javascript this way? Would it be better to use an input type=button and include submit() in the function itself if it returns true?

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  • Skipping the BufferedReader readLine() method in java

    - by DDP
    Is there a easy way to skip the readLine() method in java if it takes longer than, say, 2 seconds? Here's the context in which I'm asking this question: public void run() { boolean looping = true; while(looping) { for(int x = 0; x<clientList.size(); x++) { try { Comm s = clientList.get(x); String str = s.recieve(); // code that does something based on the string in the line above } // other stuff like catch methods } } } Comm is a class I wrote, and the receive method, which contains a BufferedReader called "in", is this: public String recieve() { try { if(active) return in.readLine(); } catch(Exception e) { System.out.println("Comm Error 2: "+e); } return ""; } I've noticed that the program stops and waits for the input stream to have something to read before continuing. Which is bad, because I need the program to keep looping (as it loops, it goes to all the other clients and asks for input). Is there a way to skip the readLine() process if there's nothing to read? I'm also pretty sure that I'm not explaining this well, so please ask me questions if I'm being confusing.

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  • template files in python

    - by saminny
    I am trying to use python for translating a set of templates to a set of configuration files based on values taken from a main configuration file. However, I am having certain issues. Consider the following example of a template file. file1.cfg.template %(CLIENT1)s %(HOST1)s %(PORT1)d C %(COMPID1)s %(CLIENT2)s %(HOST2)s %(PORT2)d C %(COMPID2)s This file contains an entry for each client. There are hundreds of config files like this and I don't want to have logic for each type of config file. Python should do the replacements and generate config files automatically given a set of global values read from a main xml config file. However, in the above example, if CLIENT2 does not exist, how do I delete that line? I expect Python would generate the config file using the following simple code: os.open("file1.cfg.template").read() & myhash where myhash is hash of all configuration parameters which may not contain CLIENT2 at all. In the case it does not contain CLIENT2, I want that line to disappear from the file. Is it possible to insert some 'IF' block in the file and have python evaluate it? Thanks for your help. Any suggestions most welcome.

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