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  • Jquery $.get against ASP.NET MVC not working in Opera and Firefox

    - by codelove
    Let me first put the code snippets here. I am just using the ASP.NET MVC project Visual Studio creates out of the box. So I am just putting the snippets I added to it: Site.master's head section: <head runat="server"> <title><asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="TitleContent" runat="server" /></title> <script src="../../Scripts/jquery-1.3.2.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <link href="../../Content/Site.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <script src="../../Scripts/test.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript">$(document).ready(ready);</script> </head> Content of test.js: function ready(){ $.get("/Home/TestAjax", ajaxResponse); } function ajaxResponse(data){ alert("got response from server: " + data); } Method in HomeController: public String TestAjax() { if (Request.IsAjaxRequest()) { return "Got ajax request!"; } else { return "Non-ajax request"; } } Now the problem I am seeing in Firefox 3.5.30729 (Firebug) is when the ajax request goes out, IIS 7 on the remote box sends Http 302 back, which does the redirect and forces another get request, but it is not asynchronous. Opera also doesn't work so I assume it is the same problem. However, above code works just fine in IE 8, Chrome, and Safari. On localhost all of the above browsers work as expected including Firefox and Opera -- they all receive "Got ajax request!" as the response from the server. Anybody have any ideas what's going on here and how to fix it? I am looking for a real solution or at least explanation as to what is going on and why.

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  • Dynamic where clause using Linq to SQL in a join query in a MVC application

    - by jhoefnagels
    Dear .Net Linq experts, I am looking for a way to query for products in a catalog using filters on properties which have been assigned to the product based on the category to which the product belongs. So I have the following entities involved: Products -Id -CategoryId Categories [Id] Properties [Id, CategoryId] PropertyValues [Id, PropertyId] ProductProperties [ProductId, PropertyValueId] When I ad a product to the catalog, multiple ProductProperties will be added based on the category and I would like to be able to filter all products from a category by selecting values for one or more properties. I will gather all filters, which I will hold in a list, by reading the URL. Now it is time to actually get the products based on multiple properties and I have been trying to find the right strategy but untill now it does not really work. Is there a way to make this work without writing SQL? I was trying something like this: productsInCategory = ProductRepository.Where(p => p.Category.Name == category); foreach (PropertyFilter pf in filterList) { productsInCategory = (from product in productsInCategory join pp in ProductPropertyRepository on product.Id equals pp.ProductId where pp.PropertyValueId == pf.ValueId select product); }

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  • Elmah on a WebServer

    - by Subbarao
    I Setup Elmah to work on a website. It works fine on my local machine but when I moved it to a web server I get this exception Configuration Error Description: An error occurred during the processing of a configuration file required to service this request. Please review the specific error details below and modify your configuration file appropriately. Parser Error Message: Unrecognized configuration section elmah/security. Source Error: Line 110: </connectionStrings> Line 111: <elmah> Line 112: <security allowRemoteAccess="1" /> Line 113: <errorLog type="Elmah.SqlErrorLog, Elmah" connectionStringName="CadaretGrantConnectionString"/> Line 114: <!-- Don't log 404 --> It shows me a error at Line 112. What should be done in order to get Elmah to work with remote access? Below is my configuration <elmah> <security allowRemoteAccess="1" /> <errorLog type="Elmah.SqlErrorLog, Elmah" connectionStringName="ConnectionString"/> <!-- Don't log 404 --> <errorFilter> <test> <equal binding="HttpStatusCode" value="404" valueType="Int32"/> </test> </errorFilter> </elmah>

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  • Type error while trying to implement the (>>=) function in order to create a custom monad transforme

    - by CharlieP
    Hello, I'm trying to create a monad transformer for a future project, but unfortunately, my implementation of the Monad typeclasse's (=) function doesn't work. First of all, here is the underlying monad's implementation : newtype Runtime a = R { unR :: State EInfo a } deriving (Monad) Here, the implementation of the Monad typeclasse is done automatically by GHC (using the GeneralizedNewtypeDeriving language pragma). The monad transformer is defined as so : newtype RuntimeT m a = RuntimeT { runRuntimeT :: m (Runtime a) } The problem comes from the way I instanciate the (=) function of the Monad typeclasse : instance (Monad m) => Monad (RuntimeT m) where return a = RuntimeT $ (return . return) a x >>= f = runRuntimeT x >>= id >>= f The way I see it, the first >>= runs in the underlying m monad. Thus, runRuntimeT x >>= returns a value of type Runtime a (right ?). Then, the following code, id >>=, should return a value of type a. This value is the passed on to the function f of type f :: (Monad m) => a -> RuntimeT m b. And here comes the type problem : the f function's type doesn't match the type required by the (=) function. Jow can I make this coherent ? I can see why this doesn't work, but I can't manage to turn it into something functionnal. Thank you for you help, and do not hesitate to correct any flaws in my message, Charlie P.

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  • Boost bind with asio::placeholders::error

    - by Leandro
    Why it doesn't work? --- boost_bind.cc --- #include #include #include void func1 (const int& i) { } void func2 (const ::asio::error_code& e) { } int main () { ::boost::function f1 = ::boost::bind (&func1, 1); // it doesn't work! ::boost::function f2 = ::boost::bind (&func2, ::asio::placeholders::error); return 0; } This is the error: while_true@localhost:~ g++ -lpthread boost_bind.cc -o boost_bind In file included from boost_bind.cc:2: /usr/include/boost/bind.hpp: In member function ‘void boost::_bi::list1::operator()(boost::_bi::type, F&, A&, int) [with F = void (*)(const asio::error_code&), A = boost::_bi::list0, A1 = boost::arg (*)()]’: /usr/include/boost/bind/bind_template.hpp:20: instantiated from ‘typename boost::_bi::result_traits::type boost::_bi::bind_t::operator()() [with R = void, F = void (*)(const asio::error_code&), L = boost::_bi::list1 (*)()]’ /usr/include/boost/function/function_template.hpp:152: instantiated from ‘static void boost::detail::function::void_function_obj_invoker0::invoke(boost::detail::function::function_buffer&) [with FunctionObj = boost::_bi::bind_t (*)() , R = void]’ /usr/include/boost/function/function_template.hpp:904: instantiated from ‘void boost::function0::assign_to(Functor) [with Functor = boost::_bi::bind_t (*)() , R = void]’ /usr/include/boost/function/function_template.hpp:720: instantiated from ‘boost::function0::function0(Functor, typename boost::enable_if_c::type) [with Functor = boost::_bi::bind_t (*)() , R = void]’ /usr/include/boost/function/function_template.hpp:1040: instantiated from ‘boost::function::function(Functor, typename boost::enable_if_c::type) [with Functor = boost::_bi::bind_t (*)() , R = void]’ boost_bind.cc:14: instantiated from here /usr/include/boost/bind.hpp:232: error: no match for ‘operator[]’ in ‘a[boost::_bi::storage1 (*)()::a1_ [with int I = 1]]’ while_true@localhost:~

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  • Are Subversion 1.6 & Xcode 3.2 compatible?

    - by Meltemi
    Trying to get Xcode to work with Subversion server. Server: Subversion upgraded to 1.6.9 (Mac OS X Leopard 10.5.8) Client: Xcode 3.2.1 (Snow Leopard 10.6.2 with Subversion 1.6.5 though not sure that matters) Repository on server is setup and working fine via command line. However, I get an error when trying to create the Repository connection in Xcode: Error: 160043 (Unsupported FS format) Description: Expected FS format '2'; found format '4' a Google search seems to say that the server needs to be updated...but it's running 1.6.9 which is the most current version I'm aware of. Anyone know how to make this work? Is it even possible? I'm well aware of the command line usage but I would like to get Xcode & SVN talking... Revisiting this after some time: Using command line: username$ svn+ssh://hostname/Library/Subversion/Repository/test yields the same result: Description: Expected FS format '2'; found format Can anyone verify that I need to upgrade Subversion on the client machine to match version on server (1.6.9)?!? was hoping i wouldn't have to unless it was a "major" revision (ie. 1.5.x - 1.6.x)

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  • Shell script to emulate warnings-as-errors?

    - by talkaboutquality
    Some compilers let you set warnings as errors, so that you'll never leave any compiler warnings behind, because if you do, the code won't build. This is a Good Thing. Unfortunately, some compilers don't have a flag for warnings-as-errors. I need to write a shell script or wrapper that provides the feature. Presumably it parses the compilation console output and returns failure if there were any compiler warnings (or errors), and success otherwise. "Failure" also means (I think) that object code should not be produced. What's the shortest, simplest UNIX/Linux shell script you can write that meets the explicit requirements above, as well as the following implicit requirements of otherwise behaving just like the compiler: - accepts all flags, options, arguments - supports redirection of stdout and stderr - produces object code and links as directed Key words: elegant, meets all requirements. Extra credit: easy to incorporate into a GNU make file. Thanks for your help. === Clues === This solution to a different problem, using shell functions (?), Append text to stderr redirects in bash, might figure in. Wonder how to invite litb's friend "who knows bash quite well" to address my question? === Answer status === Thanks to Charlie Martin for the short answer, but that, unfortunately, is what I started out with. A while back I used that, released it for office use, and, within a few hours, had its most severe drawback pointed out to me: it will PASS a compilation with no warnings, but only errors. That's really bad because then we're delivering object code that the compiler is sure won't work. The simple solution also doesn't meet the other requirements listed. Thanks to Adam Rosenfield for the shorthand, and Chris Dodd for introducing pipefail to the solution. Chris' answer looks closest, because I think the pipefail should ensure that if compilation actually fails on error, that we'll get failure as we should. Chris, does pipefail work in all shells? And have any ideas on the rest of the implicit requirements listed above?

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  • WPF animation/UI features performance and benchmarking

    - by Rich
    I'm working on a relatively small proof-of-concept for some line of business stuff with some fancy WPF UI work. Without even going too crazy, I'm already seeing some really poor performance when using a lot of the features that I thought were the main reason to consider WPF for UI building in the first place. I asked a question on here about why my animation was being stalled the first time it was run, and at the end what I found was that a very simple UserControl was taking almost half a second just to build its visual tree. I was able to get a work around to the symptom, but the fact that it takes that long to initialize a simple control really bothers me. Now, I'm testing my animation with and without the DropShadowEffect, and the result is night and day. A subtle drop shadow makes my control look so much nicer, but it completely ruins the smoothness of the animation. Let me not even start with the font rendering either. The calculation of my animations when the control has a bunch of gradient brushes and a drop shadow make the text blurry for about a full second and then slowly come into focus. So, I guess my question is if there are known studies, blog posts, or articles detailing which features are a hazard in the current version of WPF for business critical applications. Are things like Effects (ie. DropShadowEffect), gradient brushes, key frame animations, etc going to have too much of a negative effect on render quality (or maybe the combinations of these things)? Is the final version of WPF 4.0 going to correct some of these issues? I've read that VS2010 beta has some of these same issues and that they are supposed to be resolved by final release. Is that because of improvements to WPF itself or because half of the application will be rebuilt with the previous technology?

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  • Inconsistency in passing objects from VBA to .NET via COM

    - by Akash
    I have the following interface defined to expose a .NET class to COM: [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsDual)] [Guid("6A983BCC-5C83-4b30-8400-690763939659")] [ComVisible(true)] public interface IComClass { object Value { get; set; } object GetValue(); void SetValue(object value); } The implementation of this interface is trivial: [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] [Guid("66D0490F-718A-4722-8425-606A6C999B82")] [ComVisible(true)] public class ComClass : IComClass { private object _value = 123.456; public object Value { get { return this._value; } set { this._value = value; } } public object GetValue() { return this._value; } public void SetValue(object value) { this._value = value; } } I have then registered this using RegAsm, and tried to call it from Excel via the following code: Public Sub ComInterop() Dim cc As ComClass Set cc = New ComClass cc.SetValue (555.555) valueByGetter = cc.GetValue valueByProperty = cc.Value cc.Value = 555.555 End Sub When I step throught this code, valueByGetter = 555.5555 and valueByProperty = 555.555 as expected. However, I get an "Object required" runtime error on the final line. Why does setting the value via the setter method work but setting via the property fail? What do I have to change to get the property to work as expected?

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  • Call long running operation in WSS feature OnActivated Event

    - by dirq
    More specifically - How do I reference SPContext in Web Service with [SoapDocumentMethod(OneWay=true)]? We are creating a feature that needs to run a job when a site is created. The job takes about 4 minutes to complete. So, we made a web service that we can call when the feature is activated. This works but we want it to run asynchronously now. We've found the SoapDocumentMethod's OneWay property and that would work awesomely but the SPContext is now NULL. We have our web services in the _vti_bin virtual directory so it's available in each Windows Sharepoint Services site. I was using the SPContext.Current.Web to get the site and perform the long running operation. I wanted to just fire and forget about it by returning a soap response right away and letting the process run. How can I get the current SPContext? I used to be able to do this in my web service: SPWeb mySite = SPContext.Current.Web; Can I get the same context when I have the [SoapDocumentMethod(OneWay=true)] attribute applied to my web service? Or must I recreate the SPWeb from the url? This is similar to this thread: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/340192/webservice-oneway-and-new-spsitemyurl Update: I've tried these two ways but they didn't work: SPWeb targetSite = SPControl.GetContextWeb(this.Context); SPWeb targetSite2 = SPContext.GetContext(this.Context).Web;

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  • InstallUtil Publishing WMI Schema to 64 Bit Directory Instead of 32 Bit Directory

    - by Nick
    This is similar to this question, but it doesn't look like a good solution was ever determined, so I'm opening a new one with clarified details. We wrote a .NET service, which among other things, publishes some of the class hierarchy using WMI. On a 64-Bit machine, we are running the 32-bit version of InstallUtil to install the service. It installs successfully, but when the service runs, we receive the following error message when publishing a WMI class using Instrumentation.Publish() DirectoryNotFoundException - (Could not find a part of the path 'C:\Windows\system32\WBEM\Framework\root\MyNamespace\MyService'.) However, this directory does exist in the C:\Windows\syswow64 directory. If we manually copy that directory structure to the system32 directory, then everything works. However, we are looking for automated solution, because we have this packaged up in an MSI which we distribute onto many servers. We have tried running the 64-Bit version of InstallUtil, to see if that would work, however... and this is the really weird part... it gives us an error on install that says Installing WMI Schema: Started An exception occurred during the Install phase. System.IO.DirectoryNotFoundException: Could not find a part of the path 'C:\Windows\system32\WBEM\Framework\root\MyNamespace\MyService.mof'. It looks as if somehow, the WMI installer flipped around. Has anyone else experienced this, or know of a work around?

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  • Make an image transparent in IE to show non-transparent background

    - by Select0r
    Hi, I'm trying to get this thing to work in IE (any version - works in FF, Opera, Safari, Chrome ...): I have a DIV with a background-image. The DIV also contains an image that should be transparent onMouseOver. The expected behaviour now is that the DIV-background would shine through the transparent image (which it does in all browsers but IE). Instead it looks like the image is getting transparent but on a white background, I can't see the DIV's background through the image. Here's some code: <div><a href="#" class"dragItem"><img /></a></div> And some CSS: .dojoDndItemOver { cursor : pointer; filter : alpha(opacity = 50); opacity : 0.5; -moz-opacity : 0.5; -khtml-opacity : 0.5; } .dragItem:hover { filter : alpha(opacity = 30); opacity : 0.3; -moz-opacity : 0.3; -khtml-opacity : 0.3; background : none; } All of this is embedded in a Dojo Drag-n-Drop-system, so dojoDndItemOver will automatically be set to the DIV on MouseOver, dragItem is set to the href around the image (using the same class on the image directly doesn't work at all as IE doesn't support "hover" on other items that href). Any ideas? Or is it an IE-speciality to just "simulate" transparency on images by somehow just greying them out instead of providing real transparency and showing whatever is beneath?

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  • How to enable and use HTTP PUT and DELETE with Apache2 and PHP?

    - by Andreas Jansson
    Hi, It should be so simple. I've followed every tutorial and forum I could find, yet I can't get it to work. I simply want to build a RESTful API in PHP on Apache2. In my VirtualHost directive I say: <Directory /> AllowOverride All <Limit GET HEAD POST PUT DELETE OPTIONS> Order Allow,Deny Allow from all </Limit> </Directory> Yet every PUT request I make to the server, I get 405 method not supported. Someone advocated using the Script directive, but since I use mod_php, as opposed to CGI, I don't see why that would work. People mention using WebDAV, but to me that seems like overkill. After all, I don't need DAV locking, a DAV filesystem, etc. All I want to do is pass the request on to a PHP script and handle everything myself. I only want to enable PUT and DELETE for the clean semantics. Thanks, Andreas

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  • object_getInstanceVariable works for float, int, bool, but not for double?

    - by Russel West
    I've got object_getInstanceVariable to work as here however it seems to only work for floats, bools and ints not doubles. I do suspect I'm doing something wrong but I've been going in circles with this. float myFloatValue; float someFloat = 2.123f; object_getInstanceVariable(self, "someFloat", (void*)&myFloatValue); works, and myFloatValue = 2.123 but when I try double myDoubleValue; double someDouble = 2.123f; object_getInstanceVariable(self, "someDouble", (void*)&myDoubleValue); i get myDoubleValue = 0. If I try to set myDoubleValue before the function eg. double myDoubleValue = 1.2f, the value is unchanged when I read it after the object_getInstanceVariable call. setting myIntValue to some other value before the getinstancevar function above returns 2 as it should, ie. it has been changed. then I tried Ivar tmpIvar = object_getInstanceVariable(self, "someDouble", (void*)&myDoubleValue); if i do ivar_getName(tmpIvar) i get "someDouble", but myDoubuleValue = 0 still! then i try ivar_getTypeEncoding(tmpIvar) and i get "d" as it should be. So to summarize, if typeEncoding = float, it works, if it is a double, the result is not set but it correctly reads the variable and the return value (Ivar) is also correct. I must be doing something basic wrong that I cant see so I'd appreciate if someone could point it out.

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  • How do I use a dependency on a Perl module installed in a non-standard location?

    - by Kinopiko
    I need to install two Perl modules on a web host. Let's call them A::B and X::Y. X::Y depends on A::B (needs A::B to run). Both of them use Module::Install. I have successfully installed A::B into a non-system location using perl Makefile.PL PREFIX=/non/system/location make; make test; make install Now I want to install X::Y, so I try the same thing perl Makefile.PL PREFIX=/non/system/location The output is $ perl Makefile.PL PREFIX=/non/system/location/ Cannot determine perl version info from lib/X/Y.pm *** Module::AutoInstall version 1.03 *** Checking for Perl dependencies... [Core Features] - Test::More ...loaded. (0.94) - ExtUtils::MakeMaker ...loaded. (6.54 >= 6.11) - File::ShareDir ...loaded. (1.00) - A::B ...missing. ==> Auto-install the 1 mandatory module(s) from CPAN? [y] It can't seem to find A::B in the system, although it is installed, and when it tries to auto-install the module from CPAN, it tries to write it into the system directory (ignoring PREFIX). I have tried using variables like PERL_LIB and LIB on the command line, after PREFIX=..., but nothing I have done seems to work. I can do make and make install successfully, but I can't do make test because of this problem. Any suggestions? I found some advice at http://servers.digitaldaze.com/extensions/perl/modules.html to use an environment variable PERL5LIB, but this also doesn't seem to work: export PERL5LIB=/non/system/location/lib/perl5/ didn't solve the problem.

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  • php cli script hangs with no messages

    - by julio
    Hi-- I've written a PHP script that runs via SSH and nohup, meant to process records from a database and do stuff with them (eg. process some images, update some rows). It works fine with small loads, up to maybe 10k records. I have some larger datasets that process around 40k records (not a lot, I realize, but it adds up to a lot of work when each record requires the download and processing of up to 50 images). The larger datasets can take days to process. Sometimes I'll see in my debug logs memory errors, which are clear enough-- but sometimes the script just appears to "die" or go zombie on me. My tail of the debug log just stops, with no error messages, the tail of the nohup log ends with no error, and the process is still showing in a ps list, looking like this-- 26075 pts/0 S 745:01 /usr/bin/php ./import.php but no work is getting done. Can anyone give me some ideas on why a process would just quit? The obvious things (like a php script timeout and memory issues) are not a factor, as far as I can tell. Thanks for any tips PS-- this is hosted on a godaddy VDS (not my choice). I am sort of suspecting that godaddy has some kind of limits that might kick in on me despite what overrides I put in the code (such as set_time_limit(0);).

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  • I just don't get AudioFileReadPackets

    - by Eric Christensen
    I've tried to write the smallest chunk of code to narrow down a problem. It's now just a few lines and it doesn't work, which makes it pretty clear that I have a fundamental misunderstanding of how to use AudioFileReadPackets. I've read the docs and other examples online, and apparently I'm just not getting. Could you explain it to me? Here's what this block should do: I've previously opened a file. I want to read just one packet - the first one of the file - and then print it. But it crashes on the AudioFileReadPackets line: AudioFileID mAudioFile2; AudioFileOpenURL (audioFileURL, 0x01, 0, &mAudioFile2); UInt32 *audioData2 = (UInt32 *)malloc(sizeof(UInt32) * 1); AudioFileReadPackets(mAudioFile2, false, NULL, NULL, 0, (UInt32*)1, audioData2); NSLog(@"first packet:%i",audioData2[0]); (For clarity, I've stripped out all error handling.) It's the AFRP line that crashes out. (I understand that the third and fourth argument are useful, and in my "real" code, I use them, but they're not required, right? So NULL in this case should work, right?) So then what's going on? Any guidance would be much appreciated. Thanks.

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  • DateChooser is behaving strangly

    - by Tam
    Hi, I'm writing a Flex application and I came accross what I think is a weird problem. I want to create a text box and a DateChooser as the datefield didn't do what I wanted and it's Halo so I can't skin it easily. I want the DateChooser to show when I click on the text input. Here is except from my code: <s:TextInput id="wholeDate" width="100" mouseOver="stopChangeToNormal();" paddingRight="10" click="date1.visible = true" focusOut="date1.visible = false"/> <s:Button label="Go" width="70" /> </s:Panel> <mx:DateChooser id="date1" visible = "false" change="useDate(event);" mouseOver="changeToNormalState = false;" y="{wholeDate.y + buttonsGroup.y + 20}" x="{wholeDate.x + buttonsGroup.x - 175 }" /> The weird thing is that it work as I wanted if I make it visible = "true" to start but if I have it visible="false" it doesn't work! it shows by the date I select doesn't show in the box as it does if I have it as visible="true" but I don't want it to be visible initially. Any ideas? Thanks, Tam

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  • External API function calls AS3 control timeline

    - by giles
    I have function problem using this code (below), the embedded flash movieclip disappears or completely prevents the scrollto.js query to function in DW cs3. Communication between Flash and JavaScript is without problems, it is the call back I can't find to work and more frustratingly, should be simple, as no values are not required. So far, this has been hours of scouring the net without a workable end in sight...ahrr. What is a function for this to work? JavaScript – to call Flash event from HTML button link, placed between head tags function callExternalInterface() var flashMovie = window.document.menu; flashMovie.menu_up(value); menu_up is the string. Does anyone know of workable function for callback?? HTML <div id="btn_up"><a href="#top" name="charDev" id="charDev" onclick="">top</a></div> Pane navigation div that uses Scrollto.js query, and it's this link I need calling back to the embedded "menubtns.swf" (nested in "AS3Menu_javascript.swf") to play 5 frames of this movieclip, via a JS function. Embedded .swf code, using swfobject.js with allowScriptAccess=always <object classid="clsid:D27CDB6E-AE6D-11cf-96B8-444553540000" name="menu"<br/> width="251" height="251" id="menu"> <param name="movie" value="../~Assets/Flash/AS3Menu_javascript.swf" /> <param name="allowScriptAccess" value="always" /> <param name="movie" value="ExternalInterfaceScript.swf" /> <param name="quality" value="high" /> <object type="application/x-shockwave-flash" data="../~Assets/Flash/AS3Menu_javascript.swf" width="250" height="250"> <p>Alternative content</p> </object> </object> AS3 / Flash import flash.external.ExternalInterface;flash.system.Security.allowDomain(/sourceDomain/); ExternalInterface.addCallBack("menu_up", this, resetmenu); function resetmenu(){ gotoAndPlay:("frame label" / "number") }

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  • Custom SSL handling stopped working on Android 2.2 FroYo

    - by Eric
    For my app, Transdroid, I am connecting to remote servers via HTTP and optionally securely via HTTPS. For these HTTPS connections with the HttpClient I am using a custom SSL socket factory implementation to make sure self-signed certificates are working. Basically, I accept everything and ignore every checking of any certificate. This has been working fine for some time now, but it no longer work for Android 2.2 FroYo. When trying to connect, it will return an exception: java.io.IOException: SSL handshake failure: I/O error during system call, Broken pipe Here is how I initialize the HttpClient: SchemeRegistry registry = new SchemeRegistry(); registry.register(new Scheme("http", new PlainSocketFactory(), 80)); registry.register(new Scheme("https", (trustAll ? new FakeSocketFactory() : SSLSocketFactory.getSocketFactory()), 443)); client = new DefaultHttpClient(new ThreadSafeClientConnManager(httpParams, registry), httpParams); I make use of a FakeSocketFactory and FakeTrustManager, of which the source can be found here: http://code.google.com/p/transdroid/source/browse/#svn/trunk/src/org/transdroid/util Again, I don't understand why it suddenly stopped work, or even what the error 'Broken pipe' means. I have seen messages on Twitter that Seesmic and Twidroid fail with SSL enabled on FroYo as well, but am unsure if it's related. Thanks for any directions/help!

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  • NSString sizeWithFont: returning inconsistent results? known bug?

    - by Olof Hedman
    I'm trying to create a simple custom UIView wich contain a string drawn with a single font, but where the first character is slightly larger. I thought this would be easily implemented with two UILabel:s placed next to eachother. I use NSString sizeWithFont to measure my string to be able to lay it out correctly. But I noticed that the font baseline in the returned rectangle varies with +/- 1 pixel depending on the font size I set. Here is my code: NSString* ctxt = [text substringToIndex:1]; NSString* ttxt = [text substringFromIndex:1]; CGSize sz = [ctxt sizeWithFont: cfont ]; clbl = [[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, sz.width, sz.height)]; clbl.text = ctxt; clbl.font = cfont; clbl.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; [contentView addSubview:clbl]; CGSize sz2 = [ttxt sizeWithFont: tfont]; tlbl = [[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(sz.width, (sz.height - sz2.height), sz2.width, sz2.height)]; tlbl.text = ttxt; tlbl.font = tfont; tlbl.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; [contentView addSubview:tlbl]; If I use 12.0 and 14.0 as sizes, it works fine. But if I instead use 13.0 and 15.0, then the first character is 1 pixel too high. Is this a known problem? Any suggestions how to work around it? Creating a UIWebView with a CSS and HTML page seems way overkill for this. and more work to handle dynamic strings. Is that what I'm expected to do?

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  • How to handle ASP.NET application error that occurs on application start and transfer & display erro

    - by Soul_Master
    I know that ASP.NET MVC has error filter attribute to handle specified error type. However, this feature cannot catch any error that occurs when application start. Therefore, I need to add some code to “Application_Error” method for handling this error like the following code. public void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { // At this point we have information about the error var ctx = HttpContext.Current; var exception = ctx.Server.GetLastError(); var errorInfo = "<br>Offending URL: " + ctx.Request.Url + "<br>Source: " + exception.Source + "<br>Message: " + exception.Message + "<br>Stack trace: " + exception.StackTrace; ctx.Response.Write(errorInfo); Server.ClearError(); } Although, this code will works fine, when normal application error occurs like error that occurs in view page. Nevertheless, it does not work when error occurs on application starting because request and response objects are always null. Next, I try to solve this question by setting default redirect in custom errors like the following code. <customErrors mode="On" defaultRedirect="Scripts/ApplicationError.htm"></customErrors> Unfortunately, it does not work because when application receive redirected request, it try to start application again and it throw exception again. How do to solve this problem? Alternatively, Do you have other idea for handling this error. Thanks, PS. The main reason for creating this handler because I want to display error when application cannot connect to other service like database for caching data on application start.

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  • ActiveX control loading but not activating correctly (only when using in Reg Free COM)

    - by embnut
    I have an ActiveX control (created using C#) that I am adding to a form in Visual FoxPro using late binding. It works without problems when I register the control. I want to use reg free COM and created necessary manifest files. Now it load and displays in an inactive state until I double click or programatically activate it. I don't think it has anything to do with the reg free com manifest files. However is there something I need to do to set it up before/after making the late binding call AddObject()? this.AddObject('OleControl1', 'oleControl', 'SomeCompany.SomeOleControl') When I check the OleTypeAllowed Property of the OleControl created by AddObject() it is 1 (Embedded OLE object) instead of -2 (ActiveX object). So the OleControl got instantiated to the wrong type. I also tried the following: DEFINE(d) a subclass of OleControl and set the property OleTypeAllowed = -2. Used late binding to load the control. It did not work as required. The OleTypeAllowed came back as 1 Registered the ActiveX control. Added the ActiveX control to the project as a subclass using the visual editor. Unregistered the control. Used late binding to load the control. It did not work as required. The OleTypeAllowed came back as 1. Is it possible to load the OleControl as a ActiveX control? Any input from VB that I can convert to FoxPro would also be appreciated.

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  • Some general C questions.

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hello. I am trying to fully understand the process pro writing code in some language to execution by OS. In my case, the language would be C and the OS would be Windows. So far, I read many different articles, but I am not sure, whether I understand the process right, and I would like to ask you if you know some good articles on some subjects I couldn´t find. So, what I think I know about C (and basically other languages): C compiler itself handles only data types, basic math operations, pointers operations, and work with functions. By work with functions I mean how to pass argument to it, and how to get output from function. During compilation, function call is replaced by passing arguments to stack, and than if function is not inline, its call is replaced by some symbol for linker. Linker than find the function definition, and replace the symbol to jump adress to that function (and of course than jump back to program). If the above is generally true and I get it right, where to final .exe file actually linker saves the functions? After the main() function? And what creates the .exe header? Compiler or Linker? Now, additional capabilities of C, today known as C standart library is set of functions and the declarations of them, that other programmers wrote to extend and simplify use of C language. But these functions like printf() were (or could be?) written in different language, or assembler. And there comes my next question, can be, for example printf() function be written in pure C without use of assembler? I know this is quite big question, but I just mostly want to know, wheather I am right or not. And trust me, I read a lots of articles on the web, and I would not ask you, If I could find these infromation together on one place, in one article. Insted I must piece by piece gather informations, so I am not sure if I am right. Thanks.

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  • Subview Doesnt AutoSize When Added to Root View Controller

    - by Per
    Hello, I have a root view controller that will have up to 10 or so subviews. I am implementing autorotation/autosize accross the entire app. My problem is this: - When I allocate all the view controllers and add each as a subview to the root controller during startup, everything works as it should. The only problem is that each view controller needs time to initialize. This causes my application to load very slowly. Instead I am trying to allocate the view controllers as they are required. Now I find that if the application goes into Landscape, and I allocate a view controller that is designed in portrait, it will autorotate but the autosize doesnt happen. In other words as soon as the subview is added to the root controller in portrait mode it rotates and sizes correctly (and stays that way). If the subview is added when the root controller is in landscape it rotates but doesnt autosize (and view sizes remain messed up rotating back to portrait) I have tried to force an autosize by calling SetNeedsLayout, SetNeedsDisplay, and LayoutIfNeeded but nothing works. I know i could probably do this manually by determining the root controllers orientation and resizing the subviews appropriately, but this is a lot of work for something that should work automatically. Am I missing something? Any help would be appreciated. My project is an iPad port from an iPhone app, the iPhone app doesnt rotate so Im not sure if this may be something wrong with the 3.2 beta.

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