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  • Structure of NAnt build scripts and solution structure on build server

    - by llykke
    We're in the process of streamlining/automating build, integration and unit testing as well as deployment. Our software is developed in Visual Studio where we have use both C# and VB.NET in our projects. A single project can be contained within multiple solutions (i.e. Utils project is used in both ProductA and ProductB solutions) For historical reasons our code repository isn't as well structured as one could have hoped for. E.g. Utils project might be located under ProductA solution (because that's were it was first used) but it was later deemed useful for productB development and merely just included into the solution of productB (but still located in a subdirectory of productA). I would like to use continous integration testing and have setup a CC.NET build server where I intend to use NAnt for creating the actual builds. Question 1: How should I structure my builds on the buildserver? Should I instruct CC.NET to retrieve all the projects for productB into a single library e.g. a file structure similar to -ProductB --Utils --BetterUtils --Data or should I opt for a filestructure similar to this -ProductA --Utils -ProductB --BetterUtils --Data and then just have the NAnt build scripts handle the references? Our references in VS doesn't match the actual location in the code repository so it's not possible today to just check-out productB solution and build it straight away (unfortunately). I hope this question makes sense? Question 2: Is it better to check out all the source code located in different projects into a single file folder (whilst retaining some kind of structure) and then build every thing at once or have multiple projects in CC.NET and then let the CC.NET server handle dependencies? Example: Should I have a seperate project in CC.NET for monitoring the automated build/test of Utils project when it's never released on it's own? Or should I just build/test it whilst building it as part of ProductB? I hope the above makes sense and that you can provide me with some arguments for using either option. We're nowhere near an ideal source code repository structure and I would prefer if I can resolve the lack of repository structure on the build server instead of having to clean up the structure of our repository. Switching away from VSS is (unfortunately) not an option. Right now our build consists of either deploying via VS clickonce or pressing F5 so just getting the build automated would be a huge step up for us. Thanks

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  • searching article for names in the database before submitting article to the database

    - by zurna
    I want to create a function that will search through a text, find names those match with existing names in the database and add links to those names before submitting the article to the database. i.e. text: Chelsea are making a change now as goalscorer Nicolas Anelka is replaced by in-form Florent Malouda who can do no wrong lately. Nicolas Anelka exists in the database in the Players table with ID column equals to 1. I want text to be converted to Chelsea are making a change now as goalscorer a href="player.asp=ID=1"Nicolas Anelka/a is replaced by in-form Florent Malouda who can do no wrong lately. I know my code is logically wrong but I could build the correct logic. Function PlayerStats (ArticleDesc) If IsNull(ArticleDesc) Then Exit Function SQL = "SELECT PlayerID, PlayerName" SQL = SQL & " FROM Players" ' SQL = SQL & " WHERE PlayerID = "& &"" Set objPlayer = objConn.Execute(SQL) Do While NOT objPlayer.EOF ArticleDesc = Replace(ArticleDesc, objPlayer("PlayerName"), "!"&objPlayer("PlayerName")&"!") PlayerStats = ArticleDesc Loop objPlayer.MoveNext End Function

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  • Using Windows Integrated Auth & Anonymous during redirect on IIS7

    - by James Black
    I have an application we bought that I need to integrate, and it uses jakarta connection to get to the application from IIS. So, the basic operation is: user goes to the url Gets redirected to the application SSO is enabled, so redirected back to IIS for fetching of domain credentials Back to application If username is blank show login page, else let user in. This is a simplification of all the steps, but the basic idea is here. My difficulty is that I need both Windows Integrated Auth and anonymous on, as some users won't have credentials, and need to be prompted for a username/password. I have looked at: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2068546/iis-windows-authentication-before-anonymous already, but the user doesn't get to click on a link to decide. The application goes back to IIS looking for login.aspx and from there I want to either get their domain credentials or pass back to the application empty strings to signify that there are no credentials. It seems this isn't going to be possible though as if anonymous is on it doesn't make the 401 request so the credentials aren't passed. If I can't get this to work with just using an ASP page, could it be done using an ISAPI filter, or a module?

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  • Problem with sitecore home page

    - by Mirage
    hi guys i am new to site core and asp.net and iis. I have installed all on my server 2008. When i got to /localhost/sitecore/Website/sitecore. i get following error. Can anyone help me what is this and what should i need to do Description: An error occurred during the processing of a configuration file required to service this request. Please review the specific error details below and modify your configuration file appropriately. Parser Error Message: It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level. This error can be caused by a virtual directory not being configured as an application in IIS. Source Error: Line 2575: <add verb="GET,HEAD" path="ScriptResource.axd" validate="false" type="System.Web.Handlers.ScriptResourceHandler, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> Line 2576: </httpHandlers> Line 2577: <membership defaultProvider="sitecore"> -- this line shows errr Line 2578: <providers> Line 2579: <clear />

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  • jQuery problem with change event and IE8

    - by Marcus
    There is a bug in jQuery 1.4.2 that makes change event on select-element getting fired twice when using both DOM-event and a jQuery event, and this only on IE7/8. Here is the test code: <html> <head> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-1.4.2.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> jQuery(document).ready(function() { jQuery(".myDropDown").change(function() { }); }); </script> </head> <body> <select class="myDropDown" onchange="alert('hello');"> <option>1</option> <option>2</option> <option>3</option> <option>4</option> </select> </body> </html> Ticket to actual bug: http://dev.jquery.com/ticket/6593 This causes alot of trouble for us in our application cause we use both ASP.NET-events mixed with jQuery and once you hook up a change event on any element every select (dropdown) gets this double firing problem. Is there anyone who knows a way around this in the meantime until this issue is fixed?

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  • Run ajax scripts on page when navigating with ajax?

    - by Oskar Kjellin
    I got a bit of an issue in my ASP.NET MVC project. I have a chat div in the bottom right corner (like facebook), and of course I do not want this to reload when navigating to all my navigation is ajax. The problem I am facing is that I use the following code on the top of the view page: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('#divTS').hide(); $('a#showTS').click(function() { $('#divTS').slideToggle(400); return false; }); }); </script> The problem is that this code is only loaded with ajax and does not seem to fire? I would like to run all scripts in the newly loaded view, just as if I hadn't navigated with ajax. I cannot put this in the site.master as it only loads once and then probably the divs I am trying to hide doesn't exist. Is there a good way to run scripts in the ajax-loaded div?

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  • refactor LINQ TO SQL custom properties that instantiate datacontext

    - by Thiago Silva
    I am working on an existing ASP.NET MVC app that started small and has grown with time to require a good re-architecture and refactoring. One thing that I am struggling with is that we've got partial classes of the L2S entities so we could add some extra properties, but these props create a new data context and query the DB for a subset of data. This would be the equivalent to doing the following in SQL, which is not a very good way to write this query as oppsed to joins: SELECT tbl1.stuff, (SELECT nestedValue FROM tbl2 WHERE tbl2.Foo = tbl1.Bar), tbl1.moreStuff FROM tbl1 so in short here's what we've got in some of our partial entity classes: public partial class Ticket { public StatusUpdate LastStatusUpdate { get { //this static method call returns a new DataContext but needs to be refactored var ctx = OurDataContext.GetContext(); var su = Compiled_Query_GetLastUpdate(ctx, this.TicketId); return su; } } } We've got some functions that create a compiled query, but the issue is that we also have some DataLoadOptions defined in the DataContext, and because we instantiate a new datacontext for getting these nested property, we get an exception "Compiled Queries across DataContexts with different LoadOptions not supported" . The first DataContext is coming from a DataContextFactory that we implemented with the refactorings, but this second one is just hanging off the entity property getter. We're implementing the Repository pattern in the refactoring process, so we must stop doing stuff like the above. Does anyone know of a good way to address this issue?

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  • Using DPAPI / ProtectedData in a web farm environment with the User Store

    - by Lachman
    I was wondering if anyone had successfully used DPAPI with a user store in a web farm enviroment? Because our application is a recently converted from 1.1 to 2.0 asp.net app, we're using a custom wrapper which directly calls the CryptUnprotect methods. But this should be the same as the ProtectedData method available in the 2.0 framework. Because we are operating in a web farm environment, we can't guarantee that the machine that did the encryption is going to be the one decrypting it. (Also because machine failures shouldn't destroy our encrypted data). So what we have is a serviced component that runs in a service under a particular user account on each one of our web boxes. This user is a set up to have a roaming profile, as per the recomendation. The problem we have is that info encrypted on one machine can not be decrypted on another, this fails with the win32 error 'Key not valid for use in specified state'. I suspect that this is because I've made a mistake by having the encryption service running as the user on multiple machines, hence keeping the user logged in on more than one machine at the same time. If this is the problem, how are other using DPAPI with the User Store in a web farm environment?

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  • ASP-style tags for Perl web development?

    - by Alex R
    I feel like I'm traveling 10 years back in time by asking this, but... Are there any modules, patches, or any "new" version of Perl (released in the last 10 years) to enable writing web-oriented Perl scripts using ASP-style tags? e.g. from ASP/JSP some html <% some code %> more HTML e.g. from PHP some html <? some code ?> more HTML Please don't worry about "why" I'm asking this... It's related to programming language research.

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  • Publishing to live website

    - by Alienfluid
    Hey there, My friend and I are collaborating on a ASP.NET powered website. To develop it locally, we use Visual Web Developer Express (good enough for our needs). Subversion (using Tortoise SVN) is our source control of choice with the repository residing on Unfuddle.com. We run into problems when we need to update the live site - since there's no version control on it. Currently we use the "Copy to Website" feature in VWD which copies the files using FTP. Here are some problems: VWD only keeps track of files uploaded by one user, so if the other user uploads a newer version of a file to the live site, VWD on my side cannot tell whether the live version of the file is newer or mine is. There's no way to tell whether all the latest changes are available on the live site. We have to be careful not to party all over the shared web.config file since the other user's local DB settings are different from mine, and of course, the live DB settings are a whole other story! What do you guys use to publish to a live site? Does anything out there tie into Subversion so that we can automate the process and always guarantee that the live site is synced to a change list number? Also, how do you manage the different web.config file settings? Thanks!

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  • How to stop MVC caching the results of invoking and action method?

    - by Trey Carroll
    I am experiencing a problem with IE caching the results of an action method. Other articles I found were related to security and the [Authorize] attribute. This problem has nothing to do with security. This is a very simple "record a vote, grab the average, return the avg and the number of votes" method. The only slightly interesting thing about it is that it is invoked via Ajax and returns a Json object. I believe that it is the Json object that is getting catched. When I run it from FireFox and watch the XHR traffic with Firebug, everything works perfectly. However, under IE 8 the "throbber" graphic doesn't ever have time to show up and the page elements that display the "new" avg and count that are being injected into the page with jQuery are never different. I need a way to tell MVC to never cache this action method. This article seems to address the problem, but I cannot understand it: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1441467/prevent-caching-of-attributes-in-asp-net-mvc-force-attribute-execution-every-tim I need a bit more context for the solution to understand how to extend AuthorizationAttribute. Please address your answer as if you were speaking to someone who lacks a deep understanding of MVC even if that means replying with an article on some basics/prerequisites that are required. Thanks, Trey Carroll

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  • Flush separate Castle ActiveRecord Transaction, and refresh object in another Transaction

    - by eanticev
    I've got all of my ASP.NET requests wrapped in a Session and a Transaction that gets commited only at the very end of the request. At some point during execution of the request, I would like to insert an object and make it visible to other potential threads - i.e. split the insertion into a new transaction, commit that transaction, and move on. The reason is that the request in question hits an API that then chain hits another one of my pages (near-synchronously) to let me know that it processed, and thus double submits a transaction record, because the original request had not yet finished, and thus not committed the transaction record. So I've tried wrapping the insertion code with a new SessionScope, TransactionScope(TransactionMode.New), combination of both, flushing everything manually, etc. However, when I call Refresh on the object I'm still getting the old object state. Here's some code sample for what I'm seeing: Post outsidePost = Post.Find(id); // status of this post is Status.Old using (TransactionScope transaction = new TransactionScope(TransactionMode.New)) { Post p = Post.Find(id); p.Status = Status.New; // new status set here p.Update(); SessionScope.Current.Flush(); transaction.Flush(); transaction.VoteCommit(); } outsidePost.Refresh(); // refresh doesn't get the new status, status is still Status.Old Any suggestions, ideas, and comments are appreciated!

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  • Database design for credit based purchases

    - by FreshCode
    I need an elegant way to implement credit-based purchases for an online store with a small variety of products which can be purchased using virtual credit or real currency. Alternatively, products could only be priced in credits. Previous work I have implemented credit-based purchasing before using different product types (eg. Credit, Voucher or Music) with post-order processing to assign purchased credit to users in the form of real currency, which could subsequently be used to discount future orders' charge totals. This worked fairly well as a makeshift solution, but did not succeed in disconnecting the virtual currency from the real currency, which is what I'd like to do, since spending credits is psychologically easier for customers than spending real currency. Design I need guidance on designing the database correctly with support for the simultaneous bulk purchase of credits at a discount along with real currency products. Alternatively, should all products be priced in credits and only credit have a real currency value? Existing Database Design Partial Products table: ProductId Title Type UnitPrice SalePrice Partial Orders table: OrderId UserId (related to Users table, not shown) Status Value Total Partial OrderItems table (similar to CartItems table): OrderItemId OrderId (related to Orders table) ProductId (related to Products table) Quantity UnitPrice SalePrice Prospective UserCredits table: CreditId UserId (related to Users table, not shown) Value (+/- value. Summed over time to determine saldo.) Date I'm using ASP.NET MVC and LINQ-to-SQL on a SQL Server database.

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  • Calling SubmitChanges on DataContext does not update database.

    - by drasto
    In C# ASP.NET MVC application I use Link to SQL to provide data for my application. I have got simple database schema like this: In my controller class I reference this data context called Model (as you can see on the right side of picture in properties) like this: private Model model = new Model(); I've got a table (List) of Series rendered on my page. It renders properly and I was able to add delete functionality to delete Series like this: public ActionResult Delete(int id) { model.Series.DeleteOnSubmit(model.Series.SingleOrDefault(s => s.ID == id)); model.SubmitChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } Where appropriate action link looks like this: <%: Html.ActionLink("Delete", "Delete", new { id=item.ID })%> Also create (implemented in similar way) works fine. However edit does not work. My edit looks like this: public ActionResult Edit(int id) { return View(model.Series.SingleOrDefault(s => s.ID == id)); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(Series series) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { UpdateModel(series); series.Title = series.Title + " some string to ensure title has changed"; model.SubmitChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } I have controlled that my database has a primary key set up correctly. I debugged my application and found out that everything works as expected until the line with model.SubmitChanges();. This command does not apply the changes of Title property(or any other) against the database. Please help.

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  • Best practice when using WebMethods and session

    - by Abdel Olakara
    Hi all, I want to reduce postback in one of my application page and use ajax instead. I used the WebMethod to do so.. I have a static WebMethod that needs to access the session variables and modify. and on the client side, i am calling this method using jQuery. I tried accessing the session as follows: [WebMethod] public static void TestWebMethod() { if (HttpContext.Current.Session["pitems"] != null) { log.Debug("Using the existing list"); Product prod = (Product)HttpContext.Current.Session["pitems"]; List<Configs> confs = cart.GetConfigs(); foreach (Configs citem in confis) { log.Info(citem.Description); } } log.Info("Inside the method!"); } The values are displayed correctly and seems to work.. but i would like to know if this practice is allowed as the method is a static methods and would like to know how it will behave if multiple people access the application. I would also like to know how developers do these kind of tasks in ASP if this is not the right method. Thanks in advance for your suggestions and ideas, Abdel Olakara

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  • Error calling webservice using JSONP + jquery with IE on remote domain

    - by Jay Heavner
    I have a .Net webservice on my app server that returns data formatted as JSONP. I have an HTML test client on that server which works fine using IE, Firefox, & Chrome. If I copy the same HTML to my workstation or deploy to my webserver it works with Firefox & Chrome but in IE I'm getting two javascript errors. Message: Object doesn't support this property or method Line: 1 Char: 1 Code: 0 URI: http://mydomain/WebServices/LyrisProxy/Services/Lyris/JSONP/Lyris.asmx/AddUser?lyrisInstance="1"&email="[email protected]"&fullName="My Name"&lyrisList="listname"&format=json&callback=jsonp1274109819864&_=1274109829665 Message: Member not found. Line: 59 Char: 209 Code: 0 URI: http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js I'm kind of at loss as to what to do to fix this.

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  • How best to embed multiple Flash Player instances using swfobject via a usercontrol?

    - by panamack
    I have a ListView on a Page within a MasterPage and some very ugly ugly autogenerated IDs. Such as..."ctl00_workbenchPlaceHolder_ListView1_ctrl1_LibItem2One" Using swfobject.embedSWF(...) requires me to hand over the id of a div on my page that can be replaced with object/embed markup depending on the browser context. My aim is to show the user a collection of video's they have uploaded to their website so they can review them and change some related data if desired. Hence the ListView which is populated via a SQLDataSource which currently provides a number of URLs pointing to .flv files. But it ain't gonna work if I put a <div id="replaceme"></div>' in my user control because I may then have more than one id="replaceme" and poor swfobject won't like it. So my evil solution is to put an <asp:Literal> in my usercontrol and build the script, function name and div tag id as a string. ApplyVideoConfiguration is called if the library object retreived from the database is a video and switches to the relevant View of a MultiView control. protected void ApplyVideoConfiguration() { MultiViewLibItem.ActiveViewIndex = 3; string functionName = "MakeFlashFor_" + this.ClientID; string divId = "fp" + this.ClientID; VideoScriptLiteral.Text = "<script type=\"text/javascript\">" + "Sys.Application.add_load(" + functionName + ");" + "function " + functionName + "(){" + "swfobject.embedSWF('PanamaVideoThumbnail.swf', '" + divId + "', '140', '127', '10');" + "};" + "</script>" + "<div id=\"" + divId + "\" ></div>" ; } I was wondering, just how bad a solution is this, I'm really completely inexperienced when it comes to best practices but my instincts are telling me this is bad, although it does succeed in the aim of embedding some Flash Player instances. Can anyone help me make it beautiful?

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  • Determining which form input failed validation?

    - by Alastair Pitts
    I am designing a creation wizard in ASP.NET MVC 1 and instead of posting back each step, I'm using javascript to toggle the display of the different steps divs. This is a quick sample of the code, just to explain. <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <div id="wizardStep1"> <% Html.RenderPartial("CreateStep1", Model); %> </div> <div id="wizardStep2"> <% Html.RenderPartial("CreateStep2", Model); %> </div> <div id="wizardStep3"> <% Html.RenderPartial("CreateStep3", Model); %> </div> </fieldset> <% } %> I have javascript that just toggles the visibility of the divs, with each partial view containing a different section of the input form (which is pretty large by itself) My question is, if the form fails validation and I reload the page with the validation errors, is there a way for me to determine which div contains the error? Either in javascript or other? Failing that, is there a good client-side validation library for MVC 1? Ideally I'd love to move to MVC2 and the client side validation built into that, but I am required to use MVC1

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  • How to "escape" the JavaScript class keyword to specify a CSS class value.

    - by Robert Claypool
    C# allows a reserved word to be used as a property name via the ampersand. e.g. // In ASP.NET MVC, we use @class to define // the css class attribute for some HtmlHelper methods. var htmlObject = new { readonly = "readonly", @class = "ui-state-highlight" } I want to do the same in JavaScript. e.g. function makeGrid(grid, pager) { grid.jqGrid({ caption: 'Configurations', colNames: ['Id', 'Name'], colModel: [ { name: 'Id', index: 'Id' }, { name: 'Name', index: 'Name', editable: true, editoptions: { readonly: 'readonly', class: 'FormElement readonly' } }, ], pager: pager, url: 'www.example.com/app/configurations") %>', editurl: 'www.example.com/app/configurations/edit") %>' }).navGrid(pager, { edit: true, add: false, del: false, search: false }, {}, {}, {}); } Note class: 'FormElement readonly' is supposed to set the css class value on jqGrid's edit dialog, but IE errors out on the reserved word. Is there an escape character in JavaScript too? #class? @class? &class? Otherwise, how might I tell jqGrid to set the css class on the popup editor? Thank you.

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  • How can I stop an auto-generated Linq to SQL class from loading ALL data?

    - by Gary McGill
    I have an ASP.NET MVC project, much like the NerdDinner tutorial example. (I'm using MVC 2, but followed the NerdDinner tutorial in order to create it). As per the instructions in part 3 of the tutorial, I've created a Linq-to-SQL model of my database by creating a "Linq to SQL Classes" (.dbml) surface, and dropping my database tables onto it. The designer has automatically added relationships between the generated classes based on my database tables. Let's say that my classes are as per the NerdDinner example, so I have Dinner and RSVP tables, where each Dinner record is associated with many RSVP records - hence in the generated classes, the Dinner object has a RSVPs property which is a list of RSVP objects. My problem is this: it appears (and I'd be gladly proved wrong on this) that as soon as I access a Dinner object, it's loading all of the corresponding RSVP objects, even if I don't use the RSVPs member. First question: is this really the default behavior for the generated classes? In my particular situation, the object graph contains many more tables (which have an order of magnitude more records), and so this is disastrous behaviour - I'd be loading tons of data when all I want to do is show the details of a single parent record. Second question: are there any properties exposed through the designer UI that would let me modify this behavior? (I can't find any). Third question: I've seen a description of how to control the loading of related records in a DataContext by using a DataShape object associated with the DataContext. Is that what I'm meant to do, and if so are there any tutorials like the NerdDinner one that would show not only how to do it, but also suggest a 'pattern' for normal use?

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  • How to get interpolated message in NHibernate.Validator

    - by SztupY
    Hi! I'm trying to integrate NHibernate.Validator with ASP.NET MVC client side validations, and the only problem I found is that I simply can't convert the non-interpolated message to a human-readable one. I thought this would be an easy task, but turned out to be the hardest part of the client-side validation. The main problem is that because it's not server-side, I actually only need the validation attributes that are being used, and I don't actually have an instance or anything else at hand. Here are some excerpts from what I've been already trying: // Get the the default Message Interpolator from the Engine IMessageInterpolator interp = _engine.Interpolator; if (interp == null) { // It is null?? Oh, try to create a new one interp = new NHibernate.Validator.Interpolator.DefaultMessageInterpolator(); } // We need an instance of the object that needs to be validated, se we have to create one object instance = Activator.CreateInstance(Metadata.ContainerType); // we enumerate all attributes of the property. For example we have found a PatternAttribute var a = attr as PatternAttribute; // it seems that the default message interpolator doesn't work, unless initialized if (interp is NHibernate.Validator.Interpolator.DefaultMessageInterpolator) { (interp as NHibernate.Validator.Interpolator.DefaultMessageInterpolator).Initialize(a); } // but even after it is initialized the following will throw a NullReferenceException, although all of the parameters are specified, and they are not null (except for the properties of the instance, which are all null, but this can't be changed) var message = interp.Interpolate(new InterpolationInfo(Metadata.ContainerType, instance, PropertyName, a, interp, a.Message)); I know that the above is a fairly complex code for a seemingly simple question, but I'm still stuck without solution. Is there any way to get the interpolated string out of NHValidator?

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  • How to distribute java components for developers to use?

    - by coder
    I am not sure how to put the correct title. but here is the brief explanation. With Microsoft .NET, i created a server side custom control using C# to be used in ASP.NET pages. I distribute the DLL generated as a component. developers will include that and use in their ASP.NET project. Likewise, how can i do for Java based web components for to use with JSP or JSF or any other java web frameworks?

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  • Sys undefined for HTTPS url in IE8

    - by Dhana
    I just discovered a rather peculiar issue in IE8 for a HTTPS link. Every time the page tries to access the HTTPS link, it produces an error. This happens only in IE8 and nothing else. Any idea what's going on? I found some items that said that means the files were not loaded, hence the issue and tried some fixes recommended, but they haven't worked so far. This is a .NET site by the way. https://www.beckshoes.com/cart/cart.aspx Message: 'Sys' is undefined Line: 70 Char: 1 Code: 0 URI: https://www.beckshoes.com/cart/cart.aspx Message: 'Sys' is undefined Line: 319 Char: 1 Code: 0 URI: https://www.beckshoes.com/cart/cart.aspx

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  • Sending mail issues. very confusing

    - by Dejan.S
    Hi my name is what, my name is who.. ops got carried away Now this might be a serverfault question and a stackoverflow question but I will go with it here because I don't really know the answer. I been sending mail a lot with asp.net before and never had problems like this before. I have setup a mail with this following code var list = new List<string> { "mail", "mail", "mail", "mail" }; var smtp = new SmtpClient("localhost", 25); var plainText = txtPlain.Text; var htmlText = Server.HtmlDecode(FCKeditor1.Value); foreach (var email in list) { var message = new MailMessage() { From = new MailAddress("my server mail"), ReplyTo = new MailAddress("mail") }; var mailMessage = Server.HtmlDecode(FCKeditor1.Value); message.To.Add(email); message.Subject = "Hi Enzorit"; message.Body = mailMessage; message.IsBodyHtml = true; message.BodyEncoding = System.Text.Encoding.GetEncoding("iso-8859-2"); var alternateViewHtml = AlternateView.CreateAlternateViewFromString(htmlText, null, MediaTypeNames.Text.Html); var alternateViewPlainText = AlternateView.CreateAlternateViewFromString(plainText, null, MediaTypeNames.Text.Plain); message.AlternateViews.Add(alternateViewHtml); message.AlternateViews.Add(alternateViewPlainText); smtp.Send(message); } now the issue becomes that some email clients get just plain while some get the html. Like on my hotmail on the computer i get the html but on my iphone i get the plain one. Why is that? and like that wasn't enough The mail wont deliver to some mails like any .pl email. Now here is where I am thinking that it might be a reverse DNS setup thing on my windows server 2008 issue + some company mails, it becomes spam, i had same issue with hotmail but that was solved when I added the plain. Anybody have had the problem before? I am very thankful for any answer I get.. thanks

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  • xVal and Regular Expression Match

    - by gmcalab
    I am using xVal to validate my forms in asp.net MVC 1.0 Not sure why my regular expression isn't validating correctly. It validates with the value of "12345" It validates with the value of "12345 " It validates with the value of "12345 -" It validates with the value of "12345 -1" It validates with the value of "12345 -12" ... etc For a zip code I expect one of the two patterns: 12345 or 12345 -1234 Here are the two regex I tried: (\d{5})((( -)(\d{4}))?) (\d{5})|(\d{5} -\d{4}) Here is my MetaData class for xVal [MetadataType(typeof(TIDServiceMetadata))] public class TIDServiceStep : TIDDetail { public class TIDServiceMetadata { [Required(ErrorMessage = " [Required] ")] [RegularExpression(@"(\d{5})|(\d{5} -\d{4})", ErrorMessage = " Invalid Zip ")] public string Zip { get; set; } } } Here is my aspx page: <% Html.BeginForm("Edit", "Profile", FormMethod.Post); %> <table border="0" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0"> <tr> <td> <h6>Zip:</h6> </td> <td> <%= Html.TextBox("Profile.Zip")%> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> <input type="submit"/> </td> </tr> </table> <% Html.EndForm(); %> <% Html.Telerik().ScriptRegistrar() .OnDocumentReady(() => { %> <%= Html.ClientSideValidation<TIDProfileStep>("Profile").SuppressScriptTags() %> <% }); %>

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