Search Results

Search found 62161 results on 2487 pages for 'set difference'.

Page 815/2487 | < Previous Page | 811 812 813 814 815 816 817 818 819 820 821 822  | Next Page >

  • When to call glEnable(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB)?

    - by Steven Lu
    I have a rendering system where I draw to an FBO with a multisampled renderbuffer, then blit it to another FBO with a texture in order to resolve the samples in order to read off the texture to perform post-processing shading while drawing to the backbuffer (FBO index 0). Now I'd like to get some correct sRGB output... The problem is the behavior of the program is rather inconsistent between when I run it on OS X and Windows and this also changes depending on the machine: On Windows with the Intel HD 3000 it will not apply the sRGB nonlinearity but on my other machine with a Nvidia GTX 670 it does. On the Intel HD 3000 in OS X it will also apply it. So this probably means that I'm not setting my GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB enable state at the right points in the program. However I can't seem to find any tutorials that actually tell me when I ought to enable it, they only ever mention that it's dead easy and comes at no performance cost. I am currently not loading in any textures so I haven't had a need to deal with linearizing their colors yet. To force the program to not simply spit back out the linear color values, what I have tried is simply comment out my glDisable(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB) line, which effectively means this setting is enabled for the entire pipeline, and I actually redundantly force it back on every frame. I don't know if this is correct or not. It certainly does apply a nonlinearization to the colors but I can't tell if this is getting applied twice (which would be bad). It could apply the gamma as I render to my first FBO. It could do it when I blit the first FBO to the second FBO. Why not? I've gone so far as to take screen shots of my final frame and compare raw pixel color values to the colors I set them to in the program: I set the input color to RGB(1,2,3) and the output is RGB(13,22,28). That seems like quite a lot of color compression at the low end and leads me to question if the gamma is getting applied multiple times. I have just now gone through the sRGB equation and I can verify that the conversion seems to be only applied once as linear 1/255, 2/255, and 3/255 do indeed map to sRGB 13/255, 22/255, and 28/255 using the equation 1.055*C^(1/2.4)+0.055. Given that the expansion is so large for these low color values it really should be obvious if the sRGB color transform is getting applied more than once. So, I still haven't determined what the right thing to do is. does glEnable(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB) only apply to the final framebuffer values, in which case I can just set this during my GL init routine and forget about it hereafter?

    Read the article

  • Quering distinct values throught related model

    - by matheus.emm
    Hi! I have a simple one-to-many (models.ForeignKey) relationship between two of my model classes: class TeacherAssignment(models.Model): # ... some fields year = models.CharField(max_length=4) class LessonPlan(models.Model): teacher_assignment = models.ForeignKey(TeacherAssignment) # ... other fields I'd like to query my database to get the set of distinct years of TeacherAssignments related to at least one LessonPlan. I'm able to get this set using Django query API if I ignore the relation to LessonPlan: class TeacherAssignment(models.Model): # ... model's fields def get_years(self): year_values = self.objects.all().values_list('year').distinct().order_by('-year') return [yv[0] for yv in year_values if len(yv[0]) == 4] Unfortunately I don't know how to express the condition that the TeacherAssignment must be related to at least one LessonPlan. Any ideas how I'd be able to write the query? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • How to configure IIS to serve my 404 response with my custom content?

    - by Marek
    This question is related to this, hopefully better phrased. I would like to serve a custom 404 page from ASP.NET MVC. I have the route handler and all the infrastructure set up to ensure that nonexistent routes are handled by a single action: public ActionResult Handle404() { Response.StatusCode = 404; return View("NotFound"); } Problem: IIS serves back its own content (some predefined message) when I set Response.StatusCode to 404 before returning the content. On the VS development web server, this works as intended - the status code of the HTTP response is 404 while my content (the NotFound view) is served. I believe that when the IIS processing pipeline sees that the application returns 404, it simply replaces the whole response with its own. What setting in IIS affects this behavior? I do not have access to the IIS installation so I can not investigate this - however, I can ask the hosting provider to tweak the configuration for me if I know what exactly needs to be changed.

    Read the article

  • IIS7 Overrides customErrors when setting Response.StatusCode?

    - by Nicholas H
    Having a weird problem here. Everybody knows that if you use web.config's customErrors section to make a custom error page, that you should set your Response.StatusCode to whatever is appropriate. For example, if I make a custom 404 page and name it 404.aspx, I could put <% Response.StatusCode = 404 % in the contents in order to make it have a true 404 status header. Follow me so far? Good. Now try to do this on IIS7. I cannot get it to work, period. If Response.StatusCode is set in the custom error page, IIS7 seems to override the custom error page completely, and shows it's own status page (if you have one configured.) Has anyone else seen this behavior and also maybe know how to work around it? It was working under IIS6, so I don't know why things changed. Update: This is not the same as the issue in http://stackoverflow.com/questions/347281/asp-net-custom-404-returning-200-ok-instead-of-404-not-found

    Read the article

  • Unable to view GWT 2.0.1 application in IE8.

    - by shyam.m
    Hi, I'm creating an application using GWT 2.0.1; it complies 6 computations and runs well in all browsers except IE8, it shows a blank page( but can be viewed in IE8 compatibility mode) . When I add the line in my gwt.xml <set-property name="user.agent" value="ie8" / > it compiles just 1 permutation and the application displays fine in IE8. However if I add the line lt;set-property name="user.agent" value="ie8,gecko,gecko1_8,safari,opera" /gt; it compiles all permutations, but the application still cannot be viewed in IE8 but runs properly in all other browsers. Is there any other method to ensure my application will run in all browsers ?

    Read the article

  • Change ExtJS Grid Height in Javascript

    - by williamtroup
    How can I point at the object of a ExtJS Grid and manually set the height (in pixels)? For example, with this same: var grid = new Ext.grid.GridPanel({ store: store, columns: [ {id:'company',header: 'Company', width: 160, sortable: true, dataIndex: 'company'}, {header: 'Price', width: 75, sortable: true, renderer: 'usMoney', dataIndex: 'price'}, {header: 'Change', width: 75, sortable: true, renderer: change, dataIndex: 'change'}, {header: '% Change', width: 75, sortable: true, renderer: pctChange, dataIndex: 'pctChange'}, {header: 'Last Updated', width: 85, sortable: true, renderer: Ext.util.Format.dateRenderer('m/d/Y'), dataIndex: 'lastChange'} ], stripeRows: true, autoExpandColumn: 'company', height: 350, width: 600, title: 'Array Grid', // config options for stateful behavior stateful: true, stateId: 'grid' }); I would i be able to point at the "grid" object and then set the size of the grid? Any help would be fantastic!

    Read the article

  • convert string data array to list

    - by prince23
    hi, i have an string data array which contains data like this 5~kiran 2~ram 1~arun 6~rohan now a method returns an value like string [] data public string [] names() { return data.Toarray() } public class Person { public string Name { get; set; } public int Age { get; set; } } List persons = new List(); string [] names =names(); now i need to copy all the data from an string array to an list and finally bind to grid view gridview.datasoutrce= persons how can i do it. is there any built in method to do it thanks in advance prince

    Read the article

  • What does upload in Google AppEngine app.yaml do?

    - by Great Turtle
    I am going through the various Google AppEngine tutorials sometimes, and I just noticed something odd in a StackOverflow question about favicon.ico - specifically this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/887328/favicon-ico-not-found-error-in-app-engine - url: /favicon.ico static_files: media/img/favicon.ico upload: media/img/favicon.ico - url: /robots.txt static_files: media/robots.txt upload: media/robots.txt All of the posters included an "upload:" line in their app.yaml definitions The application appears to work the same with or without the upload: line, and I have not seen any mention of it in the official documentation. Where is it used, or what difference does it make if this line is included or not?

    Read the article

  • Public static variables and Android activity life cycle management

    - by jsstp24n5
    According to the documentation the Android OS can kill the activity at the rear of the backstack. So, say for example I have an app and open the Main Activity (let's call it Activity A). In this public activity class I declare and initialize a public static variable (let's call it "foo"). In Activity A's onCreate() method I then change the value of "foo." From Activity A the user starts another activity within my app called Activity B. Variable "foo" is used in Activity B. Activity B is then paused after the user navigates to some other activities in other apps. Eventually, after a memory shortage occurs, Activity A then Activity B can be killed. After the user navigates back to my app it restarts (actually "recreates") activity B. What happens: 1) Will variable "foo" at this point have the value that was set to it when Activity A's onCreate() method ran? 2) Variable "foo" does not exist? 3) Variable "foo" exists and but is now the initialized value and not the value set in Activity A's onCreate() method?

    Read the article

  • Flash crash on long JSON load time

    - by MooCow
    I have a Flex program that gets a JSON array from a PHP script. The PHP script doesn't contain just a simple JSON array but it grabs data from Activecollab and do some work on the data before encoding the data. The first test involve a small JSON array that took a short time to encode by PHP. However, when I try to scale up the test, the Flash movie will crash trying to load the JSON data from PHP. There's no code difference between the tests, just the amount of data and amount of time it takes PHP to encode. Am I looking at a memory problem or a time out problem?

    Read the article

  • the problem about different treatment to __VA_ARGS__ when using VS 2008 and GCC

    - by liuliu
    I am trying to identify a problem because of an unusual usage of variadic macros. Here is the hypothetic macro: #define va(c, d, ...) c(d, __VA_ARGS__) #define var(a, b, ...) va(__VA_ARGS__, a, b) var(2, 3, printf, “%d %d %d\n”, 1); For gcc, the preprocessor will output printf("%d %d %d\n", 1, 2, 3) but for VS 2008, the output is printf, “%d %d %d\n”, 1(2, 3); I suspect the difference is caused by the different treatment to VA_ARGS, for gcc, it will first expand the expression to va(printf, "%d %d %d\n", 1, 2, 3), and treat 1, 2, 3 as the VA_ARGS for macro va. But for VS 2008, it will first treat b as VA_ARGS for macro va, and then do the expansion. Which one is correct interpretation for C99 variadic macro? or my usage falls into an undefined behavior?

    Read the article

  • Data sources and NSTableView

    - by lampShade
    I know that table sources need a data source to hold the data that the tableview will display. Lets' say that I'm going to make my AppController be the data source of my tableview and that I make the connection in interface builder. My question is since my actual data is going to be stored in an array,let's call it myArray, when I set the data source in code should I do this [tableView setDataSource:myArray]; or this [tableView setDataSource:self]; I'm confused about this. setting the data source with the keyword "self" would set it to the AppController if I'm not mistaken.

    Read the article

  • iPhone - UITableViewController not loading table

    - by RyanJM
    I'm pushing a UITableViewController onto a navigationController. The title (set in the viewDidLoad) shows up but not the table. numberOfSectionsInTableView is called. But tableView:numberOfRowsInSection: is not called. I'm passing in 1 so it should be looking for number of rows. - (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { return 1; } I'm setting up the view in the following manner: SelectUserViewController *nextController = [[SelectUserViewController alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewStyleGrouped]; nextController.managedObjectContext = managedObjectContext; OrangeQCAppDelegate *delegate = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; [delegate.navigationController pushViewController:nextController animated:YES]; Again, the viewDidLoad method is called. And my class is set up as follows: @interface SelectUserViewController : UITableViewController <UITableViewDelegate, UITableViewDataSource> {...} What else should I be looking at? When I go through the debugger, after it looks at numberOfSectionsInTableView it just disappears (I think it is in the UITableViewController class) and never comes back.

    Read the article

  • cakePHP: Filter selected list by variable

    - by gonzela2006
    I'm on cakePHP 2. I have a problem and I need your help. Here is some code of my controller(StudentsController.php) specifically "edit" function: $students = $this -> Student -> find('list', array( 'order' => 'Student.name ASC' )); $this -> set('students', $students); How can I filter the list by the current student's class?? so the list will contain all students that has the same student's class I need some code like this $students = $this -> Student -> find('list', array( 'conditions' => array('Student.class_id' => CURRENT-STUDENT'S-CLASS), 'order' => 'Student.name ASC' )); $this -> set('students', $students); Please Advise Thanks, gonzela2006

    Read the article

  • Does a System.DirectoryServices.AccountManagement.Principal ever have a null GUID?

    - by Josh
    I have a situation where I need to store a globally unique identifier that points to an Active Directory user account. I'm leaning towards the Guid because it is easier to store than the Sid. According to the MSDN entry, the property (which is a Nullable), will always return null if the ContextType is set to "Machine." I don't need to worry about this because our ContextType will always be set to "Domain." My question is, will this property ever return null if the ContextType is "Domain"? In other words, will an account in an AD DS store always have a Guid?

    Read the article

  • Share java object between two forms using Spring IoC

    - by Vladimir
    I want to share java object between two forms using Spring IoC. It should acts like Registry: Registry.set("key", new Object()); // ... Object o = Registry.get("key"); // ... Registry.set("key", new AnotherObject()); // rewrite old object I tried this code to register bean at runtime: applicationContext.getBeanFactory().registerSingleton("key", object); but it does not allow to rewrite existing object (result code for checking and deleting existing bean is too complicated)... PS I am Java newbie, so mb I am doing it wrong and I should not use IoC at all... any help is appreciated...

    Read the article

  • asp.net mvc default model binding problem

    - by csetzkorn
    I have some problems with ASP.NET MVC’s default model binder. The View contains HTML like this: <input name="SubDTO[0].Id" value="1" type="checkbox"> <input name="SubDTO[1].Id" value="2" type="checkbox"> This is my simplified ‘model’: public class SubDTO { public virtual string Id { get; set; } } public class DTO { public List<SubDTO> SubDTOs { get; set; } public DTO() { SubDTOs = new List< SubDTO>(); } } All this works fine if the user selects at least the first checkbox (SubDTO[0].Id). The controller ‘receives’ a nicely initialised/bound DTO. However, if the first check box is not selected but only, for example, SubDTO[1].Id the object SubDTOs is null. Can someone please explain this ‘strange’ behaviour and how to overcome it? Thanks. Best wishes, Christian

    Read the article

  • jQuery using .html & then window.scrollTo

    - by AnApprentice
    Hello, I'm doing the following: First, inject HTML into the page (a lot) which then increases the window scrollbar: $("#XXXX").html("LOTS OF HTML").show(); Then i want to scroll down to the end of the page: window.scrollTo(0,$(document).height()); Problem is the page never scrolls down. I did some console.logging and the scrollTo is running before the HTML from the inject html() is run. I tried this in the JS which injects the HTML, I then tried doing the scroll inside the HTML inject but that made no difference. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Passing objects to a UITypeEditor

    - by Kath
    I am currently hoping to use a PropertyGrid to allow users to edit some of my classes, however I've hit a wall with passing objects to the UITypeEditor(s) they use. When the user presses the drop down I want to show a listbox of already loaded textures to choose from, if they want to use a texture the application hasn't loaded yet they can click a button to choose one from a file dialog. In case I make no sense here a mock of the form: . My problem: To fill the listbox I need access to the class that manages the list of resources from the UITypeEditor. Now I've solved this problem for my own classes by giving them a reference on creation to their managing object. In the UITypeEditor I then use that reference to access what I need. However I can't do this for classes I haven't written, such as the XNA Texture2D class. Here are what the classes I'm using look like: class StaticGeometryChunk { // Geometry data to draw with. Contains a reference to its managing // class for use in its UITypeEditor. public GeometryData { get; set; } .... } class Material { // These are XNA classes. I can't just add a reference to its managing // class (I think?). public Texture2D Texture1 { get; set; } public Texture2D Texture2 { get; set; } .... } I've been looking at my options and they seem to be: Make the managing classes static. I don't really want to do this. There are several managing classes as each resource is loaded differently. There are also classes that need to be created before these and are passed in. Make the managing classes singletons. I don't really want to do this either. It seems like a quick and dirty way to "hide" the problem instead of "solve" it. I also might want the option of having several managing classes in the future which the singletons eliminate. Create a wrapper class which holds the reference to a managing class and its target (such as the XNA Texture2D). This is currently what I'm thinking of doing. Its would be quite simple and quick to do but something about it nags me but I don't know what. Any thoughts on the above or other methods to pass what I need into the UITypeEditor? Thank you for reading.

    Read the article

  • Access ConfigurationSection from ConfigurationElement

    - by shivesh
    I have a configuration class that maps web.config, something like that: public class SiteConfigurationSection : ConfigurationSection { [ConfigurationProperty("defaultConnectionStringName", DefaultValue = "LocalSqlServer")] public string DefaultConnectionStringName { get { return (string)base["defaultConnectionStringName"]; } set { base["defaultConnectionStringName"] = value; } } [ConfigurationProperty("Module", IsRequired = true)] public ModuleElement Module { get { return (ModuleElement)base["Module"]; } } } public class ModuleElement : ConfigurationElement { [ConfigurationProperty("connectionStringName")] public string ConnectionStringName { get { return (string)base["connectionStringName"]; } set { base["connectionStringName"] = value; } } public string ConnectionString { get { string str; if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(this.ConnectionStringName)) { str =//GET THE DefaultConnectionStringName from SiteConfigurationSection; } else str = this.ConnectionStringName; return WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings[str].ConnectionString; } } } Meaning if connection string name value is missing in Module section in web.config file, the value should be read from configurationsection. How to do that?

    Read the article

  • Properties are making trouble

    - by DhavalR
    In my application I have added a Properties.cs file which contains properties that I am would use through out the application. I am getting NullReferenceException = Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Here is the code for Properties.cs public class Properties { private static string type1; public static string Type1 { get { return type1; } set { type1= value; } } } And when I access this property in one of my form I am getting error. e.g. if (Properties.Type1.Equals(string.Empty) || Properties.Type1.Equals(null)) { //// Do something }

    Read the article

  • Stored procedure does not return result when using Temp table

    - by Muhammad Akhtar
    I have used temp table in my stored procedure and unable to get the result when executing. It return result fine when running the same as query. my query structure is something like... ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[test] as begin SET NOCOUNT ON; SELECT * INTO #Dates FROM Dates -- Used temp table SET @Query = ' SELECT [Name], [HotelName], '+@Dates+' FROM ( SELECT , HD.[Name], HD.[HotelName], HD.Price FROM #Dates D LEFT JOIN #HotelData HD ON D.DateVal = HD.OccDate) T PIVOT ( SUM(Price) FOR [Date] IN ('+@Dates+') ) AS PT' execute(@Query) end Exec test -- Exectuting, I am getting message command completed successfully

    Read the article

  • Should I stick only to AWS RDS Automated Backup or DB Snapshots?

    - by James Wise
    I am using AWS RDS for MySQL. With it comes on backup, I understand that amazon provides two types of backup - automated backup and database (DB) snapshot. The difference is explain in here - http://aws.amazon.com/rds/faqs/#23. However, I am still confuse if should I stick to automated backup only or both automated and manual (db snapshots). What do you think guys? What's the setup of your own? I heard to others that automated backup is not reliable due to some unrecoverable database when the DB instance is crashed so the DB snapshots are the way to rescue you. If I will do daily DB snapshots as similar settings to automated backup, I have gonna pay much bunch of bucks. Hope anyone could enlighten me or advise me the right set up. Thanks. James

    Read the article

  • Calculating a delta of years from a date

    - by Spiros
    I am trying to figure out a way to calculate the year of birth for records when given the age to two decimals at a given date - in Perl. To illustrate this example consider these two records: date, age at date 25 Nov 2005, 74.23 21 Jan 2007, 75.38 What I want to do is get the year of birth based on those records - it should be, in theory, consistent. The problem is that when I try to derive it by calculating the difference between the year in the date field minus the age, I run into rounding errors making the results look wrong while they are in fact correct. I have tried using some "clever" combination of int() or sprintf() to round things up but to not avail. I have looked at Date::Calc but cant see something I can use. p.s. As many dates are pre-1970, I cannot not unfortunately use UNIX epoch for this.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 811 812 813 814 815 816 817 818 819 820 821 822  | Next Page >