Search Results

Search found 61178 results on 2448 pages for 'c window application h'.

Page 816/2448 | < Previous Page | 812 813 814 815 816 817 818 819 820 821 822 823  | Next Page >

  • Rails App hangs after few requests

    - by Paddy
    I have Bitnami Rails stack installed on my Mac. To better explain my problem i created a simple scaffold based rails app with mysql as the backend. I can get to perform simple POST and GET requests for a while and after a few requests the app just hangs indefinitely. No exception caught or anything worthwhile in the development log to report this strange behavior. This is the last bit from the development log before the app froze: Processing WritedatasController#index (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-03-30 20:38:51) [GET] [4;36;1mWritedata Load (0.7ms) [0m [0;1mSELECT * FROM `writedatas` [0m Rendering template within layouts/application Rendering writedatas/index [4;35;1mWritedata Columns (2.9ms) [0m [0mSHOW FIELDS FROM `writedatas` [0m Completed in 99ms (View: 88, DB: 4) | 200 OK [http://localhost/writedatas] [4;36;1mSQL (0.2ms) [0m [0;1mSET NAMES 'utf8' [0m [4;35;1mSQL (0.1ms) [0m [0mSET SQL_AUTO_IS_NULL=0 [0m Processing WritedatasController#new (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-03-30 20:38:52) [GET] [4;36;1mWritedata Columns (2.0ms) [0m [0;1mSHOW FIELDS FROM `writedatas` [0m Rendering template within layouts/application Rendering writedatas/new Rendered writedatas/_form (5.9ms) Completed in 34ms (View: 25, DB: 2) | 200 OK [http://localhost/writedatas/new] [4;36;1mSQL (0.4ms) [0m [0;1mSET NAMES 'utf8' [0m [4;35;1mSQL (0.1ms) [0m [0mSET SQL_AUTO_IS_NULL=0 [0m Processing WritedatasController#index (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-03-30 20:39:17) [GET] [4;36;1mWritedata Load (0.7ms) [0m [0;1mSELECT * FROM `writedatas` [0m Rendering template within layouts/application Rendering writedatas/index [4;35;1mWritedata Columns (2.6ms) [0m [0mSHOW FIELDS FROM `writedatas` [0m Completed in 101ms (View: 90, DB: 4) | 200 OK [http://localhost/writedatas] It just hung at this point. And after this happens i have to restart the server, for it to hang again after few requests. This is the weirdest problem i have faced and i am truly stumped.

    Read the article

  • Problem with conversion of existing project to Silverlight 4

    - by derklaus
    We have a working Silverlight 3 project. After changing the target framework to Silverlight 4 the application won't start anymore. It throws an exception in the following line in the generated InitializeComponent() method: System.Windows.Application.LoadComponent(this, new System.Uri("/SLAppMain;component/App.xaml", System.UriKind.Relative)); Here is the exception (note the inner exception): System.Windows.Markup.XamlParseException occurred Message= [Line: 0 Position: 0] LineNumber=0 LinePosition=0 StackTrace: bei System.Windows.Application.LoadComponent(Object component, Uri resourceLocator) InnerException: System.TypeLoadException Message=Der Typ 'System.Security.AllowPartiallyTrustedCallersAttribute' konnte nicht aus der mscorlib, Version=2.0.5.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=7cec85d7bea7798e -Assembly geladen werden. StackTrace: bei System.ModuleHandle.ResolveType(RuntimeModule module, Int32 typeToken, IntPtr* typeInstArgs, Int32 typeInstCount, IntPtr* methodInstArgs, Int32 methodInstCount, ObjectHandleOnStack type) bei System.ModuleHandle.ResolveTypeHandleInternal(RuntimeModule module, Int32 typeToken, RuntimeTypeHandle[] typeInstantiationContext, RuntimeTypeHandle[] methodInstantiationContext) bei System.Reflection.RuntimeModule.ResolveType(Int32 metadataToken, Type[] genericTypeArguments, Type[] genericMethodArguments) bei System.Reflection.CustomAttribute.FilterCustomAttributeRecord(CustomAttributeRecord caRecord, MetadataImport scope, Assembly& lastAptcaOkAssembly, RuntimeModule decoratedModule, MetadataToken decoratedToken, RuntimeType attributeFilterType, Boolean mustBeInheritable, Object[] attributes, IList derivedAttributes, RuntimeType& attributeType, IRuntimeMethodInfo& ctor, Boolean& ctorHasParameters, Boolean& isVarArg) bei System.Reflection.CustomAttribute.GetCustomAttributes(RuntimeModule decoratedModule, Int32 decoratedMetadataToken, Int32 pcaCount, RuntimeType attributeFilterType, Boolean mustBeInheritable, IList derivedAttributes, Boolean isDecoratedTargetSecurityTransparent) bei System.Reflection.CustomAttribute.GetCustomAttributes(RuntimeModule decoratedModule, Int32 decoratedMetadataToken, Int32 pcaCount, RuntimeType attributeFilterType, Boolean isDecoratedTargetSecurityTransparent) bei System.Reflection.CustomAttribute.GetCustomAttributes(RuntimeAssembly assembly, RuntimeType caType) bei System.Reflection.RuntimeAssembly.GetCustomAttributes(Type attributeType, Boolean inherit) bei System.Attribute.GetCustomAttributes(Assembly element, Type attributeType, Boolean inherit) bei MS.Internal.XamlSchemaContext.ProcessXmlnsDefinitions(Assembly assembly, String assemblyName) bei MS.Internal.XamlSchemaContext.EnsureManagedAssemblyAttributesLoaded() InnerException: The problem is that the type System.Security.AllowPartiallyTrustedCallersAttribute is not contained in the Silverlight version of mscorlib.dll. I have no idea how to fix this nor where to look for causes. Has anyone encountered this problem? What could possibly cause this error?

    Read the article

  • Use XMPP instead of HTTP

    - by pavel
    Hey guys. My friend and I, we are working on iPhone application. This application uses XMPP protocol to provide chat functionality. Right now we are designing architecture for the application. So my friend is working on iPhone side, and I am ruby on rails guy. My friend suggested, that we wrap every call, that is usually served via HTTP into XMPP. So, user registration, users search, profile editing, photo uploading, everything goes via XMPP. No HTTP at all. My friend wants to use XMPP, because he says, that it's much easier to implement XMPP on client-side rather HTTP. As for me, this is bullshit, but we've got a product owner, who have been working with my friend for a long time and he trusts him. So what I'm trying to do is to convince my friend and product owner that using XMPP for what HTTP can work find — is totally not the best idea. I feel, that if we implement everything on XMPP, we will have a pain in an ass till the end of lives. But how do I prove it? P.S. I'm not against chat over XMPP, I am against users search, photo uploading, rankings, nearby search and various other restful requests. Please, leave response. Any help appreciated. A little update: Yesterday we had a long discussion. And it turns out, it's quiete hard to receive response from both XMPP and HTTP in Objective-C. Because every single object and its data should be stored in Core Data model, while this model can't be securely modified from various places. Say, if you use HTTP transport, you always want to use only HTTP transport to update data in your model. And if you use XMPP, you should always use XMPP. So, you can't use both. That's what my iPhone buddy told me. It sounds weird for me, can anyone explain me that?

    Read the article

  • How to Global onRouteRequest directly to onBadRequest?

    - by virtualeyes
    EDIT Came up with this to sanitize URI date params prior to passing off to Play router val ymdMatcher = "\\d{8}".r // matcher for yyyyMMdd URI param val ymdFormat = org.joda.time.format.DateTimeFormat.forPattern("yyyyMMdd") def ymd2Date(ymd: String) = ymdFormat.parseDateTime(ymd) override def onRouteRequest(r: RequestHeader): Option[Handler] = { import play.api.i18n.Messages ymdMatcher.findFirstIn(r.uri) map{ ymd=> try { ymd2Date( ymd); super.onRouteRequest(r) } catch { case e:Exception => // kick to "bad" action handler on invalid date Some(controllers.Application.bad(Messages("bad.date.format"))) } } getOrElse(super.onRouteRequest(r)) } ORIGINAL Let's say I want to return a BadRequest result type for all /foo URIs: override def onBadRequest(r: RequestHeader, error: String) = { BadRequest("Bad Request: " + error) } override def onRouteRequest(r: RequestHeader): Option[Handler] = { if(r.uri.startsWith("/foo") onBadRequest("go away") else super.onRouteRequest(r) } Of course does not work, since the expected return type is Option[play.api.mvc.Handler] What's the idiomatic way to deal with this, create a default Application controller method to handle filtered bad requests? Ideally, since I know in onRouteRequest that /foo is in fact a BadRequest, I'd like to call onBadRequest directly. Should note that this is a contrived example, am actually verifying a URI yyyyMMdd date param, and BadRequest-ing if it does not parse to a JodaTime instance -- basically a catch-all filter to sanitize a given date param rather than handling on every single controller method call, not to mention, avoiding cluttering up application log with useless stack traces re: invalid date parse conversions (have several MBs of these junk trace entries accruing daily due to users pointlessly manipulating the uri date in attempts to get at paid subscriber content)

    Read the article

  • Read MS Word .doc file with ruby and win32ole

    - by bmalets
    I'm trying ot read .doc file with ruby, I use win32ole library. IT my code: require 'win32ole' class DocParser def initialize @content = '' end def read_file file_path begin word = WIN32OLE.connect( 'Word.Application' ) doc = word.activedocument rescue word = WIN32OLE.new( 'Word.Application' ) doc = word.documents.open( file_path ) end word.visible = false doc.sentences.each{ |x| @content I kick off doc reading with DocParser.new.read_file('path/file.doc') When I run this using rails c - I don't have any problems, it's working fine. But when I run it using rails (e.g. after button click), once in a while (every 3-4 time) this code crashes with error: WIN32OLERuntimeError (failed to create WIN32OLE object from `Word.Application' HRESULT error code:0x800401f0 CoInitialize has not been called.): lib/file_parsers/doc_parser.rb:14:in `initialize' lib/file_parsers/doc_parser.rb:14:in `new' lib/file_parsers/doc_parser.rb:14:in `rescue in read_file' lib/file_parsers/doc_parser.rb:10:in `read_file' lib/search_engine.rb:10:in `block in search' lib/search_engine.rb:43:in `block in each_file_in' lib/search_engine.rb:42:in `each_file_in' lib/search_engine.rb:8:in `search' app/controllers/home_controller.rb:9:in `search' Rendered c:/Ruby193/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/actionpack-4.1.1/lib/action_dispatch/middleware/templates/rescues/_source.erb (0.0ms) Rendered c:/Ruby193/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/actionpack-4.1.1/lib/action_dispatch/middleware/templates/rescues/_trace.text.erb (2.0ms) Rendered c:/Ruby193/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/actionpack-4.1.1/lib/action_dispatch/middleware/templates/rescues/_request_and_response.text.erb (2.0ms) Rendered c:/Ruby193/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/actionpack-4.1.1/lib/action_dispatch/middleware/templates/rescues/diagnostics.erb (56.0ms) Aditionaly, this code read doc file successfully, but after a few seconds rails crashes: see this gist What is my problem? How can I fix it? Please, help!

    Read the article

  • Getting started with Spring 3 Web MVC - Setting everything up

    - by user126379
    Hi, I'm trying to get started with JAVA/Eclipse/Spring MVC but can't seem to find a "dummies" or "step-by-step" guide for setting everything up and creating the simplest proof-of-concept application. I found http://static.springsource.org/docs/...-step-by-step/ but there seem to be differences between Spring 2.5 and Spring 3 so i'm looking for something for Spring 3. Also, the tutorial for Spring 2.5 focuses on building the application usign Ant - This i will certainly be doing for releasing but when working within Eclipse i want to have set up the project so that i can use breakpoints/debugging and this is not covered at all. I've downloaded Eclipse, Tomcat and the Spring 3 Framework but that's about it and within the downloaded Spring Framework documentation it states: 2.3 New getting started tutorial There is now a new getting started tutorial for developing a basic Spring 3.0 MVC web application. This tutorial is a separate document that can be found at the Spring Documentation page However, i can't seem to find such a tutorial on the linked page. My main problem at the moment, as seems to be the case for many people trying to get started with Spring, is that i can't seem to get everything set up. I've got a copy of Expert Spring MVC and Web Flow and i've also found this tutorial but i don't know if the setups they describe are still relevant and whether they will allow debugging. Can anyone please give some direction? Thanks

    Read the article

  • AppletClassLoader exception : class not found

    - by gautam
    Hi, I am getting exception when i am trying to open an applet in my jsp. My jsp and applet is in same directory. My code is like: <object classid="clsid:8AD9C840-044E-11D1-B3E9-00805F499D93" width="720" height="500"`enter code here` type="application/x-java-applet;version=1.5"> <param name="type" value="application/x-java-applet;version=1.5"> <param name="code" value="com.timer.AppletGenerator.class"> <param name="codebase" value="."> <param name="ARCHIVE" value="Applet.jar, jcommon-1.0.0.jar, jfreechart-1.0.0.jar, log4j-1.2.13.jar, itext-1.3.1.jar" embed width="720" height="500" type="application/x-java-applet;version=1.5" code="com.timer.AppletGenerator.class" codebase="." ARCHIVE='Applet.jar, jcommon-1.0.0.jar, jfreechart-1.0.0.jar, log4j-1.2.13.jar, itext-1.3.1.jar' > </embed> </object> My AppletGenerator.class is like: public class AppletGenerator extends JApplet { public void init() { //Some code } } earlier it was woking fine. But now when i sign and verify the new jar its giving exception: load: class com.timer.AppletGenerator.class not found. java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: com.timer.AppletGenerator.class at sun.applet.AppletClassLoader.findClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at sun.applet.AppletClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at sun.applet.AppletClassLoader.loadCode(Unknown Source) at sun.applet.AppletPanel.createApplet(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin.AppletViewer.createApplet(Unknown Source) at sun.applet.AppletPanel.runLoader(Unknown Source) at sun.applet.AppletPanel.run(Unknown Source) at java.lang.Thread.run(Unknown Source) Caused by: java.io.IOException: open HTTP connection failed. at sun.applet.AppletClassLoader.getBytes(Unknown Source) at sun.applet.AppletClassLoader.access$100(Unknown Source) at sun.applet.AppletClassLoader$1.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) ... 10 more I have searched a lot but didnt get any correct answer. There are few posts regarding this in stactoverflow but that also didnt work. Thanks and Regards,

    Read the article

  • Unable to load WSDL file error in flex while making a call to a web service.

    - by Angeline Aarthi
    I am trying to call a webservice from my Flex application and this is the code: <mx:WebService id="myWebService" wsdl="http://172.16.111.103:22222/cics/services/PRESENT1?wsdl"> <mx:operation name="PRESENT1Operation" result="resultHandler(event)" fault="faultHandler(event)"> </mx:operation> </mx:WebService> //Function to send customer id to the wsdl request private function searchDetails():void{ myWebService.PRESENT1Operation.send(cusNo.text); cusDetails.visible=true; } The webservice is up and running. I have a separate Java application to test the webservice, And I am able to execute it properly. I am able to request the webservice and get response. But If I try to call the webservice through the Flex application, I get the following error. [RPC Fault faultString="HTTP request error" faultCode="Server.Error.Request" faultDetail="Unable to load WSDL. If currently online, please verify the URI and/or format of the WSDL (http://172.16.111.103:22222/cics/services/PRESENT1?WSDL)"] at mx.rpc.wsdl::WSDLLoader/faultHandler()[C:\autobuild\3.2.0\frameworks\projects\rpc\src\mx\rpc\wsdl\WSDLLoader.as:98] at flash.events::EventDispatcher/dispatchEventFunction() at flash.events::EventDispatcher/dispatchEvent() at mx.rpc::AbstractInvoker/http://www.adobe.com/2006/flex/mx/internal::dispatchRpcEvent()[C:\autobuild\3.2.0\frameworks\projects\rpc\src\mx\rpc\AbstractInvoker.as:170] at mx.rpc::AbstractInvoker/http://www.adobe.com/2006/flex/mx/internal::faultHandler()[C:\autobuild\3.2.0\frameworks\projects\rpc\src\mx\rpc\AbstractInvoker.as:225] at mx.rpc::Responder/fault()[C:\autobuild\3.2.0\frameworks\projects\rpc\src\mx\rpc\Responder.as:53] at mx.rpc::AsyncRequest/fault()[C:\autobuild\3.2.0\frameworks\projects\rpc\src\mx\rpc\AsyncRequest.as:103] at DirectHTTPMessageResponder/errorHandler()[C:\autobuild\3.2.0\frameworks\projects\rpc\src\mx\messaging\channels\DirectHTTPChannel.as:362] at flash.events::EventDispatcher/dispatchEventFunction() at flash.events::EventDispatcher/dispatchEvent() at flash.net::URLLoader/redirectEvent() Please some one help me with this.

    Read the article

  • Sqlite3 query in objective c

    - by user271753
    -(IBAction)ButtonPressed:(id)sender { const char *sql = "SELECT AccessCode FROM UserAccess"; NSString *sqlns; sqlns = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:sql]; if([Password.text isEqual:sqlns]) { NSLog(@"Correct"); } else { NSLog(@"Wrong"); } NSLog(@"%@",sqlns); } Noob here , At NSLog I am able to print "SELECT AccessCode FROM UserAccess" where as let say the access code is 1234 , which I want . In the appdelegate I Have : /// - (BOOL)application:(UIApplication *)application didFinishLaunchingWithOptions:(NSDictionary *)launchOptions { // Override point for customization after app launch [self createEditableCopyOfDatabaseIfNeeded]; [window addSubview:viewController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; return YES; } /// - (void)createEditableCopyOfDatabaseIfNeeded { NSLog(@"Creating editable copy of database"); // First, test for existence. BOOL success; NSFileManager *fileManager = [NSFileManager defaultManager]; NSError *error; NSArray *paths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [paths objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *writableDBPath = [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"UserAccess.sqlite"]; success = [fileManager fileExistsAtPath:writableDBPath]; if (success) return; // The writable database does not exist, so copy the default to the appropriate location. NSString *defaultDBPath = [[[NSBundle mainBundle] resourcePath] stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"UserAccess.sqlite"]; success = [fileManager copyItemAtPath:defaultDBPath toPath:writableDBPath error:&error]; if (!success) { NSAssert1(0, @"Failed to create writable database file with message '%@'.", [error localizedDescription]); } } /// +(sqlite3 *) getNewDBConnection{ sqlite3 *newDBconnection; NSArray *paths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [paths objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *path = [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"UserAccess.sqlite"]; // Open the database. The database was prepared outside the application. if (sqlite3_open([path UTF8String], &newDBconnection) == SQLITE_OK) { NSLog(@"Database Successfully Opened :) "); } else { NSLog(@"Error in opening database :( "); } return newDBconnection; } Please help :(

    Read the article

  • set iPhone Required device capabilities

    - by chozinul
    My application is for "iPhone ONLY", But I have made a mistake in the first place by not setting the application for specific device. The current setting now is: Requirement: Compatible for iPhone, iPod touch and iPad. I would like to set it to: Requirement: Compatible for iPhone. I have go to some tutorial and forum. and nothing can solve my problem. I have also contact the apple support and this is what I got: "You are permitted to expand your device requirements only. Submitting an update to your binary to restrict your device requirements is not permitted. " is it mean that I can not set my application for iPhone only? If i can change it, what would you recommend me to do? I have change the setting of device capability inside the plist, to one of this. which one is correct, use "UIRequiredDeviceCapabilities" or "Required device capabilities"? i provide the screenshoot in here: http://img218.imageshack.us/gal.php?g=screenshot20100604atam1.png does the way I use it correct? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Creating a Custom Design-Time Environment

    - by Charlie
    Hello all, My question is related to the design-time support of WPF. From MSDN I read, The WPF Designer provides a framework and a public API which you can use to implement custom adorners, tools, property editors, and designers. But the vast majority of the examples I have found are trivial, and do not illustrate much concerning the creation of a customized designer in an existing WPF application. We have migrated our application from Windows Forms to WPF over the past year, and the next step will be to take an existing WinForms Panel designer, and rewrite it in WPF. Suffice it to say that this will be a huge project. But I don't even know where to begin. I am wondering if any of you have had similar experiences writing a customized designer for a WPF application, and what it was like. Even better, if you could compare and contrast the functionality between the WinForms designer and the WPF designer, or explain the transition from the former to the latter, that would be helpful. If you know of any simple examples that demonstrate a customized design environment (with custom controls, etc.) that would be extremely beneficial. All in all, I am just wondering if many people have undertaken this yet, and what their results have been. EDIT: To clarify, yes, I am talking about hosting a WPF designer. It appears that this may not even be possible, which is a huge setback. Here is a screenshot of our current WinForms designer. As you can see, it is used to create customized user interfaces. You can drag custom controls onto it and design them, then put the panel into a "run mode" in which all of the controls become functional. Short of spending months writing our designer, would this be possible in WPF? What about .NET 4.0 and VS2010? Will those add any designer functionality?

    Read the article

  • Working with a large data object between ruby processes

    - by Gdeglin
    I have a Ruby hash that reaches approximately 10 megabytes if written to a file using Marshal.dump. After gzip compression it is approximately 500 kilobytes. Iterating through and altering this hash is very fast in ruby (fractions of a millisecond). Even copying it is extremely fast. The problem is that I need to share the data in this hash between Ruby on Rails processes. In order to do this using the Rails cache (file_store or memcached) I need to Marshal.dump the file first, however this incurs a 1000 millisecond delay when serializing the file and a 400 millisecond delay when serializing it. Ideally I would want to be able to save and load this hash from each process in under 100 milliseconds. One idea is to spawn a new Ruby process to hold this hash that provides an API to the other processes to modify or process the data within it, but I want to avoid doing this unless I'm certain that there are no other ways to share this object quickly. Is there a way I can more directly share this hash between processes without needing to serialize or deserialize it? Here is the code I'm using to generate a hash similar to the one I'm working with: @a = [] 0.upto(500) do |r| @a[r] = [] 0.upto(10_000) do |c| if rand(10) == 0 @a[r][c] = 1 # 10% chance of being 1 else @a[r][c] = 0 end end end @c = Marshal.dump(@a) # 1000 milliseconds Marshal.load(@c) # 400 milliseconds Update: Since my original question did not receive many responses, I'm assuming there's no solution as easy as I would have hoped. Presently I'm considering two options: Create a Sinatra application to store this hash with an API to modify/access it. Create a C application to do the same as #1, but a lot faster. The scope of my problem has increased such that the hash may be larger than my original example. So #2 may be necessary. But I have no idea where to start in terms of writing a C application that exposes an appropriate API. A good walkthrough through how best to implement #1 or #2 may receive best answer credit.

    Read the article

  • Flex textarea control not updating properly.

    - by ielashi
    I am writing a flex application that involves modifying a textarea very frequently. I have encountered issues with the textarea sometimes not displaying my modifications. The following actionscript code illustrates my problem: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute" minWidth="955" minHeight="600"> <mx:TextArea x="82" y="36" width="354" height="291" id="textArea" creationComplete="initApp()"/> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ private var testSentence:String = "The big brown fox jumps over the lazy dog."; private var testCounter:int = 0; private function initApp():void { var timer:Timer = new Timer(10); timer.addEventListener(TimerEvent.TIMER, playSentence); timer.start(); } private function playSentence(event:TimerEvent):void { textArea.editable = false; if (testCounter == testSentence.length) { testCounter = 0; textArea.text += "\n"; } else { textArea.text += testSentence.charAt(testCounter++); } textArea.editable = true; } ]]> </mx:Script> </mx:Application> When you run the above code in a flex project, it should repeatedly print, character by character, the sentence "The big brown fox jumps over the lazy dog.". But, if you are typing into the textarea at the same time, you will notice the text the timer prints is distorted. I am really curious as to why this happens. The single-threaded nature of flex and disabling user input for the textarea when I make modifications should prevent this from happening, but for some reason this doesn't seem to be working. I must note too that, when running the timer at larger intervals (around 100ms) it seems to work perfectly, so I am tempted to think it's some kind of synchronization issue in the internals of the flex framework. Any ideas on what could be causing the problem?

    Read the article

  • UiModeManager - NightMode (FroYo)

    - by Kaloer
    Hi there, I have been trying to turn off the buttons' light in my application using the UiModeManager's nightmode function. The default Desk Clock application (Nexus One) turns off the buttons' light when it is dimmed, and I want to do this as well. I've tried using the following code: UiModeManager mgr = (UiModeManager) getSystemService(UI_MODE_SERVICE); mgr.setNightMode(UiModeManager.MODE_NIGHT_YES); The UiModeManager.setNightMode(int mode) documentation says this: Sets the night mode. Changes to the night mode are only effective when the car or desk mode is enabled on a device. Does that mean that the device has to be physically in a desk dock? I can set the device to car mode using the UiModeManager.enableCarMode(int flags) method. This works fine, but it doesn't turn off the lights, it only dims the screen's backlight. Is there a way to set the device into desk mode without using a physical desk dock? As the FroYo source code is not yet released, I cannot look at the build-in Desk Clock application. Thanks in advantage.

    Read the article

  • Unable to fetch initial output of "defrag" commad in Windows Server 2008 R2 in WOW64 environment.

    - by Ganesh
    Hi All, [Application & code back ground] I have an MFC application which is executing on Windows Server 2008 R2 in WOW64 environment. In which on user input it defragments the selected drive on the disk. I initiated the process(.i.e. cmd /c defrag –v c:) of defragmentation using the CreateProcess() API, along with this to display output of the process on the main screen I created the pipe using CreatePipe() API. I used PeekNamedPipe() & ReadFile() API to get the output and display. [Problem Area] When the process is launched I am not getting the initial output as below: Microsoft Disk fragmenter Copyright © 2007 Microsoft Crop. Invoking defragmentation on (C:)…. I constantly monitor the output of the process while it is under progress but not able to get any thing as output in the pipe. It seem the process is not doing any thing and appears as if the application is not responding. But after certain period of time, once the process is about to completed I get result along with the initial data. [Sample code] //Pipe created if(0 == ::CreatePipe(&l_hStdOutRead, &l_hStdOutWrite, &l_SecurityAttribute, (DWORD)NULL)) { //Error code } //Process created/launched if (0 == ::CreateProcess(NULL, (LPTSTR)f_csProcessName, &l_stSecurityAttributes, NULL, TRUE, CREATE_NO_WINDOW, NULL,NULL, &l_StartupInfo, &l_CmdPI)) { //Error code } //Read output if (0 == ::PeekNamedPipe(m_hStdOutRead, l_cArrPeekBuffer, (DWORD)NULL, (LPDWORD)NULL, &l_dwAvailable, (LPDWORD)NULL)) { //Return to read again } if (MPLUSFALSE == ::ReadFile(m_hStdOutRead, l_cArrOutput, min(BUFFER_SIZE - 2, l_dwAvailable), &l_dwRead, NULL) || !l_dwRead) { //error code } //Display data. If any one is aware of similar problem or worked on the similar issue please let me know the solution. Thanks in Advance, Ganesh

    Read the article

  • Android custom categories

    - by marian
    Hello, I have a view as a main screen of the application which contains the available application's actions as icon+text pairs ( desktop like). I want to find out programatically what are the activities defined ONLY in my AndroidManifest.xml Suppose I have : < activity android:name="example.mainActivity" android:label="mainActivity" < intent-filter < action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" / < category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" / < /intent-filter < /activity < activity android:name="example.activity1" android:label="Activity1" < intent-filter < action android:name="android.intent.action.VIEW" / < category android:name="example.custom.ACTIVITY" / < /intent-filter < /activity < activity android:name="example.activity2" android:label="Activity2" < intent-filter < action android:name="android.intent.action.VIEW" / < category android:name="example.custom.ACTIVITY" / < /intent-filter < /activity I want that in the mainActivity to dinamically read Activity1 and Activity2 because when i add Activity3 for example it will be automatically read. I thought that this could be done by defining a custom category, example.custom.ACTIVITY, and in the mainActivity use the packageManager.queryIntentActivities(Intent intent, int flags) but it doesn't seem to be working. I really would like to code it to dinamically discover the installed activities in my application. Do you have any ideas on how to do this? Thank you

    Read the article

  • Coupling between controller and view

    - by cheez
    The litmus test for me for a good MVC implementation is how easy it is to swap out the view. I've always done this really badly due to being lazy but now I want to do it right. This is in C++ but it should apply equally to non-desktop applications, if I am to believe the hype. Here is one example: the application controller has to check some URL for existence in the background. It may connect to the "URL available" event (using Boost Signals) as follows: BackgroundUrlCheckerThread(Controller & controller) { // ... signalUrlAvailable.connect( boost::bind(&Controller::urlAvailable,&controller,_1)) } So what does Controller::urlAvailable look like? Here is one possibility: void Controller::urlAvailable(Url url) { if(!view->askUser("URL available, wanna download it?")) return; else // Download the url in a new thread, repeat } This, to me, seems like a gross coupling of the view and the controller. Such a coupling makes it impossible to implement the view when using the web (coroutines aside.) Another possibility: void Controller::urlAvailable(Url url) { urlAvailableSignal(url); // Now, any view interested can do what it wants } I'm partial to the latter but it appears that if I do this there will be: 40 billion such signals. The application controller can get huge for a non-trivial application A very real possibility that a given view accidentally ignores some signals (APIs can inform you at link-time, but signals/slots are run-time) Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • log4net affecting other projects which don't even use it

    - by Graeme
    I'm seeing something really strange happening with some projects I'm working on. I used log4net in an MVC web site and this was working great. I then was working on a totally unrelated Console application which uses the SharePoint API and as soon as I include the following line (other lines don't cause the problem) SPLimitedWebPartManager spWebPartManager = web.GetLimitedWebPartManager("http://blah/blah.aspx?PageView=Shared", System.Web.UI.WebControls.WebParts.PersonalizationScope.Shared); I get the following message in the console app log4net:ERROR XmlConfigurator: Failed to find configuration section 'log4net' in the application's .config file. Check your .config file for the <log4net> and < configSections> elements. The configuration section should look like: <section n ame="log4net" type="log4net.Config.Log4NetConfigurationSectionHandler,log4net" / > log4net:ERROR XmlConfigurator: Failed to find configuration section 'log4net' in the application's .config file. Check your .config file for the <log4net> and < configSections> elements. The configuration section should look like: <section n ame="log4net" type="log4net.Config.Log4NetConfigurationSectionHandler,log4net" / > I get this twice after a small delay. The delay is probably the request to get the web part manager from the page but I'm not sure why this log4net error is showing up in this project. I've gone through the code and bin folders etc. and found no trace of any log4net mentions. Any ideas why this might be happening?

    Read the article

  • onPause/onResume activity issues

    - by Josh
    I have a small test application I am working on which has a timer that updates a textview to countdown from 100 to 0. That works fine, but now I am trying to pause the application if the user presses the back button on the phone and then restart the timer from where they left off when they reopen the app. Here is the code I am using: @Override public void onPause() { if(this._timer_time_remaining > 0) { this.timer.cancel(); } super.onPause(); Log.v("Pausing", String.format("Pausing with %d", this._timer_time_remaining)); } @Override public void onResume() { super.onResume(); Log.v("Resuming", String.format("Resuming with %d", this._timer_time_remaining)); if(this._timer_time_remaining > 0) { setContentView(R.layout.in_game); start_timer(this._timer_time_remaining); } } The start_timer() method creates a CountDownTimer which updates the textview in the onTick method and updates the this._timer_time_remaining int variable. CountDownTimer and _timer_time_remaining are both declared at the class level like this: private CountDownTimer timer; private int _timer_time_remaining; From the Log.v() prints I see that the _timer_time_remaining variable has the correct number of seconds stored when onPause is called, but it is set back to 0 when onResume starts. Why does the variable get reset? I thought that the application would continue to run in the background with the same values. Am I missing something? This is all declared in a class that extends Activity. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • why does Integrated Windows Authentication fail when clients access off the network

    - by Bryan
    My background is not with web applications so this problem is hard for me to explain easily. First I'll try to describe the setup. Client setup:-Only browser that is effected is IE 6-8 (Firefox, chrome, opera, and safari all work fine) -A user will try to access our web application from a company laptop that is not connected to our network. -This machine will be a member of our workgroup and have the company DNS listed as a trusted intranet site. (to which the application in question would be a member) -The security logon mode is set to Automatic Logon only in intranet zone only, and IWA authentication is enabled on the clients browser.Server setup:-Windows server 2003 fp2-The application will first redirect to an Authorization asp page which has anonymous access disabled and IWA enabled in IIS.what should happen is that, since the client is not currently on the network, when this page is called it should prompt the user for network credentials. But with IE, instead of prompting, the user gets a page cannot be displayed error because the IIS manager is denying access to the asp page. If the company DNS is removed from the trusted intranet site list then it prompts correctly but disables single sign on the next time that computer is connected to the network or vpn. My assumption is that since IE uses IWA and the site is listed as an internal site, when no network is found IE just sends nulls to the server attempting to authenticate which is swiftly punted back. Other browsers do not have security zones so when network credentials are not present the server prompts for them. Is there a way to get around this so that our clients can keep the company DNS in the intranet zone but still have the server prompt for credentials when not on the network? Any attempt to allow for anonymous access on the asp page, as far as I know, will cause AUTH_USER to return null and again break SSO. I realize this is slightly rambling so I will do my best to clarify and questions you guys might have. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • GMap.NET shows no map

    - by Mariusz
    I'm trying to use the GMap.NET.WindowsForms control in my Windows forms application but I cannot make it show me any map. Here is what I did: I added the control to my Visual Studio's 2010 toolbox by clicking 'Choose Items...' from the toolbox's context menu and browsing for the GMap.NET.WindowsForms.dll included in the downloaded zip archive. I also added references to GMap.NET.Core.dll and System.Data.SQLite.dll in my solution. Then I put the GMapControl that appeared in the toolbox on the main form of my application and set the map type to GoogleMap. When I run my application, however, the control shows either a blue screen with a piece of text saying "We are sorry, but we don't have imagery at this zoom level for this region" or a bright screen with completely no data (when I change zoom level). Here is my code: GMapMain.MapType = MapType.GoogleMap; GMapMain.MaxZoom = 100; GMapMain.MinZoom = 0; GMapMain.Zoom = 50; GMapMain.CurrentPosition = new PointLatLng(54.6961334816182, 25.2985095977783); GMapMain.ReloadMap(); Please help. I have no idea what to do and I cannot find any information in the Internet that could help me solve the problem. Thank you very much in advance.

    Read the article

  • Handling Digital ID/Signature in Outlook Add-in

    - by CoSteve
    I have a C# Outlook Add-In application (VS2005 and 2003 Outlook) that reads incoming emails and strips out the attachments and the email text body for future processing. Occasionally I'll get an email that contains a digital signature. The application will fail when I try to access the mailitem.body property, throwing the following exception: System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException (0xAB404001): The operation failed. at Microsoft.Office.Interop.Outlook._MailItem.get_Body() at MyLib.MyApp.OutlookAddin.MailProcessor.ProcessMailItem(MailItem mailItem) I'm pretty sure it is the digital signature causing the problem because if I forward the email back to myself, it will strip off the original sender's digital signature and the add-in application will process the email without any problems. I'm not sure what to do. I need to process the email, so I can't just ignore it. Somehow getting the body of the original email without throwing an exception would be ideal. Or I guess if I can identify that there is a digital signature associated with the email, I could forward the email to myself, but that seems a little messy. Does anyone have any suggestions/fixes? Thanks for any help.

    Read the article

  • Explicit behavior with checks vs. implicit behavior

    - by Silviu
    I'm not sure how to construct the question but I'm interested to know what do you guys think of the following situations and which one would you prefer. We're working at a client-server application with winforms. And we have a control that has some fields automatically calculated upon filling another field. So we're having a field currency which when filled by the user would determine an automatic filling of another field, maybe more fields. When the user fills the currency field, a Currency object would be retrieved from a cache based on the string introduced by the user. If entered currency is not found in the cache a null reference is returned by the cache object. Further down when asking the application layer to compute the other fields based on the currency, given a null currency a null specific field would be returned. This way the default, implicit behavior is to clear all fields. Which is the expected behavior. What i would call the explicit implementation would be to verify that the Currency object is null in which case the depending fields are cleared explicitly. I think that the latter version is more clear, less error prone and more testable. But it implies a form of redundancy. The former version is not as clear and it implies a certain behavior from the application layer which is not expressed in the tests. Maybe in the lower layer tests but when the need arises to modify the lower layers, so that given a null currency something else should be returned, i don't think a test that says just that without a motivation is going to be an impediment for introducing a bug in upper layers. What do you guys think?

    Read the article

  • Update a single field from a single entity with ria-services

    - by TimothyP
    There are situations where I only want to update a specific field of a single entity in the database. I loaded the entities of that type into my silverlight application, and I know they are constantly changing on the server... but there is one field which has to be set by the silverlight client... the server will only read it. How can I just send the new data for that field to the server? Example an Entity called "TextField". I have a list of TextFields loaded in the silverlight application and every now and then the user will update the Preload (string) property of an entity and that has to go back to the server without changing anything else on the server. I tried adding a simple SetPreloadText(...) method to the DomainService but that just makes Silverlight crash with some odd error code. Is there a way to this? Am I working against the idea of Silverlight here? I really don't want to send the entire object back because know that at any given time the version on the client will most likely be out of date. (which is ok for this specific application)

    Read the article

  • Spaces and backslashes in Visual Studio build events

    - by gencha
    I have an application that is supposed to aid my project in terms of pre- and post-build event handling. I'm using ndesk.options for command line argument parsing. Which gave me weird results when my project path contains spaces. I thought this was the fault of ndesk.options but I guess my own application is to blame. I call my application as a post-built event like so: build.exe --in="$(ProjectDir)" --out="c:\out\" A simple foreach over args[] displays the following: --in=c:\my project" --out=c:\out" What happened is that the last " in each parameter was treated as if it was escaped. Thus the trailing backslash was removed. And the whole thing is treated as a single argument. Now I thought I was being smart by simply escaping the first " as well, like so: build.exe --in=\"$(ProjectDir)" --out=\"c:\out\" In that case the resulting args[] look like this: --path="c:\my project" --out="c:\out" The trailing backslash in the parameters is still swallowed and the first parameter is now split up. Passing this args[] to ndesk.options will then yield wrong results. How should the right command line look so that the correct elements end up in the correct args[] slots? Alternatively, how is one supposed to parse command line arguments like these with or without ndesk.options? Any suggestion is welcome. Thanks in advance

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 812 813 814 815 816 817 818 819 820 821 822 823  | Next Page >