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  • Merging multiple docx files to one

    - by coding
    I am developing a desktop application in C#. I have coded a function to merge multiple docx files but it does not work as expected. I don't get the content exactly as how it was in the source files. A few blank lines are added in between. The content extends to the next pages, header and footer information is lost, page margins gets changed, etc.. How can I concatenate docs as it is without and change in it.Any suggestions will be helpful. This is my code. public bool CombineDocx(string[] filesToMerge, string destFilepath) { Application wordApp = null; Document wordDoc = null; object outputFile = destFilepath; object missing = Type.Missing; object pageBreak = WdBreakType.wdPageBreak; try { wordApp = new Application { DisplayAlerts = WdAlertLevel.wdAlertsNone, Visible = false }; wordDoc = wordApp.Documents.Add(ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing); Selection selection = wordApp.Selection; foreach (string file in filesToMerge) { selection.InsertFile(file, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing); selection.InsertBreak(ref pageBreak); } wordDoc.SaveAs( ref outputFile, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing); return true; } catch (Exception ex) { Msg.Log(ex); return false; } finally { if (wordDoc != null) { wordDoc.Close(); } if (wordApp != null) { wordApp.DisplayAlerts = WdAlertLevel.wdAlertsAll; wordApp.Quit(); Marshal.FinalReleaseComObject(wordApp); } } }

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  • LINQ2SQL: How to let a column accept null values as zero (0) in Self-Relation table

    - by Remon
    As described in the img, I got a parent-Children relation and since the ParentID not accepting null values (and I can't change to nullabel due to some restriction in the UI I have), how can I remove an existence relation between ReportDataSources in order to change the parent for them (here i want to set the parentId for one of them = 0) how could i do that since i cant change the ParentID directly and setting Parent = null is not valid public void SetReportDataSourceAsMaster(ReportDataSource reportDataSource) { //Some logic - not necessarily for this scenario //Reset Master this.ReportDataSources.ToList().ForEach(rds => rds.IsMaster = false); //Set Master reportDataSource.IsMaster = true; //Set Parent ID for the rest of the Reports data sources this.ReportDataSources.Where(rds => rds.ID != reportDataSource.ID).ToList().ForEach(rds => { //Change Parent ID rds.Parent = reportDataSource; //Remove filttering data rds.FilteringDataMembers.Clear(); //Remove Grouping Data rds.GroupingDataMembers.Clear(); }); //Delete parent HERE THE EXCEPTION THROWN AFTER CALLING SUBMITCHANGES() reportDataSource.Parent = null; //Other logic } Exception thrown after calling submitChanges An attempt was made to remove a relationship between a ReportDataSource and a ReportDataSource. However, one of the relationship's foreign keys (ReportDataSource.ParentID) cannot be set to null.

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  • Can you explain this generics behavior and if I have a workaround?

    - by insta
    Sample program below: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace GenericsTest { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { IRetrievable<int, User> repo = new FakeRepository(); Console.WriteLine(repo.Retrieve(35)); } } class User { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } class FakeRepository : BaseRepository<User>, ICreatable<User>, IDeletable<User>, IRetrievable<int, User> { // why do I have to implement this here, instead of letting the // TKey generics implementation in the baseclass handle it? //public User Retrieve(int input) //{ // throw new NotImplementedException(); //} } class BaseRepository<TPoco> where TPoco : class,new() { public virtual TPoco Create() { return new TPoco(); } public virtual bool Delete(TPoco item) { return true; } public virtual TPoco Retrieve<TKey>(TKey input) { return null; } } interface ICreatable<TPoco> { TPoco Create(); } interface IDeletable<TPoco> { bool Delete(TPoco item); } interface IRetrievable<TKey, TPoco> { TPoco Retrieve(TKey input); } } This sample program represents the interfaces my actual program uses, and demonstrates the problem I'm having (commented out in FakeRepository). I would like for this method call to be generically handled by the base class (which in my real example is able to handle 95% of the cases given to it), allowing for overrides in the child classes by specifying the type of TKey explicitly. It doesn't seem to matter what parameter constraints I use for the IRetrievable, I can never get the method call to fall through to the base class. Also, if anyone can see an alternate way to implement this kind of behavior and get the result I'm ultimately looking for, I would be very interested to see it. Thoughts?

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  • short-cutting equality checking in F#?

    - by John Clements
    In F#, the equality operator (=) is generally extensional, rather than intensional. That's great! Unfortunately, it appears to me that F# does not use pointer equality to short-cut these extensional comparisons. For instance, this code: type Z = MT | NMT of Z ref // create a Z: let a = ref MT // make it point to itself: a := NMT a // check to see whether it's equal to itself: printf "a = a: %A\n" (a = a) ... gives me a big fat segmentation fault[*], despite the fact that 'a' and 'a' both evaluate to the same reference. That's not so great. Other functional languages (e.g. PLT Scheme) get this right, using pointer comparisons conservatively, to return 'true' when it can be determined using a pointer comparison. So: I'll accept the fact that F#'s equality operator doesn't use short-cutting; is there some way to perform an intensional (pointer-based) equality check? The (==) operator is not defined on my types, and I'd love it if someone could tell me that it's available somehow. Or tell me that I'm wrong in my analysis of the situation: I'd love that, too... [*] That would probably be a stack overflow on Windows; there are things about Mono that I'm not that fond of...

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  • Can't get Dialog hosting a WebView to layout properly

    - by user246114
    Hi, I'm trying to host a webview on a dialog, without a titlebar, but I'm getting odd layout results. Example test: @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); requestWindowFeature(Window.FEATURE_NO_TITLE); WindowManager wm = (WindowManager)getContext().getSystemService(Context.WINDOW_SERVICE); Display display = wm.getDefaultDisplay(); LinearLayout ll = new LinearLayout(getContext()); ll.setOrientation(LinearLayout.VERTICAL); ll.setLayoutParams(new LayoutParams( LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT, LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT)); ll.setMinimumWidth(display.getWidth() - 10); ll.setMinimumHeight(display.getHeight() - 10); WebView wv = new WebView(getContext()); wv.setLayoutParams(new LayoutParams( LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT, LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT)); wv.getSettings().setJavaScriptEnabled(true); ll.addView(mWebView); setContentView(ll, new LinearLayout.LayoutParams( LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT, LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT)); } the dialog is inflated at startup, but the webview is not visible. If I rotate the device, it becomes visible, and fills the whole parent layout as requested. What is the right way to do this? I simply want a dialog which occupies most of the device screen, and has a WebView on it which fills the entire space. Thanks

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  • Codeigniter: validation problem

    - by krike
    For some reason a user can login with any password, first I thought I forgot to check for the password but I didn't... and I just cant find the problem here is the model: /*#######################################################*/ function validate() /*#######################################################*/ { $this->db->where('username', $this->input->post('username')); $this->db->where('password', md5($this->input->post('password'))); $q = $this->db->get('user_extra'); if($q->num_rows() == 1): return true; else: return false; endif; }//end of function validate() The controller /*#######################################################*/ function validate_credentials() /*#######################################################*/ { $this->load->model('membership_model'); $this->load->library('form_validation'); $this->form_validation->set_rules('username', 'Name', 'trim|required'); $this->form_validation->set_rules('password', 'password', 'trim|required'); if(!$this->membership_model->validate()): $this->form_validation->set_message('check_login', 'Login not correct, please try again.'); endif; if($this->form_validation->run() == FALSE): $this->index(); else: $this->membership_model->userinfo($this->input->post('username')); //should redirect to last view redirect($this->session->flashdata('redirect_url')); endif; }// end of validate_credentials()

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  • Pass object from webserver to client

    - by user362914
    I developed a C# web application that calls a web-service which returns a base64 encoded array (PDF file). I then convert that array into a UCOMIStream object (I know it is obsolete, but the DLL that I am using requires it as a parameter). I use the following code to do the conversion which works perfectly. I can pass this object to the DLL so that I can print the PDF. This works great on the Webserver, but the requirement is to print it locally. Byte[] bBuffer = statementOut.statementcycle.statementdata.content; int size = bBuffer.Length; IntPtr mem = Marshal.AllocHGlobal(size); Marshal.Copy(bBuffer, 0, mem, size); // Create an OLE Stream object. System.Runtime.InteropServices.UCOMIStream str; //obsolete but the createstreamonhglobal outputs it CreateStreamOnHGlobal(mem, true, out str); The DLL resides on the client so I am able to use ActiveX to create the object using javascript and/or VBscript;however, I have not been able to figure out how to get the stream object to the client to pass to the DLL. How can this be achieved?

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  • How to strip out 0x0a special char from utf8 file using c# and keep file as utf8?

    - by user1013388
    The following is a line from a UTF-8 file from which I am trying to remove the special char (0X0A), which shows up as a black diamond with a question mark below: 2464577 ????? True s6620178 Unspecified <1?1009-672 This is generated when SSIS reads a SQL table then writes out, using a flat file mgr set to code page 65001. When I open the file up in Notepad++, displays as 0X0A. I'm looking for some C# code to definitely strip that char out and replace it with either nothing or a blank space. Here's what I have tried: string fileLocation = "c:\\MyFile.txt"; var content = string.Empty; using (StreamReader reader = new System.IO.StreamReader(fileLocation)) { content = reader.ReadToEnd(); reader.Close(); } content = content.Replace('\u00A0', ' '); //also tried: content.Replace((char)0X0A, ' '); //also tried: content.Replace((char)0X0A, ''); //also tried: content.Replace((char)0X0A, (char)'\0'); Encoding encoding = Encoding.UTF8; using (FileStream stream = new FileStream(fileLocation, FileMode.Create)) { using (BinaryWriter writer = new BinaryWriter(stream, encoding)) { writer.Write(encoding.GetPreamble()); //This is for writing the BOM writer.Write(content); } } I also tried this code to get the actual string value: byte[] bytes = { 0x0A }; string text = Encoding.UTF8.GetString(bytes); And it comes back as "\n". So in the code above I also tried replacing "\n" with " ", both in double quotes and single quotes, but still no change. At this point I'm out of ideas. Anyone got any advice? Thanks.

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  • Ways to make (relatively) safe assumptions about the type of concrete subclasses?

    - by Kylotan
    I have an interface (defined as a abstract base class) that looks like this: class AbstractInterface { public: bool IsRelatedTo(const AbstractInterface& other) const = 0; } And I have an implementation of this (constructors etc omitted): class ConcreteThing { public: bool IsRelatedTo(const AbstractInterface& other) const { return m_ImplObject.has_relationship_to(other.m_ImplObject); } private: ImplementationObject m_ImplObject; } The AbstractInterface forms an interface in Project A, and the ConcreteThing lives in Project B as an implementation of that interface. This is so that code in Project A can access data from Project B without having a direct dependency on it - Project B just has to implement the correct interface. Obviously the line in the body of the IsRelatedTo function cannot compile - that instance of ConcreteThing has an m_ImplObject member, but it can't assume that all AbstractInterfaces do, including the other argument. In my system, I can actually assume that all implementations of AbstractInterface are instances of ConcreteThing (or subclasses thereof), but I'd prefer not to be casting the object to the concrete type in order to get at the private member, or encoding that assumption in a way that will crash without a diagnostic later if this assumption ceases to hold true. I cannot modify ImplementationObject, but I can modify AbstractInterface and ConcreteThing. I also cannot use the standard RTTI mechanism for checking a type prior to casting, or use dynamic_cast for a similar purpose. I have a feeling that I might be able to overload IsRelatedTo with a ConcreteThing argument, but I'm not sure how to call it via the base IsRelatedTo(AbstractInterface) method. It wouldn't get called automatically as it's not a strict reimplementation of that method. Is there a pattern for doing what I want here, allowing me to implement the IsRelatedTo function via ImplementationObject::has_relationship_to(ImplementationObject), without risky casts? (Also, I couldn't think of a good question title - please change it if you have a better one.)

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  • Permuting output of a tree of closures

    - by yan
    This a conceptual question on how one would implement the following in Lisp (assuming Common Lisp in my case, but any dialect would work). Assume you have a function that creates closures that sequentially iterate over an arbitrary collection (or otherwise return different values) of data and returns nil when exhausted, i.e. (defun make-counter (up-to) (let ((cnt 0)) (lambda () (if (< cnt up-to) (incf cnt) nil)))) CL-USER> (defvar gen (make-counter 3)) GEN CL-USER> (funcall gen) 1 CL-USER> (funcall gen) 2 CL-USER> (funcall gen) 3 CL-USER> (funcall gen) NIL CL-USER> (funcall gen) NIL Now, assume you are trying to permute a combinations of one or more of these closures. How would you implement a function that returns a new closure that subsequently creates a permutation of all closures contained within it? i.e.: (defun permute-closures (counters) ......) such that the following holds true: CL-USER> (defvar collection (permute-closures (list (make-counter 3) (make-counter 3)))) CL-USER> (funcall collection) (1 1) CL-USER> (funcall collection) (1 2) CL-USER> (funcall collection) (1 3) CL-USER> (funcall collection) (2 1) ... and so on. The way I had it designed originally was to add a 'pause' parameter to the initial counting lambda such that when iterating you can still call it and receive the old cached value if passed ":pause t", in hopes of making the permutation slightly cleaner. Also, while the example above is a simple list of two identical closures, the list can be an arbitrarily-complicated tree (which can be permuted in depth-first order, and the resulting permutation set would have the shape of the tree.). I had this implemented, but my solution wasn't very clean and am trying to poll how others would approach the problem. Thanks in advance.

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  • STI and accepts_nested_attributes_for in rails

    - by ryanshackintosh
    I have models as follows: class Entity < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :addresses accepts_nested_attributes_for :addresses, :reject_if => lambda { |a| a[:label].blank?} , :allow_destroy => true end class Client < Entity before_save :set_type private def set_type self.type = "Client" end end class Address < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :entity end I have recently implemented accepts_nested_attributes_for on the /clients/new form, as follows: <% form_for(@client, :html => {:class => 'form'}) do |f| -%> <%= f.label :name %> <%= f.text_field :name -%> <%= f.label :phone %> <%= f.text_field :phone %> <% f.fields_for :addresses do |a| %> <%= a.label :street %> <%= a.text_field :street%> <%= a.label :city %> <%= a.text_field :city %> <% end %> <% end %> And my controller as follows: class ClientsController < ApplicationController before_filter :load_client , :except => [:index, :new, :create, :render_clients] def new @client = Client.new @client.addresses.build end def create @client = Client.new(params[:client]) if @client.save flash[:notice] = 'Client has been successfully added' redirect_to @client else render :action => 'new' end end The issue is that when the record is saved it gives an error stating: "Entity can't be blank" I assume it is something to do with the fact that a 'Client' and not an 'Entity' is being added. Can anyone point me in the right direction?

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  • Executing sc.exe from .NET Process unable to start and stop service.

    - by Jason
    I'm trying to restart the service from a remote machine. Here is my code. The problem is that I need to enter startinfo.filename = "sc.exe" since I'm putting "start /wait sc" this is causing an error. Here is my code, any thoughts. Also if anyone has any idea how to keep the cmd window open after this is ran so I could see the code that was ran that would be awesome. string strCommandStop1; string strCommandStop2; string strCommandStart1; string strCommandStart2; string strServer = "\\" + txtServerName.Text; string strDb1 = "SqlAgent$" + txtInsName.Text; string strDb2 = "MSSQL$" + txtInsName.Text; strCommandStop1 = @"start /wait sc " + strServer + " Stop " + strDb1; strCommandStop2 = @"start /wait sc " + strServer + " Stop " + strDb2; strCommandStart1 = @"start /wait sc " + strServer + " Start " + strDb2; strCommandStart2 = @"start /wait sc " + strServer + " Start " + strDb1; try { ProcessStartInfo startInfo = new ProcessStartInfo(); startInfo.CreateNoWindow = true; startInfo.Arguments = strCommandStop1; startInfo.Arguments = strCommandStop2; startInfo.Arguments = strCommandStart1; startInfo.Arguments = strCommandStart2; startInfo .FileName = "sc.exe"; Process.Start(startInfo); } catch (Exception e) { MessageBox.Show(e.Message); }

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  • Prolog Beginner: How to unify with arithmentic cmparison operators or how to get a set var to range

    - by sixtyfootersdude
    I am new to prolog. I need to write an integer adder that will add numbers between 0-9 to other numbers 0-9 and produce a solution 0-18. This is what I want to do: add(in1, in2, out) :- in1 < 10, in2 < 10, out < 18. I would like to be able to call it like this: To Check if it is a valid addition: ?- add(1,2,3). true ?- add(1,2,4). false With one missing variable: ?- add(X,2,3). 1 ?- add(1,4,X). 5 With multiple missing variables: ?-add(X,Y,Z). % Some output that would make sense. Some examples could be: X=1, Y=1, Z=2 ; X=2, Y=1, Z=3 ...... I realize that this is probably a pretty simplistic question and it is probably very straightforward. However cording to the prolog tutorial I am using: "Unlike unification Arithmetic Comparison Operators operators cannot be used to give values to a variable. The can only be evaluated when every term on each side have been instantiated."

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  • PHP & MySQL username validation and storage problem.

    - by php
    For some reason when a user enters a brand new username the error message <p>Username unavailable</p> is displayed and the name is not stored. I was wondering if some can help find the flaw in my code so I can fix this error? Thanks Here is the PHP code. if($_POST['username'] && trim($_POST['username'])!=='') { $u = "SELECT * FROM users WHERE username = '$username' AND user_id <> '$user_id'"; $r = mysqli_query ($mysqli, $u) or trigger_error("Query: $u\n<br />MySQL Error: " . mysqli_error($mysqli)); if (mysqli_num_rows($r) == TRUE) { echo '<p>Username unavailable</p>'; $_POST['username'] = NULL; } else if(isset($_POST['username']) && mysqli_num_rows($r) == 0 && strlen($_POST['username']) <= 255) { $username = mysqli_real_escape_string($mysqli, $_POST['username']); } else if($_POST['username'] && strlen($_POST['username']) >= 256) { echo '<p>Username can not exceed 255 characters</p>'; } }

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  • one click, two 'click' event fired

    - by Toni Michel Caubet
    I just want to toggle some elements when a link is clicked: This is how i am trying (But i don't really think that it matters much for this question what's inside the event function callback): /* mostrar exceso de comentarios a peticion del usuario*/ $('.toggleComments').click(function(){ console.log('.toggleComments'); if($(this).parents('.helpContent').find('.commentHideble:visible').length > 0){ $(this).text('+ <?=get_texto_clave('show_old_comments')?>').removeClass('toggleCommentsActive').append(' ('+$(this).parents('.helpContent').find('.commentHideble:not:visible').length+'+)'); }else{ $(this).text('- <?=get_texto_clave('hide_old_comments')?>').addClass('toggleCommentsActive'); } $(this).parents('.helpContent').find('.commentHideble').slideToggle(100); }); I even tried a boolean but gave me same result /* mostrar exceso de comentarios a peticion del usuario*/ var ctoggle = false; $('.toggleComments').click(function(){ if(ctoggle == false){ ctoggle = true; console.log('.toggleComments'); if($(this).parents('.helpContent').find('.commentHideble:visible').length > 0){ $(this).text('+ <?=get_texto_clave('show_old_comments')?>').removeClass('toggleCommentsActive').append(' ('+$(this).parents('.helpContent').find('.commentHideble:not:visible').length+'+)'); }else{ $(this).text('- <?=get_texto_clave('hide_old_comments')?>').addClass('toggleCommentsActive'); } $(this).parents('.helpContent').find('.commentHideble').slideToggle(100); ctoggle = false; } }); Why the log is being fired twice by click?

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  • Objective-c: Comparing two strings not working correctly.

    - by Mr. McPepperNuts
    - (NSString *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView titleForHeaderInSection:(NSInteger)section { id <NSFetchedResultsSectionInfo> sectionInfo = [[self.fetchedResultsController sections] objectAtIndex:section]; if(tempArray != nil){ for (int i = 0; i < [tempArray count]; i++) { if([[sectionInfo indexTitle] isEqualToString:[tempArray objectAtIndex:i]]) // if([sectionInfo indexTitle] == [tempArray objectAtIndex:i]) { NSLog(@"found"); break; } else { NSLog(@"Not found %@", [sectionInfo indexTitle]); [tempArray addObject:[sectionInfo indexTitle]]; NSLog(@"array %@", tempArray); return [tempArray objectAtIndex:i]; } } } } The comparison of the strings in the if statement never resolves to true. The sample data has two instances of duplicates for testing purposes. The commented line is an alternate, although I believe incorrect, attempt to compare the section with the string in the tempArray. What am I doing incorrectly? Also, all data is in capital letters, so the comparison is not a matter of lower to upper case.

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  • Odd Things of ASP.NET MVC Deployment on IIS 6

    - by misaxi
    Recently, I am a bit interested in the deployment of ASP.NET MVC application on IIS6 because Phil Haack posted an easier way to deploy ASP.NET MVC application on ASP.NET 4. So I decided to see how different version of ASP.NET MVC works on different version of ASP.NET. First off, I created an ASP.NET MVC 2 project in Visual Studio 2010 and deploy it to IIS 6 on Windows Server 2003 (only .NET framework 3.5 installed). I set the application to run in ASP.NET 2.0 and no extra stuff. Because I just wanted to see what sort of error would occur. And as expected, some error was reported as following. Then, I set the Copy Local attribute of System.Web.Mvc assembly to true as following and deploy again. As a result, the application ran smoothly. I had read tons of materials talked about the mess of deploying MVC application on IIS 6. And I did fight to tackle the deploying issues in my previous project. At least, if had used Extensionless Url in your application, you should have configured wildcard mapping in IIS. But in this case, I even didn’t have chance to do so. What the heck was going on exactly? Did I discover a new continent?

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  • Is there a Visual Studio (or freeware) equivalent for Expression Blend's "Edit Template" feature?

    - by DanM
    In Expression Blend, you can view and edit the control template of objects in the "Objects and Timeline" panel. I'm wondering if there's an equivalent feature in Visual Studio or if there's something free (or very inexpensive) I can download that will allow me to do this. Here's a screen cap from Expression Blend that shows what I'm talking about: Doing this for DataGrid results in the following: <Style x:Key="DataGridStyle1" TargetType="{x:Type Custom:DataGrid}"> ... <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type Custom:DataGrid}"> ... </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsGrouping" Value="True"> <Setter Property="ScrollViewer.CanContentScroll" Value="False"/> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> (The ... is of course replaced with setters and the contents of the control template.) This is a very useful starting point if you want to create a custom style and template for a control. It seems like you can do pretty much anything you can do in Blend in Studio, but this one is eluding me. Any ideas? Edit I'm also curious if this feature will be in Visual Studio 2010. Anyone know?

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  • PHP error T_object_operator

    - by kwek-kwek
    I am getting this error : Parse error: syntax error, unexpected T_OBJECT_OPERATOR in wp-content/themes/phil/page.php on line 104 This is my code: <?php $todaysDate = date ('M d'); $event_query = new WP_Query('showposts=5&category_name=events&meta_key=Date&meta_compare=>=&meta_value='.$todaysDate.'&orderby=meta_value=order=ASC'); ?> <?php if (event_query->have_post()) : while ($event_query->have_post()) : $event_query->the_post(); $eventMeta = get_post_meta($post->ID, 'Date', true); $eventDate = strtotime($eventMeta); $displayDate = date ('M d', $eventDate); ?> <li> <span class="date"><?php echo $displayDate ; ?></span> <span><a href="<?php the_permalink();?>" title="<?php the_title(); ?>"><?php the_title(); ?></a></span></li> <?php endwhile; else:?> <li>No Upcoming events</li> <?php endif;?> I am pretty new to this PHP stuff and WOrdpress so let me know what am I doing wrong. or paste the code to replace. Thank you

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  • splice() not working on correctly

    - by adardesign
    I am setting a cookie for each navigation container that is clicked on. It sets an array that is joined and set the cookie value. if its clicked again then its removed from the array. It somehow buggy. It only splices after clicking on other elements. and then it behaves weird. It might be that splice is not the correct method Thanks much. var navLinkToOpen; var setNavCookie = function(value){ var isSet = false; var checkCookies = checkNavCookie() setCookieHelper = checkCookies? checkCookies.split(","): []; for(i in setCookieHelper){ if(value == setCookieHelper[i]){ setCookieHelper.splice(value,1); isSet = true; } } if(!isSet){setCookieHelper.push(value)} setCookieHelper.join(",") document.cookie = "navLinkToOpen"+"="+setCookieHelper; } var checkNavCookie = function(){ var allCookies = document.cookie.split( ';' ); for (i = 0; i < allCookies.length; i++ ){ temp = allCookies[i].split("=") if(temp[0].match("navLinkToOpen")){ var getValue = temp[1] } } return getValue || false } $(document).ready(function() { $("#LeftNav li").has("b").addClass("navHeader").not(":first").siblings("li").hide() $(".navHeader").click(function(){ $(this).toggleClass("collapsed").nextUntil("li:has('b')").slideToggle(300); setNavCookie($('.navHeader').index($(this))) return false }) var testCookies = checkNavCookie(); if(testCookies){ finalArrayValue = testCookies.split(",") for(i in finalArrayValue){ $(".navHeader").eq(finalArrayValue[i]).toggleClass("collapsed").nextUntil(".navHeader").slideToggle (0); } } });

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  • Enabling all buttons in a repeater except for the clicked one

    - by NewAmbition
    I have a Repeater Control with various buttons in it. When the button gets clicked, it needs to disable itself so it cant be clicked again. Working. However, when I click that button, it needs to enable any other button but it. So, When I click on it, it needs to disable. When I click on another one, the previous button must enable, and that one must disable. So for I've tried: Button btnLoad = (Button)e.Item.FindControl("btnLoad"); foreach (Button b in e.Item.Controls.OfType<Button>().Select(c => c).Where(b => b != btnLoad)) { b.Enabled = true; } btnLoad.Text = "Currently Viewing"; btnLoad.Enabled = false; But it isnt working. Depending on where I put it, its either leaving all the buttons enabled (But still changing its text), or not doing anything at all. What do I need to do to make this work?

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  • Asynchronously get user data in facebook tab?

    - by Kristoffer Nolgren
    Using the php sdk, I check if a user inside a tab likes the corresponding page. If i put the following code inside index.php and use that page as my page-tab-url, <?php require_once("facebook/facebook.php"); // Create our application instance // (replace this with your appId and secret). $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => '1399475990283166', 'secret' => 'mysercret', 'cookie' => true )); $signed_request = $facebook->getSignedRequest(); echo $signed_request['page']['liked']; ?> it outputs '1'. I would like to achieve this asynchronously instead, so I put the php in a separate file and try to access it using ajax instead $http.post('/facebook/likes.php'). success(function(data){ console.log(data); }).error(function(data){ console.log(data); } ); This sample is using angular, but what javascript library i'm using probably doesn't matter. When I access the info with javascript Facebook doesn't seem to get the info that I liked the page. Adding a print_r($facebook); on the page I'm retreiving the same values as if i'm not in a facebook-tab: ( [sharedSessionID:protected] => [appId:protected] => 1399475990283166 [appSecret:protected] => 679fb0ab947c2b98e818f9240bc793da [user:protected] => [signedRequest:protected] => [state:protected] => [accessToken:protected] => [fileUploadSupport:protected] => [trustForwarded:protected] => ) Can I access theese values asynchronosly somehow?

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  • Java: Cleaing up connection reset (but not by peer).

    - by Zombies
    There seems to be some confusion as well contradicting statements on various SO answers: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/585599/whats-causing-my-java-net-socketexception-connection-reset . You can see here that the accepted answer states that the connecteion was closed by other side. But this is not true, closing a connection doesn't cause a connection reset. It is cauesed by "an underlying TCP/IP error." What I want to know is if a SocketException: Connection reset means really besides "unerlying TCP/IP Error." What really causes this? As I doubt it has anything to do with the connection being closed (since closing a connection isn't an exception worthy flag, and reading from a closed connection is, but that isn't an "underlying TCP/IP error." My hypothesis is this Connection reset is caused from a server's failure to acknowledge an ACK packet (either wholly or just improperly as per TCP/IP). And that a SocketTimeoutException is generated only when no data is generated to be read (since this is thrown during a read after a certain duration, and read is waiting for data, but is not concerned with ACK packets). In other words, read() throws SocketTimeoutException if it didn't read any bytes of actual data (DATA LAYER) in its allotted time.

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  • jQuery logic firing twice from a Usercontrol when used in a jQueryUI modal dialog

    - by AaronS
    I have an asp.net usercontrol that I'm using to put a bunch of HTML and Jquery logic into to be shared on several pages. This usercontrol has some dropdown boxes loaded from json calls and has no added codebehind logic. When I use this usercontrol on a normal page it works perfectly fine, and no issues at all. However, when I wrap the usercontrol in a div, and use a jqueryUI modal dialog, everything in the usercontrol fires twice. Not only code in the initial $(document).ready(function() {});, but also every function is also fired twice when called. Debugging this in Visual Studio, I see that everything is first being called from the external JS file, and then again from a "script block" file that is somehow getting generated on the fly. This script block file isn't getting generated on a page that doesn't wrap the user control in a modal. The same happens if I use IISExpress or IIS7. The question is, why is this script block file getting created, and why is all my jQuery logic firing twice? --edit-- Here is the div: <div id="divMyDiv" title="MyDiv"> <uc1:MyUserControl runat="server" ID="MyUsercontrol" /> </div> Here is the modal logic that uses it: $("#divMyDiv").dialog({ autoOpen: false, height: 400, width: 400, modal: true, open: function (type, data) { $(this).parent().appendTo("form"); } }); Note: The problm still occurs, even if I remove the "open:" function. But, it does not occur if I remove the entire dialog block, so it is specific to this dialog call.

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  • Safe json parsing with jquery?

    - by user246114
    Hi, I am using jquery with json. My client pages generate json, which I store on my server. The clients can then fetch the json back out later, parse, and show it. Since my clients are generating the json, it may not be safe. I think jquery uses eval() internally. Is that true? Is there a way to use the native json parsers from the browsers where available, otherwise fall back to manual parsing if not? I'm new to jquery so I don't know where I'd insert my own parsing code. I'm doing something like: $.ajax({ url: 'myservlet', type: 'GET', dataType: 'json', timeout: 1000, error: function(){ alert('Error loading JSON'); }, success: function(json){ alert("It worked!: " + json.name + ", " + json.grade); } }); so in the success() method, the json object is already parsed for me. Is there a way to catch it as a raw string first? Then I can decide whether to use the native parsers or manual parsing (hoping there's a jquery plugin for that..). The articles I'm reading are all from different years, so I don't know if jquery has already abandoned eval() already for json, Thank you

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