Search Results

Search found 22298 results on 892 pages for 'default'.

Page 819/892 | < Previous Page | 815 816 817 818 819 820 821 822 823 824 825 826  | Next Page >

  • UITableViewCell outlets not set during bundle load (possibly very elementary question)

    - by Jan Zich
    What are the most common reasons for an outlet (a class property) not being set during a bundle load? I'm sorry; most likely I'm not using the correct terms. It's my first steps with iPhone OS development and Objective-C, so please bear with me. Here is more details. Basically, I'm trying to create a table view based form with a fixed number of static rows. I followed this example: http://developer.apple.com/iphone/library/documentation/userexperience/conceptual/TableView_iPhone/TableViewCells/TableViewCells.html Scroll down to The Technique for Static Row Content please. I have one nib file with one table view, three table cells and all connections set as in the example. The problem is that the corresponding cell properties in my controller are never initialised. I get an exception in cellForRowAtIndexPath complaining that the returned cell is nil: UITableView dataSource must return a cell from tableView:cellForRowAtIndexPath. Here are the relevant parts from the implementation of the controller: @synthesize cellA; @synthesize cellB; @synthesize cellC; - (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { return 1; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return 3; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { switch (indexPath.row) { case 0: return cellA; break; case 1: return cellB; break; case 2: return cellC; break; default: return nil; } } And here is the interface part: @interface AssociatePhoneViewController : UITableViewController { UITableViewCell *cellA; UITableViewCell *cellB; UITableViewCell *cellB; } @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UITableViewCell *cellA; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UITableViewCell *cellB; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UITableViewCell *cellC; @end This must be possibly one of the the most embarrassing questions on StackOverflow. It looks like the most basic example code. Is is possible that the cells are not instantiated with the nib file? I have them on the same level before the tabula view in the nib file. I tried to move them after the table view, but it did not make any difference. Are table cells in some way special? Do I need to set some flag or some property on them in the nib file? I was under the impression that all classes (views, windows, controllers …) listed in a nib file are simply instantiated (and linked using the provided connections). Could it possibly be some memory issue? The cell properties in my controller are not defined in any special way.

    Read the article

  • how to include in web.config an external mydll.config file and read its values?

    - by firepol
    Hi, I found this answer about external configuration files. I'm trying to do a similar thing. I have a small webapplication called StatsGen I want to include in other projects, and for convenience I'd like to have the settings inside the bin folder, in a config file with an appropriate name, in my case: StatsGen.config. So I've put these line in the web.config (as explained in the answer I mentioned above): <configSections> <section name="StatsGenSettings" restartOnExternalChanges="true" type="System.Configuration.NameValueFileSectionHandler" /> <!--sectionGroups--> </configSections> <StatsGenSettings configSource="StatsGen.config"></StatsGenSettings> <!--and here comes the rest... appSettings etc.--> Inside the bin folder, I created a StatsGen.xml file, then renamed it to StatsGen.config. It looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <StatsGenSettings> <add key="Password" value="myStatsPass" /> <add key="ConnectionString" value="Server=mydbsrv;Database=myDB;User ID=myUser;Password=myPass" /> </StatsGenSettings> I created an Helper class, as suggested in the answer. In the Page_Load of my default.aspx.cs file, I've put: goodPassword = StatsGenSettings.Instance["Password"]; When I load my page, I get this error: The type initializer for 'StatsGen.Helpers.StatsGenSettings' threw an exception. I've tried to exlude the helper and just to get access to the key, like this: NameValueCollection _settings = ConfigurationManager.GetSection("StatsGenSettings") as NameValueCollection; And I get this error: Unable to open configSource file 'StatsGen.config'. (C:\Users\pbo\Documents\Visual Studio 2010\Projects\StatsGen\StatsGen\web.config line 21) At line 21 I just have this, as explained above: <StatsGenSettings configSource="StatsGen.config"></StatsGenSettings> So now I'm wondering, what's wrong? Some detailed help would be cool... like: where exactly should I declare the StatsGenSettings element inside the web.config? It was not specified in the answer I've found... or what else am I doing wrong? Thanks for letting me know...

    Read the article

  • ASP.net Repeater Control Problem (nothing outputted from datasource(sqldatareader))

    - by Phil
    I have the following code to get the repeaters' data in my usercontrol (content.ascx.vb): If did = 0 Then s = "select etc (statement works on server)" x = New SqlCommand(s, c) x.Parameters.Add("@contentid", Data.SqlDbType.Int) x.Parameters("@contentid").Value = contentid c.Open() r = x.ExecuteReader If r.HasRows Then Contactinforepeater.DataSource = r End If c.Close() r.Close() Else s = "select etc (statement works on server)" x = New SqlCommand(s, c) x.Parameters.Add("@contentid", SqlDbType.Int) x.Parameters("@contentid").Value = contentid x.Parameters.Add("@did", SqlDbType.Int) x.Parameters("@did").Value = did c.Open() r = x.ExecuteReader If r.HasRows Then Contactinforepeater.DataSource = r c.Close() r.Close() End If End If Then I have the following repeater control markup in my usercontrol (content.ascx): <asp:Repeater ID="Contactinforepeater" runat="server"> <HeaderTemplate> <h1>Contact Information</h1> </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <table width="50%"> <tr> <td colspan="2"><%#Container.DataItem("position")%></td> </tr> <tr> <td>Name:</td> <td><%#Container.DataItem("surname")%></td> </tr> <tr> <td>Telephone:</td> <td><%#Container.DataItem("telephone")%></td> </tr> <tr> <td>Fax:</td> <td><%#Container.DataItem("fax")%></td> </tr> <tr> <td>Email:</td> <td><%#Container.DataItem("email")%></td> </tr> </table> </ItemTemplate> <SeparatorTemplate><br /><hr /><br /></SeparatorTemplate> </asp:Repeater> When I insert this usercontrol into default.aspx with this code: <%@ Register src="Modules/Content.ascx" tagname="Content" tagprefix="uc1" %> and <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <uc1:Content ID="Content" runat="server" /> </div> </form> I do not get any error messages but the expected content from the database is not displayed. Can someone please show me the syntax to get this working or point out where I am going wrong? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Specifying a Single Request To Use Credentials with HttpClient

    - by jiduvah
    I am using OAuth2 on my android project. The idea is to use a singleton HttpClient used with a ThreadSafeClientConnManager. For a normal request to the server we construct an Authorization header and send that. The header is constructed from values received from the server. This works fine. However every 15 minutes we must get new values from the server to construct the header. To Received these values I must set the credentials like so. client.getCredentialsProvider().setCredentials( new AuthScope(AuthScope.ANY_HOST, AuthScope.ANY_PORT), new UsernamePasswordCredentials(creds.clientId, creds.clientSecret)); In order for this to work I must set up and new DefaultHttpClient. If I use the original singleton httpclient I receive some errors. My question is.. is it possible to set the credentials to be used only on this one request? I noticed that there is an AuthScope. The host and port would not be suitable for this but maybe the realm would? I can't find anything that tells me what a realm is or how to use it. 06-05 10:12:55.969: W/System.err(23843): org.apache.http.NoHttpResponseException: The target server failed to respond 06-05 10:12:55.969: W/System.err(23843): at org.apache.http.impl.conn.DefaultResponseParser.parseHead(DefaultResponseParser.java:85) 06-05 10:12:55.969: W/System.err(23843): at org.apache.http.impl.io.AbstractMessageParser.parse(AbstractMessageParser.java:174) 06-05 10:12:55.969: W/System.err(23843): at org.apache.http.impl.AbstractHttpClientConnection.receiveResponseHeader(AbstractHttpClientConnection.java:179) 06-05 10:12:55.969: W/System.err(23843): at org.apache.http.impl.conn.DefaultClientConnection.receiveResponseHeader(DefaultClientConnection.java:235) 06-05 10:12:55.969: W/System.err(23843): at org.apache.http.impl.conn.AbstractClientConnAdapter.receiveResponseHeader(AbstractClientConnAdapter.java:259) 06-05 10:12:55.975: W/System.err(23843): at org.apache.http.protocol.HttpRequestExecutor.doReceiveResponse(HttpRequestExecutor.java:279) 06-05 10:12:55.975: W/System.err(23843): at org.apache.http.protocol.HttpRequestExecutor.execute(HttpRequestExecutor.java:121) 06-05 10:12:55.975: W/System.err(23843): at org.apache.http.impl.client.DefaultRequestDirector.execute(DefaultRequestDirector.java:504) 06-05 10:12:55.975: W/System.err(23843): at org.apache.http.impl.client.AbstractHttpClient.execute(AbstractHttpClient.java:555) 06-05 10:12:55.975: W/System.err(23843): at org.apache.http.impl.client.AbstractHttpClient.execute(AbstractHttpClient.java:487) 06-05 10:12:55.975: W/System.err(23843): at org.apache.http.impl.client.AbstractHttpClient.execute(AbstractHttpClient.java:465) So After more testing I have found where the problem lies. I want to configure a pooled connection manager like so SchemeRegistry schemeRegistry = new SchemeRegistry(); schemeRegistry.register( new Scheme("http", PlainSocketFactory.getSocketFactory(), 80)); schemeRegistry.register( new Scheme("https", PlainSocketFactory.getSocketFactory(), 443)); ClientConnectionManager conManager = new ThreadSafeClientConnManager(new BasicHttpParams(), schemeRegistry); DefaultHttpClient httpClient = new DefaultHttpClient(); But when configure like this, I get the error above. If I use the normal default httpclient like so DefaultHttpClient httpClient = new DefaultHttpClient(); Then it works fine. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Callback function in jquery doesn't seem to work......

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    I use the following jquery pagination plugin and i got the error a.parentNode is undefined when i executed it... <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { getRecordspage(1, 5); $(".pager").pagination(17, { callback: pagechange, current_page: '0', items_per_page: '5', num_display_entries : '5', next_text: 'Next', prev_text: 'Prev', num_edge_entries: '1' }); }); function pagechange() { $("#ResultsDiv").empty(); $("#ResultsDiv").css('display', 'none'); getRecordspage($(this).text(), 5); } function getRecordspage(curPage, pagSize) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "Default.aspx/GetRecords", data: "{'currentPage':" + curPage + ",'pagesize':" + pagSize + "}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(jsonObj) { var strarr = jsonObj.d.split('##'); var jsob = jQuery.parseJSON(strarr[0]); var divs = ''; $.each(jsob.Table, function(i, employee) { divs += '<div class="resultsdiv"><br /><span class="resultName">' + employee.Emp_Name + '</span><span class="resultfields" style="padding-left:100px;">Category&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.Desig_Name + '</span><br /><br /><span id="SalaryBasis" class="resultfields">Salary Basis&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.SalaryBasis + '</span><span class="resultfields" style="padding-left:25px;">Salary&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.FixedSalary + '</span><span style="font-size:110%;font-weight:bolder;padding-left:25px;">Address&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.Address + '</span></div>'; }); $("#ResultsDiv").append(divs).show('slow'); $(".resultsdiv:even").addClass("resultseven"); $(".resultsdiv").hover(function() { $(this).addClass("resultshover"); }, function() { $(this).removeClass("resultshover"); }); } }); } </script> and in my page, <div id="ResultsDiv" style="display:none;"> </div> <div id="pager" class="pager"> </div> Any suggestion....

    Read the article

  • Openlayers - LayerRedraw() / Feature rotation

    - by Ozaki
    TLDR: I have an Openlayers map with a layer called 'track' I want to remove track and add track back in. I have an image 'imageFeature' on a layer that rotates on load to the direction being set. I want it to update this rotation that is set in 'styleMap' on a layer called 'tracking'. I set the var 'stylemap' to apply the external image & rotation. The 'imageFeature' is added to the layer at the coords specified. 'imageFeature' is removed. 'imageFeature' is added again in its new location. Rotation is not applied.. As the 'styleMap' applies to the layer I think that I have to remove the layer and add it again rather than just the 'imageFeature' Layer: var tracking = new OpenLayers.Layer.GML("Tracking", "coordinates.json", { format: OpenLayers.Format.GeoJSON, styleMap: styleMap }); styleMap: var styleMap = new OpenLayers.StyleMap({ fillOpacity: 1, pointRadius: 10, rotation: heading, }); Now wrapped in a timed function the imageFeature: map.layers[3].addFeatures(new OpenLayers.Feature.Vector( new OpenLayers.Geometry.Point(longitude, latitude), {rotation: heading, type: parseInt(Math.random() * 3)} )); Type refers to a lookup of 1 of 3 images.: styleMap.addUniqueValueRules("default", "type", lookup); var lookup = { 0: {externalGraphic: "Image1.png", rotation: heading}, 1: {externalGraphic: "Image2.png", rotation: heading}, 2: {externalGraphic: "Image3.png", rotation: heading} } I have tried the 'redraw()' function: but it returns "tracking is undefined" or "map.layers[2]" is undefined. tracking.redraw(true); map.layers[2].redraw(true); Heading is a variable: from a JSON feed. var heading = 13.542; But so far can't get anything to work it will only rotate the image onload. The image will move in coordinates as it should though. So what am I doing wrong with the redraw function or how can I get this image to rotate live? Thanks in advance -Ozaki Add: I managed to get map.layers[2].redraw(true); to sucessfully redraw layer 2. But it still does not update the rotation. I am thinking because the stylemap is updating. But it runs through the style map every n sec, but no updates to rotation and the variable for heading is updating correctly if i put a watch on it in firebug.

    Read the article

  • STDOUT can not return to Screen

    - by rockyurock
    STDOUT can not return to Screen Hello all below is the part of my code, my code enters "if loop" with $value =1 and output of the process "iperf.exe" is getting into my_output.txt. As i am timing out the process after alram(20sec) time,also wanted to capture the output of this process only. then after i want to continue to the command prompt but i am not able to return to the command promt... not only this code itself does not PRINT on the command prompt , rather it is priniting on the my_output.txt file (i am looping this if loop through rest of my code) output.txt ========== inside value loop2 ------------------------------------------------------------ Server listening on UDP port 5001 Receiving 1470 byte datagrams UDP buffer size: 8.00 KByte (default) ------------------------------------------------------------ [160] local 10.232.62.151 port 5001 connected with 10.232.62.151 port 1505 [ ID] Interval Transfer Bandwidth Jitter Lost/Total Datagrams [160] 0.0- 5.0 sec 2.14 MBytes 3.59 Mbits/sec 0.000 ms 0/ 1528 (0%) inside value loop3 clue1 clue2 inside value loop4 one iperf completed Transfer Transfer Starting: Intent { act=android.settings.APN_SETTINGS } ******AUTOMATION COMPLETED****** Looks some problem with reinitializing the STDOUT.. even i tried to use close(STDOUT); but again it did not return to STDOUT could sombbody please help out ?? /rocky CODE:: if($value) { my $file = 'my_output.txt'; use Win32::Process; print"inside value loop\n"; # redirect stdout to a file open STDOUT, '>', $file or die "can't redirect STDOUT to <$file> $!"; Win32::Process::Create(my $ProcessObj, "iperf.exe", "iperf.exe -u -s -p 5001", 0, NORMAL_PRIORITY_CLASS, ".") || die ErrorReport(); $alarm_time = $IPERF_RUN_TIME+2; #20sec print"inside value loop2\n"; sleep $alarm_time; $ProcessObj->Kill(0); sub ErrorReport{ print Win32::FormatMessage( Win32::GetLastError() ); } print"inside value loop3\n"; print"clue1\n"; #close(STDOUT); print"clue2\n"; print"inside value loop4\n"; print"one iperf completed\n"; } my $data_file="my_output.txt"; open(ROCK, $data_file)|| die("Could not open file!"); @raw_data=<ROCK>; @COUNT_PS =split(/ /,$raw_data[7]); my $LOOP_COUNT_PS_4 = $COUNT_PS[9]; my $LOOP_COUNT_PS_5 = $COUNT_PS[10]; print "$LOOP_COUNT_PS_4\n"; print "$LOOP_COUNT_PS_5\n"; my $tput_value = "$LOOP_COUNT_PS_4"." $LOOP_COUNT_PS_5"; print "$tput_value"; close(ROCK); print FH1 "\n $count \| $tput_value \n"; regds rakesh

    Read the article

  • Passing Data of WebView to Another Activity

    - by meygraph
    I've designed a training program and Html texts and image put into training. I want to address my html file by an activity to sent another activity. This is MainActivity /* * ListView item click listener. So we'll have the do stuff on click of * our ListItem */ listViewArticles.setOnItemClickListener(new OnItemClickListener() { public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> parent, View view, int position, long id) { switch (position) { case 0: Intent newActivity0 = new Intent(TrickPage.this,a_Dotted_Lines.class); startActivity(newActivity0); break; case 1: Intent newActivity1 = new Intent(TrickPage.this,TutorialsPage.class); startActivity(newActivity1); break; case 2: Intent newActivity2 = new Intent(TrickPage.this,TutorialsPage.class); startActivity(newActivity2); break; case 3: Intent newActivity3 = new Intent(TrickPage.this,TutorialsPage.class); startActivity(newActivity3); break; default: // Nothing do! } and this SecondActivity (show WebView) public class a_Dotted_Lines extends Activity { private WebView webView; @SuppressLint("SetJavaScriptEnabled") @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.a_dotted_lines); // Button HOME ImageButton ImageButton_home = (ImageButton) findViewById(R.id.ImageButton_home); ImageButton_home.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View v) { Intent intent = new Intent(); intent.setClass(a_Dotted_Lines.this, Main.class); startActivity(intent); overridePendingTransition(R.anim.fadein, R.anim.fadeout); } }); //Button Previous ImageButton ImageButton_previus = (ImageButton) findViewById(R.id.ImageButton_previus); ImageButton_previus.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View v) { //Closing SecondScreen Activity finish(); } }); webView = (WebView) findViewById(R.id.webview_compontent); webView.getSettings().setJavaScriptEnabled(true); webView.loadUrl("file:///android_asset/html/article.htm"); } } I want Send "file:///android_asset/html/article.htm" or other addres from MainActivity Is it possible? Sorry My English is not good

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC 2 AJAX dilemma: Lose Models concept or create unmanageable JavaScript

    - by Slightly Frustrated
    Hi, Ok, let's assume we are working with ASP.NET MVC 2 (latest and greatest preview) and we want to create AJAX user interface with jQuery. So what are our real options here? Option 1 - Pass Json from the Controller to the view, and then the view submits Json back to the controller. This means (in the order given): User opens some View (let's say - /Invoices/January) which has to visualize a list of data (e.g. <IEnumerable<X.Y.Z.Models.Invoice>>) Controller retrieves the Model from the repository (assuming we are using repository pattern). Controller creates a new instance of a class which we will serialize to Json. The reasaon we do this, is because the model may not be serializable (circular reference ftl) Controller populates the soon-to-be-serialized class with data Controller serializes the class to Json and passes it the view. User does some change and submits the 'form' The View submits back Json to the controller The Controller now must 'manually' validate the input, because the Json passed does not bind to a Model See, if our View is communicating to the controller via Json, we lose the Model validation, which IMHO is incredible disadvantage. In this case, forget about data annotations and stuff. Option 2 - Ok, the alternative of the first approach is to pass the Models to the Views, which is the default behavior in the template when you start a new project. We pass a strong typed model to the view The view renders the appropriate html and javascript, sticking to the model property names. This is important! The user submits the form. If we stick to the model names, when we .serialize() the form and submit it to the controller it will map to a model. There is no Json mapping. The submitted form directly binds to a strongly typed model, hence, we can use the model validation. E.g. we keep the business logic where it should be. Problem with this approach is, if we refactor some of the Models (change property names, types, etc), the javascript we wrote would become invalid. We will have to manually refactor the scripting and hope we don't miss something. There is no way you can test it either. Ok, the question is - how to write an AJAX front end, which keeps the business logic validation in the model (e.g. controller passes and receives a Model type), but in the same time doesn't screw up the javascript and html when we refactor the model?

    Read the article

  • C++0x Overload on reference, versus sole pass-by-value + std::move?

    - by dean
    It seems the main advice concerning C++0x's rvalues is to add move constructors and move operators to your classes, until compilers default-implement them. But waiting is a losing strategy if you use VC10, because automatic generation probably won't be here until VC10 SP1, or in worst case, VC11. Likely, the wait for this will be measured in years. Here lies my problem. Writing all this duplicate code is not fun. And it's unpleasant to look at. But this is a burden well received, for those classes deemed slow. Not so for the hundreds, if not thousands, of smaller classes. ::sighs:: C++0x was supposed to let me write less code, not more! And then I had a thought. Shared by many, I would guess. Why not just pass everything by value? Won't std::move + copy elision make this nearly optimal? Example 1 - Typical Pre-0x constructor OurClass::OurClass(const SomeClass& obj) : obj(obj) {} SomeClass o; OurClass(o); // single copy OurClass(std::move(o)); // single copy OurClass(SomeClass()); // single copy Cons: A wasted copy for rvalues. Example 2 - Recommended C++0x? OurClass::OurClass(const SomeClass& obj) : obj(obj) {} OurClass::OurClass(SomeClass&& obj) : obj(std::move(obj)) {} SomeClass o; OurClass(o); // single copy OurClass(std::move(o)); // zero copies, one move OurClass(SomeClass()); // zero copies, one move Pros: Presumably the fastest. Cons: Lots of code! Example 3 - Pass-by-value + std::move OurClass::OurClass(SomeClass obj) : obj(std::move(obj)) {} SomeClass o; OurClass(o); // single copy, one move OurClass(std::move(o)); // zero copies, two moves OurClass(SomeClass()); // zero copies, one move Pros: No additional code. Cons: A wasted move in cases 1 & 2. Performance will suffer greatly if SomeClass has no move constructor. What do you think? Is this correct? Is the incurred move a generally acceptable loss when compared to the benefit of code reduction?

    Read the article

  • Reliable session faulting for unknown reason

    - by Scarfman007
    I am trying to achieve the following - one client-side proxy instance (kept open) accessed by multiple threads using a reliable session. What I have managed so far is to have either A) a reliable session with a client-side proxy which is created and disposed per call or B) what I aim for, but without a reliable session. When I enable reliable sessions on my binding however, the following behaviour is exhibited: Client-side Upon application startup everything appears to work fine until roughly 18 messages in to the WCF session. I firstly get the proxy.InnerChannel.Faulted event raised, then an exception is caught at the point where I am calling the method on the proxy. The exception is a System.TimeoutException, with message: "The request channel timed out while waiting for a reply after 00:00:59.9062512. Increase the timeout value passed to the call to Request or increase the SendTimeout value on the Binding. The time allotted to this operation may have been a portion of a longer timeout." The inner exception has a similar message: "The request operation did not complete within the allotted timeout of 00:01:00. The time allotted to this operation may have been a portion of a longer timeout." With the method at the top of the inner stack trace being: System.ServiceModel.Channels.ReliableRequestSessionChannel.SyncRequest.WaitForReply(TimeSpan timeout) I then call proxy.Close followed by proxy.Abort (catching and ignoring exceptions). If I utilize the default settings (i.e. have simply <reliableSession/>), then calling proxy. Close results in another System.Timeout exception (although this time the allotted timeout is 00:00:00), however if I override the defaults as specified above no exception is thrown. Service-side Utilizing WCF tracing I get a System.ServiceModel.CommunicationException, with message: "The sequence has been terminated by the remote endpoint. The session has stopped waiting for a particular reply. Because of this the reliable session cannot continue. The reliable session was faulted." And a stack trace ending at: System.ServiceModel.AsyncResult.End[TAsyncResult](IAsyncResult result) When remotely attaching to the server I get the same message, which occurs when code execution steps over the return statement of my service in the service call which causes the error. The puzzling thing to me is that the service is stable and runs with options A) or B) as decribed at the beginning of my post, and occurs after a varying number of messages (around 18). The former fact points to there being nothing wrong with the code (indeed I have checked that no exceptions are thrown), and the latter just serves to confuse me and is why I modified the settings on the reliable session binding. I am quite stuck on this. Can anyone suggest why the reliable session would fault in such a way?

    Read the article

  • Eclipse RCP and JFace: Problems with Images in Context menu and TreeViewer

    - by Juri
    I'm working on an Eclipse RCP application. Today I experienced some troubles when displaying images in the context menu. What I wanted to do is to add a column to my table containing images of stars for representing a user rating. On Windows, this causes some problems, since the star images are squeezed up on the left corner of the table cell instead of expanding on the whole cell, but I'll solve that somehow. In addition I have a context menu on the table, with an entry called "rate" where again the different stars from 1 to 5 (representing the rating level) are shown, such that the user can click on it for choosing different ratings. That works fine on Windows. Now I switched to Linux (Ubuntu) to see how it works out there, and strangely, the stars in the table cell are layed out perfectly, while the stars on the context menu don't even show up. On the context menu I'm using an action class where I'm setting the image descriptor for the star images: public class RateAction extends Action { private final int fRating; private IStructuredSelection fSelection; public RateAction(int rating, IStructuredSelection selection) { super("", AS_CHECK_BOX); fRating = rating; fSelection = selection; setImageDescriptor(createImageDescriptor()); } /** * Creates the correct ImageDescriptor depending on the given rating * @return */ private ImageDescriptor createImageDescriptor() { ImageDescriptor imgDescriptor = null; switch (fRating) { case 0: return OwlUI.NEWS_STARON_0; case 1: return OwlUI.NEWS_STARON_1; case 2: return OwlUI.NEWS_STARON_2; case 3: return OwlUI.NEWS_STARON_3; case 4: return OwlUI.NEWS_STARON_4; case 5: return OwlUI.NEWS_STARON_5; default: break; } return imgDescriptor; } /* * @see org.eclipse.jface.action.Action#getText() */ @Override public String getText() { //return no text, since the images of the stars will be displayed return ""; } ... } Does somebody know why this strange behaviour appears? Thanks a lot. (For some strange reason, the images don't appear. Here are the direct URLs: http://img187.imageshack.us/img187/4427/starsratingho4.png http://img514.imageshack.us/img514/8673/contextmenuproblemgt1.png) //Edit: I did some tries and it seems as if the images just don't appear when using a Checkbox style for the context menu (see constructor of the RateAction). When I switched to a PushButton style, the images appeared, although not correctly scaled, but at least they were shown.

    Read the article

  • Background-image won't change using jquery in IE6

    - by slav
    There is a panel on my page with no default background-image css. On load it is set with jquery to an initial image, waits for 10 seconds then loads a random image out of some predetermined images. There are previous and next buttons which allow you to cycle through the images. In ie6 the initial image loads and then a random image also loads after 10 seconds, however pressing prev/next causes the background to become white and the images aren't loaded. With alerts I was able to find that it's still keeping track of the position and url of the image it's supposed to load, but just won't load it. Here is the code below. <script type="text/javascript"> var facts = new Array(); var position; $(document).ready(function() { <xsl:for-each select="$currentPage/ancestor-or-self::node[@level=1]/../node[@nodeName='Fun Fact Folder']/node"> facts[<xsl:value-of select="position()" />] = '<xsl:value-of select="." />'; </xsl:for-each> if(window.location.pathname == "/homepage.aspx" || window.location.pathname == "/") { $(".fun_facts_bg").css("background-image", "url(images/fun_fact_homepage.JPG)"); setTimeout("randomFact()",10000); } else { randomFact(); } }); function randomFact() { $("a.previous_button").css("display", "block"); $("a.next_button").css("display", "block"); position = Math.ceil(Math.random() * (facts.length - 1)); changeFact(0); } function changeFact(increment) { position = checkPosition(position, increment); $(".fun_facts_bg").css("background-image", "url(" + facts[position] + ")"); } <xsl:text disable-output-escaping="yes">&lt;!--//--&gt;&lt;![CDATA[//&gt;&lt;!-- function checkPosition(currentPos, increment) { currentPos = currentPos + increment; if (currentPos &gt; facts.length - 1) { currentPos = 1; } else if (currentPos &lt; 1) { currentPos = facts.length - 1; } return currentPos; } //--&gt;&lt;!]]&gt;</xsl:text> </script> <a class="previous_button" href="javascript:void(0);" onclick="changeFact(-1);"> <a class="next_button" href="javascript:void(0);" onclick="changeFact(1);">

    Read the article

  • How do I create a Spring 3 + Tiles 2 webapp using REST-ful URLs?

    - by Ichiro Furusato
    I'm having a heck of a time resolving URLs with Spring 3.0 MVC. I'm just building a HelloWorld to try out how to build a RESTful webapp in Spring, nothing theoretically complicated. All of the examples I've been able to find are based on configurations that pay attention to file extensions ("*.htm" or "*.do"), include an artificial directory name prefix ("/foo") or even prefix paths with a dot (ugly), all approaches that use some artificial regex pattern as a signal to the resolver. For a REST approach I want to avoid all that muck and use only the natural URL patterns of my application. I would assume (perhaps incorrectly) that in web.xml I'd set a url-pattern of "/*" and pass everything to the DispatcherServlet for resolution, then just rely on URL patterns in my controller. I can't reliably get my resolver(s) to catch the URL patterns, and in all my trials this results in a resource not found error, a stack overflow (loop), or some kind of opaque Spring 3 ServletException stack trace — one of my ongoing frustrations with Spring generally is that the error messages are not often very helpful. I want to work with a Tiles 2 resolver. I've located my *.jsp files in WEB-INF/views/ and have a single line index.jsp file at the application root redirecting to the index file set by my layout.xml (the Tiles 2 Configurer). I do all the normal Spring 3 high-level configuration: <mvc:annotation-driven /> <mvc:view-controller path="/" view-name="index"/> <context:component-scan base-package="com.acme.web.controller" /> ...followed by all sorts of combinations and configurations of UrlBasedViewResolver, InternalResourceViewResolver, UrlFilenameViewController, etc. with all manner of variantions in my Tiles 2 configuration file. Then in my controller I've trying to pick up my URL patterns. Problem is, I can't reliably even get the resolver(s) to catch the patterns to send to my controller. This has now stretched to multiple days with no real progress on something I thought would be very simple to implement. I'm perhaps trying to do too much at once, though I would think this should be a simple (almost a default) configuration. I'm just trying to create a simple HelloWorld-type application, I wouldn't expect this is rocket science. Rather than me post my own configurations (which have ranged all over the map), does anyone know of an online example that: shows a simple Spring 3 MVC + Tiles 2 web application that uses REST-ful URLs (i.e., avoiding forced URL patterns such as file extensions, added directory names or dots) and relies solely on Spring 3 code/annotations (i.e., nothing outside of Spring MVC itself) to accomplish this? Is there an easy way to do this? Thanks very much for any help.

    Read the article

  • Drupal 6: Printing Unadulterated Primary Links and all children...

    - by dcolumbus
    How in the WORLD is possible? I swear, I've read the equivalent of 3 encyclopedias to no avail. I've tried solutions within regions, page.tpl.php and blocks. None of them give me what I need... and I know there are so many other people that need this too! I've come to the conclusion that I want to print out the menu within my page.tpl.php ... so no block solutions, please. I want to be able to loop through the primary menu links (AND children) and rewrite the output so that there's no default Drupal class tagging. The closest I've found is this example: <?php if (is_array($primary_links)) : ?> <ul id="sliding-navigation"> <?php foreach ($primary_links as $link): ?> <li class="sliding-element"><?php $href = $link['href'] == "<front>" ? base_path() : base_path() . drupal_get_path_alias($link['href']); print "<a href='" . $href . "'>" . $link['title'] . "</a>"; ?></li> <?php endforeach; ?> </ul> <?php endif; ?> As you can see, links are being reprinted with a custom UL and LI class ... that's GREAT! However, no children are being printed. How would I extend this code so that all children are a part of the list? NOTE: I don't want the children to only appear on their parent page, they must be present all the time. Otherwise, the drop-down menu I have planned is useless. I sincerely thank you in advance to lessening my gargantuan headache!

    Read the article

  • AngularJS: download pdf file from the server

    - by Bartosz Bialecki
    I want to download a pdf file from the web server using $http. I use this code which works great, my file only is save as a html file, but when I open it it is opened as pdf but in the browser. I tested it on Chrome 36, Firefox 31 and Opera 23. This is my angularjs code (based on this code): UserService.downloadInvoice(hash).success(function (data, status, headers) { var filename, octetStreamMime = "application/octet-stream", contentType; // Get the headers headers = headers(); if (!filename) { filename = headers["x-filename"] || 'invoice.pdf'; } // Determine the content type from the header or default to "application/octet-stream" contentType = headers["content-type"] || octetStreamMime; if (navigator.msSaveBlob) { var blob = new Blob([data], { type: contentType }); navigator.msSaveBlob(blob, filename); } else { var urlCreator = window.URL || window.webkitURL || window.mozURL || window.msURL; if (urlCreator) { // Try to use a download link var link = document.createElement("a"); if ("download" in link) { // Prepare a blob URL var blob = new Blob([data], { type: contentType }); var url = urlCreator.createObjectURL(blob); $window.saveAs(blob, filename); return; link.setAttribute("href", url); link.setAttribute("download", filename); // Simulate clicking the download link var event = document.createEvent('MouseEvents'); event.initMouseEvent('click', true, true, window, 1, 0, 0, 0, 0, false, false, false, false, 0, null); link.dispatchEvent(event); } else { // Prepare a blob URL // Use application/octet-stream when using window.location to force download var blob = new Blob([data], { type: octetStreamMime }); var url = urlCreator.createObjectURL(blob); $window.location = url; } } } }).error(function (response) { $log.debug(response); }); On my server I use Laravel and this is my response: $headers = array( 'Content-Type' => $contentType, 'Content-Length' => strlen($data), 'Content-Disposition' => $contentDisposition ); return Response::make($data, 200, $headers); where $contentType is application/pdf and $contentDisposition is attachment; filename=" . basename($fileName) . '"' $filename - e.g. 59005-57123123.PDF My response headers: Cache-Control:no-cache Connection:Keep-Alive Content-Disposition:attachment; filename="159005-57123123.PDF" Content-Length:249403 Content-Type:application/pdf Date:Mon, 25 Aug 2014 15:56:43 GMT Keep-Alive:timeout=3, max=1 What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Cached ObjectDataSource not firing Select Event even Cache Dependecy Removed

    - by John Polvora
    I have the following scenario. A Page with a DetailsView binded to an ObjectDatasource with cache-enabled. The SelectMethod is assigned at Page_Load event, depending on my User Level Logic. After assigned the selectMethod and Parameters for the ODS, if Cache not exists, then ODS will be cached the first time. The next time, the cache will be applied to the ODS and the select event don't need to be fired since the dataresult is cached. The problem is, the ODS Cache works fine, but I have a Refresh button to clear the cache and rebind the DetailsView. Am I doing correctly ? Below is my code. <asp:DetailsView ID="DetailsView1" runat="server" DataSourceID="ObjectDataSource_Summary" EnableModelValidation="True" EnableViewState="False" ForeColor="#333333" GridLines="None"> </asp:DetailsView> <asp:ObjectDataSource ID="ObjectDataSource_Summary" runat="server" SelectMethod="" TypeName="BL.BusinessLogic" EnableCaching="true"> <SelectParameters> <asp:Parameter Name="idCompany" Type="String" /> <SelectParameters> </asp:ObjectDataSource> <asp:ImageButton ID="ImageButton_Refresh" runat="server" OnClick="RefreshClick" ImageUrl="~/img/refresh.png" /> And here is the code behind public partial class Index : Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectMethod = ""; ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectParameters[0].DefaultValue = ""; switch (this._loginData.UserLevel) //this is a struct I use for control permissions e pages behaviour { case OperNivel.SysAdmin: case OperNivel.SysOperator: { ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectMethod = "SystemSummary"; ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectParameters[0].DefaultValue = "0"; break; } case OperNivel.CompanyAdmin: case OperNivel.CompanyOperator: { ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectMethod = "CompanySummary"; ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectParameters[0].DefaultValue = this._loginData.UserLevel.ToString(); break; } default: break; } } protected void Page_LoadComplete(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Cache[ObjectDataSource_Summary.CacheKeyDependency] == null) { this._loginData.LoginDatetime = DateTime.Now; Session["loginData"] = _loginData; Cache[ObjectDataSource_Summary.CacheKeyDependency] = _loginData; DetailsView1.DataBind(); } } protected void RefreshClick(object sender, ImageClickEventArgs e) { Cache.Remove(ObjectDataSource_Summary.CacheKeyDependency); } } Can anyone help me? The Select() Event of the ObjectDasource is not firing even I Remove the CacheKey Dependency

    Read the article

  • Space in DIV ??

    - by alex
    Hello all, Is it possible to avoid the spaces X & Y (see image)? There is no padding in CSS! <html> <head> <title>Prova WIDGET</title> <link rel="stylesheet" href="jquery-ui-1.8.1.custom/css/ui-lightness/jquery-ui-1.8.1.custom.css" type="text/css"> <script src="jquery-ui-1.8.1.custom/development-bundle/jquery-1.4.2.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="jquery-ui-1.8.1.custom/js/jquery-ui-1.8.1.custom.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(themify); function themify(){ $("#pulsante").addClass("ui-button ui-button-text-only ui-widget ui-state-default ui-corner-all"); //ui-button-text } </script> <style>#test{display:none}</style> <script type="text/javascript"> function rendiVisibile(){ if(document.getElementById("test").style.display = "none"){ $("#test").css({"width":"100px","float":"right","text-align":"center"}); $("#test").show("slide",{},1000); } } </script> </head> <body> <h2 class="ui-widget-header">Tentativo widget con DIV</h2> <form action=""> <input type="button" value="Submit" id="pulsante" onclick="rendiVisibile()";><br/></br> <div id="test" class="ui-widget ui-widget-content ui-corner-all"> <h3 class="ui-widget-header ui-corner-all">CIAO</h3> <p class="ui-widget-content ui-corner-all">Un saluto</p> </div> </form> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • Unset/Change Binding in WPF

    - by captcalamares
    How can I unset the binding applied to an object so that I can apply another binding to it from a different location? Suppose I have two data templates binded to the same object reference. Data Template #1 is the default template to be loaded. I try to bind a button command to a Function1 from my DataContext class: <Button Content="Button 1" CommandParameter="{Binding }" Command="{Binding DataContext.Function1, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}"/> This actually works and the function gets binded. However, when I try to load Data Template # 2 to the same object (while trying to bind another button command to a different function (Function2) from my DataContext class): <Button Content="Button 2" CommandParameter="{Binding }" Command="{Binding DataContext.Function2, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}" /> It doesn't work and the first binding is still the one executed. Is there a workaround to this? EDIT (for better problem context): I defined my templates in my Window.Resources: <Window.Resources> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type local:ViewModel1}"> <local:View1 /> </DataTemplate> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type local:ViewModel2}"> <local:View2 /> </DataTemplate> </Window.Resources> The View1.xaml and the View2.xaml contain the button definitions that I described above (I want them to command the control of my process flow). ViewModel1 and ViewModel2 are my ViewModels that implement the interface IPageViewModel which is the type of my variable CurrentPageViewModel. In my XAML, I binded ContentControl to the variable CurrentPageViewModel: <ContentControl Content="{Binding CurrentPageViewModel}" HorizontalAlignment="Center"/> In my .CS, I have a list defined as List<IPageViewModel> PageViewModels, which I use to contain the instances of my two View Models: PageViewModels.Add(new ViewModel1()); PageViewModels.Add(new ViewModel2()); // Set starting page CurrentPageViewModel = PageViewModels[0]; When I try to change my CurrentPageViewModel to the other view model, this is when I want the new binding to work. Unfortunately, it doesn't. Am I doing things the right way?

    Read the article

  • Why is javac 1.5 running so slowly compared with the Eclipse compiler?

    - by Simon Nickerson
    I have a Java Maven project with about 800 source files (some generated by javacc/JTB) which is taking a good 25 minutes to compile with javac. When I changed my pom.xml over to use the Eclipse compiler, it takes about 30 seconds to compile. Any suggestions as to why javac (1.5) is running so slowly? (I don't want to switch over to the Eclipse compiler permanently, as the plugin for Maven seems more than a little buggy.) I have a test case which easily reproduces the problem. The following code generates a number of source files in the default package. If you try to compile ImplementingClass.java with javac, it will seem to pause for an inordinately long time. import java.io.File; import java.io.FileNotFoundException; import java.io.PrintStream; public class CodeGenerator { private final static String PATH = System.getProperty("java.io.tmpdir"); private final static int NUM_TYPES = 1000; public static void main(String[] args) throws FileNotFoundException { PrintStream interfacePs = new PrintStream(PATH + File.separator + "Interface.java"); PrintStream abstractClassPs = new PrintStream(PATH + File.separator + "AbstractClass.java"); PrintStream implementingClassPs = new PrintStream(PATH + File.separator + "ImplementingClass.java"); interfacePs.println("public interface Interface<T> {"); abstractClassPs.println("public abstract class AbstractClass<T> implements Interface<T> {"); implementingClassPs.println("public class ImplementingClass extends AbstractClass<Object> {"); for (int i=0; i<NUM_TYPES; i++) { String nodeName = "Node" + i; PrintStream nodePs = new PrintStream(PATH + File.separator + nodeName + ".java"); nodePs.printf("public class %s { }\n", nodeName); nodePs.close(); interfacePs.printf("void visit(%s node, T obj);%n", nodeName); abstractClassPs.printf("public void visit(%s node, T obj) { System.out.println(obj.toString()); }%n", nodeName); } interfacePs.println("}"); abstractClassPs.println("}"); implementingClassPs.println("}"); interfacePs.close(); abstractClassPs.close(); implementingClassPs.close(); } }

    Read the article

  • On Redirect - Failed to generate a user instance of SQL Server...

    - by Craig Russell
    Hello (this is a long post sorry), I am writing a application in ASP.NET MVC 2 and I have reached a point where I am receiving this error when I connect remotely to my Server. Failed to generate a user instance of SQL Server due to failure in retrieving the user's local application data path. Please make sure the user has a local user profile on the computer. The connection will be closed. I thought I had worked around this problem locally, as I was getting this error in debug when site was redirected to a baseUrl if a subdomain was invalid using this code: protected override void Initialize(RequestContext requestContext) { string[] host = requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Headers["Host"].Split(':'); _siteProvider.Initialise(host, LiveMeet.Properties.Settings.Default["baseUrl"].ToString()); base.Initialize(requestContext); } protected override void OnActionExecuting(ActionExecutingContext filterContext) { if (Site == null) { string[] host = filterContext.HttpContext.Request.Headers["Host"].Split(':'); string newUrl; if (host.Length == 2) newUrl = "http://sample.local:" + host[1]; else newUrl = "http://sample.local"; Response.Redirect(newUrl, true); } ViewData["Site"] = Site; base.OnActionExecuting(filterContext); } public Site Site { get { return _siteProvider.GetCurrentSite(); } } The Site object is returned from a Provider named siteProvider, this does two checks, once against a database containing a list of all available subdomains, then if that fails to find a valid subdomain, or valid domain name, searches a memory cache of reserved domains, if that doesn't hit then returns a baseUrl where all invalid domains are redirected. locally this worked when I added the true to Response.Redirect, assuming a halting of the current execution and restarting the execution on the browser redirect. What I have found in the stack trace is that the error is thrown on the second attempt to access the database. #region ISiteProvider Members public void Initialise(string[] host, string basehost) { if (host[0].Contains(basehost)) host = host[0].Split('.'); Site getSite = GetSites().WithDomain(host[0]); if (getSite == null) { sites.TryGetValue(host[0], out getSite); } _site = getSite; } public Site GetCurrentSite() { return _site; } public IQueryable<Site> GetSites() { return from p in _repository.groupDomains select new Site { Host = p.domainName, GroupGuid = (Guid)p.groupGuid, IsSubDomain = p.isSubdomain }; } #endregion The Linq query ^^^ is hit first, with a filter of WithDomain, the error isn't thrown till the WithDomain filter is attempted. In summary: The error is hit after the page is redirected, so the first iteration is executing as expected (so permissions on the database are correct, user profiles etc) shortly after the redirect when it filters the database query for the possible domain/subdomain of current redirected page, it errors out.

    Read the article

  • Zend Table Relationship Modeling with Composite Key

    - by emeraldjava
    I have a table with a composite primary key using four columns. mysql> describe leaguesummary; +------------------------+------------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +------------------------+------------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | leagueid | int(10) unsigned | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | leaguetype | enum('I','T') | NO | PRI | NULL | | | leagueparticipantid | int(10) unsigned | NO | PRI | NULL | | | leaguestandard | int(10) unsigned | NO | | NULL | | | leaguedivision | varchar(5) | NO | PRI | NULL | | | leagueposition | int(10) unsigned | NO | | NULL | | I have the league object modelled as so (all plain enough mappings) <?php class Model_DbTable_League extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = 'league'; protected $_primary = 'id'; protected $_dependentTables = array('Model_DbTable_LeagueSummary'); And I've started like this on the new model class. I've mapped a simple reference map which returns all rows linked to the league id. // http://files.zend.com/help/Zend-Framework/zend.db.table.relationships.html // http://naneau.nl/2007/04/21/a-zend-framework-tutorial-part-one/ class Model_DbTable_LeagueSummary extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = "leaguesummary"; protected $_primary = array('leagueid', 'leaguetype','leagueparticipantid','leaguedivision'); protected $_referenceMap = array( 'Summary' => array( 'columns' => array('leagueid'), 'refTableClass' => 'Model_DbTable_League', 'refColumns' => array('id') ), ..... ); } ?> The simple case works when called from my controller public function listAction() { // action body $leagueTable = new Model_DbTable_League(); $this->view->leagues = $leagueTable->getLeagues(); $league = $leagueTable->getLeague(6); // work $summary = $league->findDependentRowset('Model_DbTable_LeagueSummary','Summary'); Zend_Debug::dump($summary,"",true); I'm not sure how i can define extra _referenceMap keys which will take extra contraint ket values. I would like to be able to define a set called 'MenA' in which the type and division values are hardcoded, and the league id is taken from the initial rowset. 'MenA' =>array( 'columns' => array('leagueid','leaguetype','leaguedivision'), 'refTableClass' => 'Model_DbTable_League', 'refColumns' => array("id","I","A") ) Is this style of mapping possible ie hardcoding the values into the 'refColumns'. The second crazy idea i had was to pass the variable values in as part of the third param of the findDependentRowset() method. $menA = $league->findDependentRowset('Model_DbTable_LeagueSummary','MenA',array("I","A")); Any suggestions on how I might use the Zend DB Table Relationship mapping correctly to do this would be appreciated. I'm not interested in the plain, old and ugly $db-select(a,b,c)-where(..) style solution.

    Read the article

  • How to replace all id attributes of a child collection of complex types using jQuery in ASP.net MVC

    - by TJB
    Here's my situation: I'm writing an ASP.net MVC 1 website and I have a create/edit form that uses the default model binding to parse the form into a strongly typed complex object. The object I'm posting has a child collection of another complex type and the way I format my id's for the model binder is as follows: <div class="childContainer" > <!-- There's one of these for each property for each child collection item --> <%= Html.TextBox("ChildCollectionName[0].ChildPropertyName", /* blah blah */ ) %> <%= Html.TextBox("ChildCollectionName[0].OtherChildPropertyName", /* blah blah */ ) %> <!-- ... --> </div> This gets rendered as <div class="childContainer" > <input id="ChildCollectionName[0]_ChildPropertyName" ... /> <input id="ChildCollectionName[0]_OtherChildPropertyName" ... /> ... </div> <div class="childContainer" > <input id="ChildCollectionName[1]_ChildPropertyName" ... /> <input id="ChildCollectionName[1]_OtherChildPropertyName" ... /> ... </div> For each entry in the chlid collection. This collection is dynamically created in the form using jQuery, so entries can be added, removed etc. and whenever there's an operation on the collection I need to update the indexes so that it's bound correctly on the server side. What's the best way to replace all the html input id's when I'm updating the index within the child e.g. replace all [*] -- [N] where N is the correct index. using jQuery / JavaScript ? I have something coded now, but its buggy and I think there is a simpler solution. Also, if you have an easier way to identify the child collection I'll take any advice on that as well. Thanx!

    Read the article

  • Using boost::iterator

    - by Neil G
    I wrote a sparse vector class (see #1, #2.) I would like to provide two kinds of iterators: The first set, the regular iterators, can point any element, whether set or unset. If they are read from, they return either the set value or value_type(), if they are written to, they create the element and return the lvalue reference. Thus, they are: Random Access Traversal Iterator and Readable and Writable Iterator The second set, the sparse iterators, iterate over only the set elements. Since they don't need to lazily create elements that are written to, they are: Random Access Traversal Iterator and Readable and Writable and Lvalue Iterator I also need const versions of both, which are not writable. I can fill in the blanks, but not sure how to use boost::iterator_adaptor to start out. Here's what I have so far: template<typename T> class sparse_vector { public: typedef size_t size_type; typedef T value_type; private: typedef T& true_reference; typedef const T* const_pointer; typedef sparse_vector<T> self_type; struct ElementType { ElementType(size_type i, T const& t): index(i), value(t) {} ElementType(size_type i, T&& t): index(i), value(t) {} ElementType(size_type i): index(i) {} ElementType(ElementType const&) = default; size_type index; value_type value; }; typedef vector<ElementType> array_type; public: typedef T* pointer; typedef T& reference; typedef const T& const_reference; private: size_type size_; mutable typename array_type::size_type sorted_filled_; mutable array_type data_; // lots of code for various algorithms... public: class sparse_iterator : public boost::iterator_adaptor< sparse_iterator // Derived , array_type::iterator // Base (the internal array) (this paramater does not compile! -- says expected a type, got 'std::vector::iterator'???) , boost::use_default // Value , boost::random_access_traversal_tag? // CategoryOrTraversal > class iterator_proxy { ??? }; class iterator : public boost::iterator_facade< iterator // Derived , ????? // Base , ????? // Value , boost::?????? // CategoryOrTraversal > { }; };

    Read the article

  • Virtual member call in a constructor when assigning value to property

    - by comecme
    I have an Abstract class and a Derived class. The abstract class defines an abstract property named Message. In the derived class, the property is implemented by overriding the abstract property. The constructor of the derived class takes a string argument and assigns it to its Message property. In Resharper, this assignment leads to a warning "Virtual member call in constructor". The AbstractClass has this definition: public abstract class AbstractClass { public abstract string Message { get; set; } protected AbstractClass() { } public abstract void PrintMessage(); } And the DerivedClass is as follows: using System; public class DerivedClass : AbstractClass { private string _message; public override string Message { get { return _message; } set { _message = value; } } public DerivedClass(string message) { Message = message; // Warning: Virtual member call in a constructor } public DerivedClass() : this("Default DerivedClass message") {} public override void PrintMessage() { Console.WriteLine("DerivedClass PrintMessage(): " + Message); } } I did find some other questions about this warning, but in those situations there is an actual call to a method. For instance, in this question, the answer by Matt Howels contains some sample code. I'll repeat it here for easy reference. class Parent { public Parent() { DoSomething(); } protected virtual void DoSomething() {}; } class Child : Parent { private string foo; public Child() { foo = "HELLO"; } protected override void DoSomething() { Console.WriteLine(foo.ToLower()); } } Matt doesn't describe on what error the warning would appear, but I'm assuming it will be on the call to DoSomething in the Parent constructor. In this example, I understand what is meant by a virtual member being called. The member call occurs in the base class, in which only a virtual method exists. In my situation however, I don't see why assigning a value to Message would be calling a virtual member. Both the call to and the implementation of the Message property are defined in the derived class. Although I can get rid of the error by making my Derived Class sealed, I would like to understand why this situation is resulting in the warning.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 815 816 817 818 819 820 821 822 823 824 825 826  | Next Page >