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  • [Java] Form data transition into entity beans to persist them by the server side ORM

    - by cscsaba242
    Hello guys, Is there any good explanation or tutorial which describes the common way how can we create entity beans from the received data of the form ? The main reason of my question the treating the received ids (e.g id of country,city and so forth) which is the way from the id to entity ? Example: ................Client side form username:String countryid:Integer (could be a drop down) ................Server side entities public class UserBean { String username; CountryBean Country; } public class CountryBean { String cityname; Integer id; } ............................................ Maybe the question is dependent of the used technology, but I guess there is a very common way. I would like to comprehend the conventional approach of this problem. (For the sake of the completeness I would like to save the form data (received by Stripes) by JPA) Thanks advance. cscsaba242

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  • Java - Collections.binarySearch with PriorityQueue?

    - by msr
    Hello, Can I use Collections.binarySearch() method to search elements in a PriorityQueue? Otherwise, how can I apply search algorithms to a PriorityQueue? I have this (class Evento implements Comparable): public class PriorityQueueCAP extends PriorityQueue<Evento>{ // (...) public void removeEventos(Evento evento){ Collections.binarySearch(this, evento); // ERROR! } } And I got this error: "The method binarySearch(List, T) in the type Collections is not applicable for the arguments (PriorityQueueCAP, Evento)" Why? Thanks in advance!

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  • Install JBIComponent from adminCommandsService

    - by acostela
    I'm trying to install a JBI component inside ServiceMix 4.3 from a Java class. This JBIComponent is packed as .jar. I wanted to know if the jbi.xml descriptor is mandatory in .jar package like in .zip. I searched a lot of info and I'm not quite sure but as it looks like for the java classes that install the component is necessary this descriptor but when my maven project creates two files, one .zip and one .jar. The zip one has a jbi.xml descriptor inside META-INF. But the .jar that is generated doesn't have this descriptor. http://grepcode.com/file/repo1.maven.org/maven2/org.apache.servicemix.nmr/org.apache.servicemix.nmr.bundle/1.5.0/org/apache/servicemix/jbi/deployer/impl/AdminCommandsImpl.java This is the class that I'm using to install it. Thank you very much to everybody.

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  • C# to Java: where T : new() Syntax

    - by Shiftbit
    I am porting some C# code over to Java. I am having trouble with the where Syntax, specifically new(). I understand that where is similar to Java's generic: T extends FOO. How I can replicate the new() argument in Java? "The new() Constraint lets the compiler know that any type argument supplied must have an accessible parameterless--or default-- constructor." - MSDN ie: public class BAR<T> : BAR where T : FOO, new() Right now I have: public class BAR<T extends FOO> extends ABSTRACTBAR { public HXIT(T t){ this.value = t; } .... }

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  • How to define one-to-many connection between a same model through another model

    - by Mekajiki
    I want to define one-to-many relationship as follows; User has one introducer User has many newcomers(who is introduced by the user) Use "Introduction" model instead of adding a column to users table. My table and model definition is as follows; DB Scheme: create_table "introductions", force: true do |t| t.integer "introducer_id" t.integer "newcomer_id" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" User model: class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :introductions, foreign_key: :introducer_id has_many :newcomers, through: :introductions, source: :newcomer belongs_to :introduction, foreign_key: :newcomer_id belongs_to :introducer end Introduction model: class Introduction < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :introducer, class_name: 'User' belongs_to :newcomer, class_name: 'User' end This works fine: user1.newcomers.push user2 but, user2.introducer # => nil How can I define belongs_to relationship correctly?

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  • Making swap faster, easier to use and exception-safe

    - by FredOverflow
    I could not sleep last night and started thinking about std::swap. Here is the familiar C++98 version: template <typename T> void swap(T& a, T& b) { T c(a); a = b; b = c; } If a user-defined class Foo uses external ressources, this is inefficient. The common idiom is to provide a method void Foo::swap(Foo& other) and a specialization of std::swap<Foo>. Note that this does not work with class templates since you cannot partially specialize a function template, and overloading names in the std namespace is illegal. The solution is to write a template function in one's own namespace and rely on argument dependent lookup to find it. This depends critically on the client to follow the "using std::swap idiom" instead of calling std::swap directly. Very brittle. In C++0x, if Foo has a user-defined move constructor and a move assignment operator, providing a custom swap method and a std::swap<Foo> specialization has little to no performance benefit, because the C++0x version of std::swap uses efficient moves instead of copies: #include <utility> template <typename T> void swap(T& a, T& b) { T c(std::move(a)); a = std::move(b); b = std::move(c); } Not having to fiddle with swap anymore already takes a lot of burden away from the programmer. Current compilers do not generate move constructors and move assignment operators automatically yet, but as far as I know, this will change. The only problem left then is exception-safety, because in general, move operations are allowed to throw, and this opens up a whole can of worms. The question "What exactly is the state of a moved-from object?" complicates things further. Then I was thinking, what exactly are the semantics of std::swap in C++0x if everything goes fine? What is the state of the objects before and after the swap? Typically, swapping via move operations does not touch external resources, only the "flat" object representations themselves. So why not simply write a swap template that does exactly that: swap the object representations? #include <cstring> template <typename T> void swap(T& a, T& b) { unsigned char c[sizeof(T)]; memcpy( c, &a, sizeof(T)); memcpy(&a, &b, sizeof(T)); memcpy(&b, c, sizeof(T)); } This is as efficient as it gets: it simply blasts through raw memory. It does not require any intervention from the user: no special swap methods or move operations have to be defined. This means that it even works in C++98 (which does not have rvalue references, mind you). But even more importantly, we can now forget about the exception-safety issues, because memcpy never throws. I can see two potential problems with this approach: First, not all objects are meant to be swapped. If a class designer hides the copy constructor or the copy assignment operator, trying to swap objects of the class should fail at compile-time. We can simply introduce some dead code that checks whether copying and assignment are legal on the type: template <typename T> void swap(T& a, T& b) { if (false) // dead code, never executed { T c(a); // copy-constructible? a = b; // assignable? } unsigned char c[sizeof(T)]; std::memcpy( c, &a, sizeof(T)); std::memcpy(&a, &b, sizeof(T)); std::memcpy(&b, c, sizeof(T)); } Any decent compiler can trivially get rid of the dead code. (There are probably better ways to check the "swap conformance", but that is not the point. What matters is that it's possible). Second, some types might perform "unusual" actions in the copy constructor and copy assignment operator. For example, they might notify observers of their change. I deem this a minor issue, because such kinds of objects probably should not have provided copy operations in the first place. Please let me know what you think of this approach to swapping. Would it work in practice? Would you use it? Can you identify library types where this would break? Do you see additional problems? Discuss!

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  • Copy Structure To Another Program

    - by Steven
    Long story, long: I am adding a web interface (ASPX.NET: VB) to a data acquisition system developed with LabVIEW which outputs raw data files. These raw data files are the binary representation of a LabVIEW cluster (essentially a structure). LabVIEW provides functions to instantiate a class or structure or call a method defined in a .NET DLL file. I plan to create a DLL file containing a structure definition and a class with methods to transfer the structure. When the webpage requests data, it would call a LabVIEW executable with a filename parameter. The LabVIEW code would instantiate the structure, populate the structure from the data file, then call the method to transfer the data back to the website. Long story, short: How do you recommend I transfer (copy) an instance of a structure from one .NET program to a VB.NET program? Ideas considered: sockets, temp file, xml file, config file, web services, CSV, some type of serialization, shared memory

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  • validating creation by post_id and ip_address - Ruby on Rails

    - by bgadoci
    I have created a blog application using Ruby on Rails which includes the ability to vote on posts. A user can click vote and a record is created in the vote table. I am now trying to limit that same person from voting for a post multiple times. class Post has_many :votes end class Vote belongs_to :post end When a vote record is created I am using the VotesController to pass the :post_id and using a hidden field in the view to pass the ip_address (both to the vote table). I am wondering if there is a way to add a validation to the Vote Model that searches to see if a post_id has an ip_address that matches the person requesting to vote. I have tried simply using the validates_uniqueness_of :ip_address but that restricts the user from voting on any post. I just want to restrict the user from voting on a particular post that they have already voted on. Is there a way to do this through validation?

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  • Clearing "may not respond" warnings for UIView and UIViewController

    - by user284681
    In an iPad app, I'm using a custom subclass of UIView with UIViewController. Here's the view header: @interface pdfView : UIView { CGPDFDocumentRef doc; } -(void)setDoc:(CGPDFDocumentRef)newDoc; @end And here's the controller header: @interface iPadPDFTestViewController : UIViewController { CGPDFDocumentRef doc; } - (void)loadPDF; @end Part of the controller implementation: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; [self loadPDF]; [self.view setDoc:doc]; } In Interface Builder, I've set the view object to use the class pdfView. At compilation, [self.view setDoc:doc]; gives the warning "'UIView' may not respond to '--setDoc'." I'm guessing that this warning appears because the compiler thinks it's looking at UIView (which does not implement the setDoc method) instead of pdfView. But why does it think that? And how can I tell it what class it's really looking at, so as to clear the warning?

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  • GDB says that a KVO observer is registered even though it is not (or is it?).

    - by Paperflyer
    When my application is closed, the main controller class removes itself as Observer from the model and then releases the model. Like this: - (void)dealloc { [theModel removeObserver:self forKeyPath:@"myValue"]; [theModel release]; [super dealloc]; } And right after that, the debugger says: 2010-04-29 14:07:40.294 MyProgram[13678:a0f] An instance 0x116f2e880 of class TheModel was deallocated while key value observers were still registered with it. Observation info was leaked, and may even become mistakenly attached to some other object. Set a breakpoint on NSKVODeallocateBreak to stop here in the debugger. Here's the current observation info: <NSKeyValueObservationInfo 0x100288450> ( <NSKeyValueObservance 0x1002aca90: Observer: 0x116f40ec0, Key path: myValue, Options: <New: YES, Old: NO, Prior: NO> Context: 0x0, Property: 0x116f80430> ) where 0x116f2e880 is indeed the model and 0x116f40ec0 is indeed the controller. How can the controller still be an observer when it just removed itself as an observer?

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  • pure-specifier on function-definition

    - by bebul
    While compiling on GCC I get the error: pure-specifier on function-definition, but not when I compile the same code using VS2005. class Dummy { //error: pure-specifier on function-definition, VS2005 compiles virtual void Process() = 0 {}; }; But when the definition of this pure virtual function is not inline, it works: class Dummy { virtual void Process() = 0; }; void Dummy::Process() {} //compiles on both GCC and VS2005 What does the error means? Why cannot I do it inline? Is it legal to evade the compile issue as shown in the second code sample?

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  • enums in C# - assignment

    - by Zka
    How does one do this in c#? Let's say that myclass has : private enum Days{}; 1) How does one add data to the enum inside the myclass with the help of the constructor? As in : myclass my = new myclass(Monday,Friday); so that the enum inside the class gets the "Monday, Friday" properties. 2) Can one also make a property for an enume inside the class once it is initialized ? For example : my.Days = new enum Days(Tuesday); //where the old settings are replaced.

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  • What are some best practices for structuring cherrypy apps?

    - by Omega
    I'm writing a cherrypy app and I was wondering what the best way is for structuring my handlers and code for larger applications? I realize assignment is simple trough cherrypy.root, but what are some practices for writing the handlers and assigning them? (Allow me to prove my confusion!) My initial thought is to write a standard handler class that infers a template to run based on the current URL or class/method combination. Then I would assign one instance of that handler multiple times to the path to create pages. I don't see this working however as the recursive references wouldn't work quite right. So, given the fact that I'm already drawing blanks on how my own source code should look, I'd love some pointers and examples! Feel free to ask some detailed questions for me to clarify. While there is plenty of cherrypy tutorial material out there, it tends to only scratch the surface.

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  • JBoss Seam: components injected into POJOs, but not Session Beans

    - by purecharger
    I have a Seam component that handles login, with the name "authenticator": @Name("authenticator") public class AuthenticatorAction implements Authenticator { @PersistenceContext private EntityManager em; @In(required=false) @Out(required=false, scope = SESSION) private User user; public boolean authenticate(){ ... } } This works just fine, Seam injects the EntityManager instance. However, as soon as I add the @Stateless annotation, none of the injection happens! In this case, the EntityManager instance is null upon entry to the authenticate() method. Another interesting note is that with a separate stateful session bean I have, the Logger instance in that class is only injected if I make it static. If i have it non-static, it is not injected. Thats fine for the logger, but for stateless session beans like that, I obviously can't have static member variables for these components. I'm confused because this authenticator is exactly how it is in the Seam booking example: a stateless session bean with a private member variable being injected. Any ideas?

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  • doctrine2: many-to-one with non default referencedColumnName does not persist entity

    - by timaschew
    I'm using symfony 2.1.2 with FOSUserBundle. I extend the User from FOS and define a many-to-one (bidirectional) association to a Customer entity. I don't want to use primary key for the association (referencedColumnName). I will use another integer uniqe column: customer_no use FOS\UserBundle\Entity\User as BaseUser; /** * @ORM\Entity * @ORM\Table(name="t_myuser") */ class MyUser extends BaseUser { /** * @ORM\ManyToOne(targetEntity="Customer", inversedBy="user") * @ORM\JoinColumn(name="customer_no", referencedColumnName="customer_no", nullable=false) */ $public $customer; } /** * @ORM\Entity * @ORM\Table(name="t_customer") */ class Customer extends BaseEntity // provides an id (pk) { /** * @ORM\Column(type="integer", unique=true, nullable=false) */ public $customer_no; /** * @ORM\OneToMany(targetEntity="MyUser", mappedBy="customer") */ public $user; } When I try to persist (via a form) a new MyUser entity with an (already in db existing and) loaded Customer entity from db, I get this error: Notice: Undefined index: customer_no in ...\vendor\doctrine\orm\lib\Doctrine\ORM\Persisters\BasicEntityPersister.php line 608 The schema on the db is all right. //update: I fix the inversedBy and mappedBy stuff, but this is not the problem.

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  • HyperJAXB and IDREFs

    - by finrod
    I have eventually managed to fiddle HyperJAXB so that when XSD has complexType A and this has an IDREF to complexType B, then HyperJAXB will generate @OneToOne JPA annotations between the the two generated entities. However now I'm facing another problem: the XSD has complex type X that can IDREF to either complex type Y or complex type Z. In the end, I need instance of complex type X contain reference to either instance of class Y or class Z. Do you have any wild ideas how can this be done without manual alterations to the generated classes? And at the same time to make sure these entities are marshalled to a correct XML? How about using the JAXB plugin that allows generating classes so that they implement a particular interface? Could that lead anywhere?

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  • Save entity with entity framework

    - by Michel
    Hi, I'm saving entities/records with the EF, but i'm curious if there is another way of doing it. I receive a class from a MVC controller method, so basicly i have all the info: the class's properties, including the primary key. Without EF i would do a Sql update (update table set a=b, c=d where id = 5), but with EF i got no further than this: Get an object with ID of 5 Update the (existing) object with the new object Submitchanges. What bothers me is that i have to get the object from the database first, where i have all the info to do an update statement. Is there another way of doing this?

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  • Two fields with the same name

    - by H. Abraham Chavez
    I have a ViewModel class to encapsulate "Personal" and "Business" models. My problem is that both models have a property called "Email" and the model binding is not able to make a distinction between the too. I read that [Bind(Prefix = ... is used to resolved this issue, but I have not been able to see a concise example on how to achieve this. SO community please help. public class BusinessFormViewModel { public Business Business { get; set; } public ContactPerson ContactPerson { get; set; } public BusinessFromView(Business business, ContactPerson contactPerson) { Business = business; ContactPerson = contactPerson; } }

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  • Passing constructor arguments when using StructureMap

    - by Mosh
    Hello, I'm using StructureMap for my DI. Imagine I have a class that takes 1 argument like: public class ProductProvider : IProductProvider { public ProductProvider(string connectionString) { .... } } I need to specify the "connectionString at run-time when I get an instance of IProductProvider. I have configured StructureMap as follows: ForRequestedType<IProductProvider>.TheDefault.Is.OfConcreteType<ProductProvider>(). WithCtorArgument("connectionString"); However, I don't want to call EqualTo("something...") method here as I need some facility to dynamically specify this value at run-time. My question is: how can I get an instance of IProductProvider by using ObjectFactory? Currently, I have something like: ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IProductProvider>(); But as you know, this doesn't work... Any advice would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Jackson - suppressing serialization(write) of properties dynamically

    - by kapil.israni
    I am trying to convert java object to JSON object in Tomcat/jersey using Jackson. And want to suppress serialization(write) of certain properties dynamically. I can use JsonIgnore, but I want to make the ignore decision at runtime. Any ideas?? So as an example below, I want to suppress "id" field when i serialize the User object to JSON.. new ObjectMapper.writeValueAsString(user); class User { private String id = null; private String firstName = null; private String lastName = null; //getters //setters }//end class

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  • How to check when animation finishes if animation block is

    - by pumpk1n
    I have a controller which adds as subviews a custom UIView class called Circle. Let's call a particular instance of Circle, "circle". I have a method in Circle, animateExpand, which expands the circle by animating the view. In the following code (which lives in the controller) I want to alloc and init a circle, add it to a NSMutableArray circleArray, animate the expansion, and at the end of the expansion, i want to remove the object from the array. My attempt: Circle *circle = [[Circle alloc] init]; [circleArray addObject:circle]; [circle animateExpand]; [circleArray removeObjectIdenticalTo:circle]; [circle release]; The problem is [circleArray removeObjectIdenticalTo:circle]; gets called before the animation finishes. Presumbly because the animation is done on a seperate thread. I cant implement the deletion in completion:^(BOOL finished){ }, because the Circle class does not know about a circleArray. Any solutions would be helpful, thanks!

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  • Chrome extensions: Content script (jQuery) in Youtube does not work properly

    - by Fabian
    I have this: $(document).ready(function() { $("button.yt-uix-expander-arrow").attr("id", "yt-uix-expander-arrow"); $("#yt-uix-expander-arrow").mouseover(function() { alert("Hello"); }); }); injected into Youtube. Using right click inspect element, the <button class="yt-uix-expander-arrow"> has a id="yt-uix-expander-arrow" attribute successfully added to it. However the mouseover event does not trigger. However if I were to change $("#yt-uix-expander-arrow").mouseover() to $(".yt-uix-expander-arrow").mouseover() it works. That's very unusual, because the #yt-uix-expander-arrow id has already been added to the button element. I tested it out on Facebook, adding a id to a class and doing a mouseover() event on the ID and it works. Any idea?

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  • ASP.NET: Moving ViewState to bottom of page

    - by Seb Nilsson
    What are the latest and greatest ways to move ViewState to bottom of the page Can this be done in a IHttpHandler that can be specified in the web.config to intercept requests to "*.aspx"? <httpHandlers> <add verb="*" path="*.aspx" type="MyApp.OptimizedPageHandler" /> <httpHandlers> Other options is that this could be done in a IHttpModule, but that is not as performant, as it will intercept all requests. Also it could be done in an a class deriving from the Page or MasterPage-class, but this is not as modular. Are there any performance penalties to this?

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  • Abstract Factory Using Generics: Is Explicitly Converting a Specified Type to Generic a Bad Practice

    - by Merritt
    The question's title says it all. I like how it fits into the rest of my code, but does it smell? public interface IFoo<T> { T Bar { get; set; } } public class StringFoo : IFoo<string> { public string Bar { get; set; } } public static class FooFactory { public static IFoo<T> CreateFoo<T>() { if (typeof(T) == typeof(string)) { return new StringFoo() as IFoo<T>; } throw new NotImplementedException(); } } UPDATE: this is sort of a duplicate of Is the StaticFactory in codecampserver a well known pattern?

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