Search Results

Search found 23062 results on 923 pages for 'multiple models'.

Page 822/923 | < Previous Page | 818 819 820 821 822 823 824 825 826 827 828 829  | Next Page >

  • PHP/Javascript: Need help removing line break from code

    - by Josh K
    I am trying to get names from a .txt file. I am using file('filename.txt') but if i use a php for loop to try and trim the names, it comes out on multiple lines: This is the actual line that prints the javascript (NOTE: I am going to be putting these names into a select box, if you can fix the problem at hand the rest of the code should work so unless you a big problem with it you don't need to comment) <?php for($i=1; $i < 27; $i++){ echo "selbox.options[selbox.options.length] = new Option('".lines[$i]."','".$lines[$i]."');\n"; } ?> Heres how it comes out on the browser: selbox.options[selbox.options.length] = new Option('Djamal ABDOUN ','First1 Last1 '); selbox.options[selbox.options.length] = new Option('Chadli AMRI ','First2 Last2 '); I need those to be on one line so i dont get a unterminated string literal js error Any ideas on what i can do here? EDIT: Oh i should probably mention, the $lines var is initiated like this: $lines = file('filename.txt'); and inside that file i have formatted like this First1 Last1 First2 Last2 First3 Last3 etc. and i hit delete after each Last name until the next first name is touching, then hit enter to put it on a new line (Editor is notepad++)

    Read the article

  • Ruby on Rails + Jquery: Saving data from draggable lists

    - by sjsc
    Hello. I'm trying to save data to the MySQL database in Rails when the user drags items from different lists. I'm using the below Jquery script and HTML: <script> $(document).ready(function() { $("#draggable").draggable( { connectToSortable: 'ul#myList', helper:'clone' } ); $("#myList").sortable(); }); </script> HTML: <ul> <li id="draggable">Drag me to myList</li> </ul> <ul id="myList"> <li id="item-1">item 1</li> <li id="item-2">item 2</li> </ul> I know I probably have to use something like this: $.post({ url: 'lists/update', data: $('#myList').sortable("serialize") }); I've been Googling for the last few hours but can't seem to find how to save data between multiple lists using Rails. Any idea?

    Read the article

  • IOS : BAD ACCESS when trying to add a new Entity object

    - by Maverick447
    So i'm using coredata to model my relationships . This is the model in brief Type A can have one or more types of type B Type B has a inverse relationship of being associated with one of type A Type B can have one or more types of type C Type C has a inverse relationship of being associated with one of type B From a UI standpoint , I have a Navigation controller with controllers that successively sets up the first A object (VC-1) , then another viewcontroller (VC-2) creates a B object ( I pass in the A object to this controller) and the B object is added to the A object . Similarly the same thing happens with B and C . The third Viewcontroller (VC3) first creates a C object and assigns it to the passed B Object . Also between these viewcontrollers the managedObjectCOntext is also passed . SO my use case is such that while viewcontroller (VC-3) is the top controller a button action will keep creating multiple objects of type C and add them to the same type B object that was passed . Also as part of this function I save the managedObject context after saving each type C . e.g. code in viewcontroller 3 - (void) SaveNewTypeC { TypeC *newtypeC = (Question*)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"TypeC" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [newtypeC setProp1:] ; [newtypeC setProp2:] .. .. **[typeBObject addTypeCInTypeBObject:newtypeC];** [section setTotalCObjectCount:[ NSNumber numberWithInt:typeCIndex++]]; NSError *error = nil; if (![managedObjectContext save:&error]) { // Handle error NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@, %@", error, [error userInfo],[error localizedDescription]); exit(-1); // Fail } [newtypeC release]; } - (IBAction)selectedNewButton:(id)sender { [self SaveNewTypeC]; [self startRepeatingTimer]; } The BAD ACCESS seems to appear when the bold line above executes Relating to some HashValue . Any clues on resolving this would be helpful .

    Read the article

  • C# DynamicPDF Merging causing "Index out of bounds" error

    - by Dining Philanderer
    Greetings, We use DynamicPDF to merge multiple PDF documents stored in a MSSQL database. The vast majority of times it works wonderfully, but occasionally one of these documents will fail to merge generating the exception message "Index was outside the bounds of the array." I think I have isolated the problem to PDF files that are greater than 8.5 x 11.0. Does anyone know if this is a known issue with DynamicPDF? The merging code is posted here. What would be ideal is if there is a way to resize the PDF files to the correct size so this is not a concern at all... for (int docs = 0; docs < dsPDFInfo.Tables[0].Rows.Count; docs++) { byte[] bytePDFArray = (byte[])dsPDFInfo.Tables[0].Rows[docs]["Content"]; int iContentSize = Convert.ToInt32(dsPDFInfo.Tables[0].Rows[docs]["ContentSize"]); MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(bytePDFArray, 0, iContentSize); ceTe.DynamicPDF.Merger.PdfDocument pdfdoc = new ceTe.DynamicPDF.Merger.PdfDocument(ms); ceTe.DynamicPDF.Merger.MergeDocument mergedoc = new ceTe.DynamicPDF.Merger.MergeDocument(pdfdoc); docCombinedPDF.Append(mergedoc); } Thanks....

    Read the article

  • Changing property of ItemTemplate controls in ListView

    - by arturito
    I have ListView containig LinkButtons in ItemTemplate. ListView is inside UpdatePanel so it is not doing page refresh. When users click on one the LinkButtons it changes its css property in order to mark the selection: protected void ListView1_ItemCommand1(object sender, ListViewCommandEventArgs e) { ((LinkButton)e.CommandSource).CssClass = "selected"; } That allows multiple selections. But once the page is refreshed the selection disappears, meaning that css property of control goes back to default. <ItemTemplate> <asp:LinkButton ID="local" Text='<%#Eval("Local.Name")%>' runat="server" CommandName="selectLocal" CommandArgument='<%#Eval("Local.Id") %>' CssClass="notSelected" > </asp:LinkButton> <asp:LinkButton ID="guest" Text='<%#Eval("Guest.Name")%>' runat="server" CommandName="selectGuest" CommandArgument='<%#Eval("Guest.Id") %>' CssClass="notSelected" > </asp:LinkButton> </ItemTemplate> How can I select them programatically on page reload? (I'm mainating selection list in session)

    Read the article

  • NHibernate's ISQLQuery returns instances that are of an unexpected type.

    - by Frederik Gheysels
    Hi all, I'm using NHibernate 2.1.2.400, and I'm having an issue with a an ISQLQuery query. The reason why I use an ISQLQuery here, is that this query uses a table for which I have no entity mapped in NHibernate. The query looks like this: ISQLQuery query = session.CreateSQLQuery ( "select p.*, price.* " + "from prestation p left outer join prestationprice price on p.PrestationId = price.PrestationId " + "where p.Id IN ( select id from prestationregistry where ..."); 'Prestationregistry' is the table that is not known by NHibernate (unmapped, so therefore the native SQL Query). my code continues like this: query.AddEntity ("p", typeof(Prestation)); query.AddJoin ("price", typeof(PrestationPrice)); query.SetResultTransformer (Transformers.DistinctRootEntity); var result = query.List(); So far so good. I expect that I'm given a list of 'Prestation' instances as a result of this query, since I declared 'Prestation' as being the root-object that has to be returned by the AddEntity method. I also expect that the PrestationPrices for each Prestation are eagerly loaded by this query (hence the AddJoin method). To my surprise, the List() method returns a collection of PrestationPrice instances instead of Prestation instances. How come ? Am I doing something wrong ? And if so, could you be so kind to tell me what I'm doing wrong ? Edit: Additional Info: When I debug, and put a watch on the 'query' instance, I can see that the queryReturns member of the query contains 2 items: - one NativeSqlQueryRootReturn instance who'se ReturnEntityName is 'Prestation' - one NativeSqlQueryJoinReturn When I do not specify the 'DistinctRootEntity' result transformer, the query returns instances of 'Prestation' instead of PrestationPrice. However, it contains multiple copies of the same instance.

    Read the article

  • Loading Dimension Tables - Methodologies

    - by Nev_Rahd
    Hello, Recently I been working on project, where need to populated Dim Tables from EDW Tables. EDW Tables are of type II which does maintain historical data. When comes to load Dim Table, for which source may be multiple EDW Tables or would be single table with multi level pivoting (on attributes). Mean: There would be 10 records - one for each attribute which need to be pivoted on domain_code to make a single row in Dim. Out of these 10 records there would be some attributes with same domain_code but with different sub_domain_code, which needs further pivoting on subdomain code. Ex: if i got domain code: 01,02, 03 = which are straight pivot on domain code I would also have domain code: 10 with subdomain code / version as 2006,2007,2008,2009 That means I need to split my source table with above attributes into two = one for domain code and other for domain_code + version. so far so good. When it comes to load Dim Table: As per design specs for Dimensions (originally written by third party), what they want is: for every single change in EDW (attribute), it should assemble all the related records (for that NK) mean new one with other attribute values which are current = process them to create a new dim record and insert it. That mean if a single extract contains 100 records updated (one for each NK), it should assemble 100 + (100*9) records to insert / update dim table. How good is this approach. Other way I tried to do is just do a lookup into dim table for that NK get the value's of recent records (attributes which not changed) and insert it and update the current one. What would be the better approach assembling records at source side for one attribute change or looking into dim table's recent record and process it. If this doesn't make sense, would like to elaborate it further. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Most readable way to write simple conditional check

    - by JRL
    What would be the most readable/best way to write a multiple conditional check such as shown below? Two possibilities that I could think of (this is Java but the language really doesn't matter here): Option 1: boolean c1 = passwordField.getPassword().length > 0; boolean c2 = !stationIDTextField.getText().trim().isEmpty(); boolean c3 = !userNameTextField.getText().trim().isEmpty(); if (c1 && c2 && c3) { okButton.setEnabled(true); } Option 2: if (passwordField.getPassword().length > 0 && !stationIDTextField.getText().trim().isEmpty() && !userNameTextField.getText().trim().isEmpty() { okButton.setEnabled(true); } What I don't like about option 2 is that the line wraps and then indentation becomes a pain. What I don't like about option 1 is that it creates variables for nothing and requires looking at two places. So what do you think? Any other options?

    Read the article

  • Save Xml in an Excel cell value causes ComException

    - by mas_oz2k1
    I am trying to save an object (Class1) as string in a cell value. My issue is that from time to time I have a ComException: HRESULT: 0x8007000E (E_OUTOFMEMORY) (It is kind of random but I have not identified any particular pattern yet) when I write the value into a cell. Any ideas will be welcome For illustration purposes: Let Class1 be the class to be converted to an Xml string. (Notice that I removed the xml declaration at the start of the string to avoid having the preamble present- non printable character) <Class1 xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" <ElementID HL690375</ElementID </Class1" Class1 myClass = new Class1(); this class is converted to a string s. s= ConvertObjectToXmlString(myClass); then s is assigned to a cell Range r = Application.ActiveCell; r.Value2 = s; Note: (1) If the string is too big, I limit it to 32000 chars and split the string in chunks of 32000 chars and save the chunks in multiple cells. (2) I do not to quote the string before adding to a cell. Do I need to? If so how it can be done? (3) All object contents are English. (4) C# code sample will be great but VB.net code is OK.

    Read the article

  • How do you populate a NSArrayController with CoreData rows programmatically?

    - by Andrew McCloud
    After several hours/days of searching and diving into example projects i've concluded that I need to just ask. If I bind the assetsView (IKImageBrowserView) directly to an IB instance of NSArrayController everything works just fine. - (void) awakeFromNib { library = [[NSArrayController alloc] init]; [library setManagedObjectContext:[[NSApp delegate] managedObjectContext]]; [library setEntityName:@"Asset"]; NSLog(@"%@", [library arrangedObjects]); NSLog(@"%@", [library content]); [assetsView setDataSource:library]; [assetsView reloadData]; } Both NSLogs are empty. I know i'm missing something... I just don't know what. The goal is to eventually allow multiple instances of this view's "library" filtered programmatically with a predicate. For now i'm just trying to have it display all of the rows for the "Asset" entity. Addition: If I create the NSArrayController in IB and then try to log [library arrangedObjects] or manually set the data source for assetsView I get the same empty results. Like I said earlier, if I bind library.arrangedObjects to assetsView.content (IKImageBrowserView) in IB - with same managed object context and same entity name set by IB - everything works as expected. - (void) awakeFromNib { // library = [[NSArrayController alloc] init]; // [library setManagedObjectContext:[[NSApp delegate] managedObjectContext]]; // [library setEntityName:@"Asset"]; NSLog(@"%@", [library arrangedObjects]); NSLog(@"%@", [library content]); [assetsView setDataSource:library]; [assetsView reloadData]; }

    Read the article

  • Insert or Update using Oracle and PL/SQL

    - by Shane
    I have a PL/SQL function that performs an update/insert on an Oracle database that maintains a target total and returns the difference between the existing value and the new value. Here is the code I have so far: FUNCTION calcTargetTotal(accountId varchar2, newTotal numeric ) RETURN number is oldTotal numeric(20,6); difference numeric(20,6); begin difference := 0; begin select value into oldTotal from target_total WHERE account_id = accountId for update of value; if (oldTotal != newTotal) then update target_total set value = newTotal WHERE account_id = accountId difference := newTotal - oldTotal; end if; exception when NO_DATA_FOUND then begin difference := newTotal; insert into target_total ( account_id, value ) values ( accountId, newTotal ); -- sometimes a race condition occurs and this stmt fails -- in those cases try to update again exception when DUP_VAL_ON_INDEX then begin difference := 0; select value into oldTotal from target_total WHERE account_id = accountId for update of value; if (oldTotal != newTotal) then update target_total set value = newTotal WHERE account_id = accountId difference := newTotal - oldTotal; end if; end; end; end; return difference end calcTargetTotal; This works as expected in unit tests with multiple threads never failing. However when loaded on a live system we have seen this fail with a stack trace looking like this: ORA-01403: no data found ORA-00001: unique constraint () violated ORA-01403: no data found The line numbers (which I have removed since they are meaningless out of context) verify that the first update fails due to no data, the insert fail due to uniqueness, and the 2nd update is failing with no data, which should be impossible. From what I have read on other thread a MERGE statement is also not atomic and could suffer similar problems. Does anyone have any ideas how to prevent this from occurring?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET server data persistence

    - by Wayne Werner
    Hi, I'm not really sure exactly how the question should be phrased, so please be patient if I ask the wrong thing. I'm writing an ASP.NET application using VB as the code behind language. I have a data access class that connects to the DB to run the query (parameterized, of course), and another class to perform the validation tasks - I access this class from my aspx page. What I would like is to be able to store the data server side and wait for the user to choose from a few options based on the validity of the data. But unless my understanding is completely off, having persistent data objects on the server will give problems when multiple users connect? My ultimate goal is that once the data has been validated the end user can't modify it. Currently I'm validating the data, but I still have to retrieve it from the web form AFTER the user says OK, which obviously leaves open the possibility of injecting bad data either accidentally (unlikely) or on purpose (also unlikely for the use, but I'd prefer not to take the chance). So am I completely off in my understanding? If so, can someone point me to a resource that provides some instructions on keeping persistent data on the server, or provide instruction? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Host WCF in MVC2 Site

    - by Basiclife
    Hi, We've got a very large, complex MVC2 website. We want to add an API for some internal tools and decided to use WCF. Ideally, we want MVC itself to host the WCF service. Reasons include: Although there's multiple tiers to the application, some functionality we'd like in the API requires the website itself (e.g. formatting emails). We use TFS to auto-build (continuous integration) and deploy - The less we need to modify the build and release mechanism the better We use the Unity container and Inversion of Control throughout the application. Being part of the Website would allow us to re-use configuration classes and other helper methods. I've written a custom ServiceBehavior which in turn has a custom InstanceProvider - This allows me to instantiate and configure a container which is then used to service all requests for class instances from WCF. So my question is; Is it possible to host a WCF service from within MVC itself? I've only had experience in Services / Standard Asp.Net websites before and didn't realise MVC2 might be different until I actually tried to wire it into the config and nothing happened. After some googling, there don't seem to be many references to doing this - so thought I'd ask here.

    Read the article

  • Thread-safety of read-only memory access

    - by Edmund
    I've implemented the Barnes-Hut gravity algorithm in C as follows: Build a tree of clustered stars. For each star, traverse the tree and apply the gravitational forces from each applicable node. Update the star velocities and positions. Stage 2 is the most expensive stage, and so is implemented in parallel by dividing the set of stars. E.g. with 1000 stars and 2 threads, I have one thread processing the first 500 stars and the second thread processing the second 500. In practice this works: it speeds the computation by about 30% with two threads on a two-core machine, compared to the non-threaded version. Additionally, it yields the same numerical results as the original non-threaded version. My concern is that the two threads are accessing the same resource (namely, the tree) simultaneously. I have not added any synchronisation to the thread workers, so it's likely they will attempt to read from the same location at some point. Although access to the tree is strictly read-only I am not 100% sure it's safe. It has worked when I've tested it but I know this is no guarantee of correctness! Questions Do I need to make a private copy of the tree for each thread? Even if it is safe, are there performance problems of accessing the same memory from multiple threads?

    Read the article

  • Updating target workbook - extracting data from source workbook

    - by Allan
    My question is as follows: I have given a workbook to multiple people. They have this workbook in a folder of their choice. The workbook name is the same for all people, but folder locations vary. Let's assume the common file name is MyData-1.xls. Now I have updated the workbook and want to give it to these people. However when they receive the new one (let's call it MyData-2.xls) I want specific parts of their data pulled from their file (MyData-1) and automatically put into the new one provided (MyData-2). The columns and cells to be copied/imported are identical for both workbooks. Let's assume I want to import cell data (values only) from MyData-1.xls, Sheet 1, cells B8 through C25 ... to ... the same location in the MyData-2.xls workbook. How can I specify in code (possibly attached to a macro driven import data now button) that I want this data brought into this new workbook. I have tried it at my own location by opening the two workbooks and using the copy/paste-special with links process. It works really well, but It seems to create a hard link between the two physical workbooks. I changed the name of the source workbook and it still worked. This makes me believe that there is a "hard link" between the tow and that this will not allow me to give the target (MyData-2.xls) workbook to others and have it find their source workbook.

    Read the article

  • SL3 Grid RowDefinition Height Problem

    - by Chris
    I have a parent grid that contains multiple row definitions, all of which have their height set to 'auto'. Within the parent grid are individual grids - each individual grid contains a custom content control. When the custom content control loads, the height may increase. What I am noticing is that when the height does increase, the content overlaps with the content in other rows. I have specified the horizontal and vertical alignments - am I missing something? Here is an example: <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot"> <Grid x:Name="ParentGrid>"> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="Auto"/> <RowDefinition Height="Auto"/> <RowDefinition Height="Auto"/> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <Grid Grid.Row="0"> <CustomContentControl/> </Grid> <Grid Grid.Row="1"> <CustomContentControl/> </Grid> <Grid Grid.Row="2"> <CustomContentControl/> </Grid> </Grid> </Grid>

    Read the article

  • Web pages that a long time to load keep on reloading, just on vista on my work n/w...

    - by Ralpharama
    I have a curious problem at work which I've been struggling with since the advent of Windows Vista. We send our own email newsletter out to 40,000+ people once a week. The sending code has been in place for years, it's in classic ASP/VBscript called through a browser and simply loops through each email address, sending it to them. The page takes 40 mins or more to run, so has a big timeout value to allow it to do so. All well and good, suddenly, after Windows Vista is installed on the work PCs, the email sending page behaved oddly - after a period of time it seems to reload the page, endlessly, so the first 20% of our users get multiple copies of the newsletter until we kill the process! If we run the code on an XP machine in the on the same office network, it works fine. If we run it on Vista outside the office, so, say, on my own ISP, then it also works fine! Note, same effect in IE and FF... So, something about my office network and Vista is causing this... I recently re-wrote the newsletter code so it would split the task into chunks of 100 users at a time, hoping this would fix it, but my most recent test shows that the office n/w vista machine once again reloads the same page over any over, even though it takes 1/10th of the time to run... Does anyone have any ideas what it might be, how I can prove it, or, better, how I can get round it? Thanks for your advice :)

    Read the article

  • How do I switch out Views in a Cocoa application?

    - by David Garcia
    So I'm beginning to learn how to use Cocoa. I think I've pretty much got it but I'm hung up on creating and switching views. I'm rewriting a game I made a little bit ago for practice. All I want is one window (preferably not resizable) and I want to be able to switch out views for different screens in the game. First, I have the main menu (Start Game, High Scores, Exit). Then I need a window for each screen (Gameplay screen, Highscore screen). What I'm getting confused with is how to design this. I looked up NSViewController thinking it manages views but it doesn't. It only manages one view by loading it really. I don't understand why I'd need to use NSViewController then. Couldn't I just have a window class that contains multiple subclasses of NSView and load them like that? I'm not sure I understand the purpose of the ViewController. Does my Window Class really need to subclass NSWindowController? I was trying to follow the example of Apple's ViewController example and it has a window controller class that's a subclass of NSWindowController. I don't see what the purpose was of subclassing that. All NSWindowController seems to add is - initWithPath:(NSString *)newPath but I fail to see the use in that either when I can just edit the plist file to open the window on start up. Apple's example also has an NSView variable and an NSViewController variable. Don't you only need one variable to store the current view? Thanks in advance guys, I'm really confused as to how this works.

    Read the article

  • Compare values in serialized column in Doctrine with Query Builder

    - by ReynierPM
    I'm building a FormType for a Symfony2 project but I need some Query Builder on the field since I need to compare some values with the one stored on DB and show the results. This is what I have: .... ->add('servicio', 'entity', array( 'mapped' => false, 'class' => 'ComunBundle:TipoServicio', 'property' => 'nombre', 'required' => true, 'label' => false, 'expanded' => true, 'multiple' => true, 'query_builder' => function (EntityRepository $er) { return $er->createQueryBuilder('ts') ->where('ts.tipo_usuario = (:tipo)') ->setParameter('tipo', 1); } )) .... But tipo_usuario at DB table is stored as serialized text for example: record1: value1 | a:1:{i:0;s:1:"1";} record2: value2 | a:4:{i:0;s:1:"1";i:1;s:1:"2";i:2;s:1:"3";i:3;s:1:"4";} I'll have two different forms (I don't know how to pass the Request to a form) in the first one I'll only show the first record and for the second one the first and second record for example: First form will show: checkbox: value1 Second form will show: checkbox: value1 checkbox: value2 I achieve this? Any help?

    Read the article

  • Tree deletion with NHibernate

    - by Tigraine
    Hi, I'm struggling with a little problem and starting to arrive at the conclusion it's simply not possible. I have a Table called Group. As with most of these systems Group has a ParentGroup and a Children collection. So the Table Group looks like this: Group -ID (PK) -Name -ParentId (FK) I did my mappings using FNH AutoMappings, but I had to override the defaults for this: p.References(x => x.Parent) .Column("ParentId") .Cascade.All(); p.HasMany(x => x.Children) .KeyColumn("ParentId") .ForeignKeyCascadeOnDelete() .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .Inverse(); Now, the general idea was to be able to delete a node and all of it's children to be deleted too by NH. So deleting the only root node should basically clear the whole table. I tried first with Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan but that works only for deletion of items from the Children collection, not deletion of the parent. Next I tried ForeignKeyCascadeOnDelete so the operation gets delegated to the Database through on delete cascade. But once I do that MSSql2008 does not allow me to create this constraint, failing with : Introducing FOREIGN KEY constraint 'FKBA21C18E87B9D9F7' on table 'Group' may cause cycles or multiple cascade paths. Specify ON DELETE NO ACTION or ON UPDATE NO ACTION, or modify other FOREIGN KEY constraints. Well, and that's it for me. I guess I'll just loop through the children and delete them one by one, thus doing a N+1. If anyone has a suggestion on how do that more elegantly I'd be eager to hear it.

    Read the article

  • Start with remoting or with WCF

    - by Sheldon
    Hi. I'm just starting with distributed application development. I need to create (all by myself) an enterprise application for document management. That application will run on an intranet (within the firewall, no internet access is required now, BUT is probably that will be later). The application needs to manage images that will be stored within MySQL Server (as blobs) and those images will be then recovered by the app and eventually one or more of them will be converted to PDF. Performance is the most important non-functional requirement. I have a couple of doubts. What do you suggest to use, .NET Remoting or WCF over TCP-IP (I think second one is the best for the moment I need to expose the business logic over internet, changing the protocol). Where do you suggest to make the transformation of the images to pdf files, I'm using iText. (I have thought to have the business logic stored within the IIS and exposed via WCF, and that business logic to be responsible of getting the images and transforming them to PDF, that because the IIS and the MySQL Server are the same physical machine). I ask about where to do the transformation because the app must be accessible from multiple devices, and for example, for mobile devices, the pdf maybe is not necessary. Thank you very much in advance.

    Read the article

  • setting write permissions on theme subdirectory?

    - by Scott B
    I've a theme which supports multiple templates, each with a header background image whose color can be set by the site owner via a colorpicker widget in my theme's options panel. This has the effect of opening the background image, recoloring it and resaving it back to the server. I've had zero issues with this routine until recently when a customer installed the theme on a web host whose default read/write permissions are apparently much more restrictive than the norm. In this case, the user was unable to alter the colors of the template images because of the permissions settings. I'm looking for a bit of understanding on what the permissions would need to be (assuming I purposefully set them via script) to allow the logged in wordpress user to write to files under my theme's styles directory. The code I'm using to write to the image file is below... $img = imagecreatefromgif("../wp-content/themes/mytheme/styles/".get_option('my_theme')."/image.gif"); $color = imagecolorallocate($img, $info["red"], $info["green"], $info["blue"]); imagecolorset($img, 0, $info["red"], $info["green"], $info["blue"]); imagegif($img, $path);

    Read the article

  • php convert european datetime to mysql datetime

    - by Mathlight
    I'm really stuck with this problem. I've got an datetime string like this: 28-06-14 11:01:00 I'm trying to convert it to 2014-06-28 11:01:00 so that i can insert it into the database ( with field type datetime. I've tryed multiple things like this: $datumHolder = new DateTime($data['datum'], new DateTimeZone('Europe/Amsterdam')); $datum1 = $datumHolder -> format("Y-m-d H:i:s"); $datum2 = date( 'Y-m-d', strtotime(str_replace('-', '/', $data['datum']) ) ); $datum3 = DateTime::createFromFormat( 'Y-m-d-:Hi:s', $data['datum']); This is the output i get: datum1: 2028-06-14 11:01:00 datum2: 1970-01-01 And i get an error for datum3: echo "datum3: " . $datum3->format( 'Y-m-d H:i:s'); . '<br />'; Call to a member function format() on a non-object So my question is very clear... What am I doing wrong / how to get this working? Thanks in advantage guys! I know that this question is asked many, many times... But whatever i try, i can't get it working...

    Read the article

  • Java: design for using many executors services and only few threads

    - by Guillaume
    I need to run in parallel multiple threads to perform some tests. My 'test engine' will have n tests to perform, each one doing k sub-tests. Each test result is stored for a later usage. So I have n*k processes that can be ran concurrently. I'm trying to figure how to use the java concurrent tools efficiently. Right now I have an executor service at test level and n executor service at sub test level. I create my list of Callables for the test level. Each test callable will then create another list of callables for the subtest level. When invoked a test callable will subsequently invoke all subtest callables test 1 subtest a1 subtest ...1 subtest k1 test n subtest a2 subtest ...2 subtest k2 call sequence: test manager create test 1 callable test1 callable create subtest a1 to k1 testn callable create subtest an to kn test manager invoke all test callables test1 callable invoke all subtest a1 to k1 testn callable invoke all subtest an to kn This is working fine, but I have a lot of new treads that are created. I can not share executor service since I need to call 'shutdown' on the executors. My idea to fix this problem is to provide the same fixed size thread pool to each executor service. Do you think it is a good design ? Do I miss something more appropriate/simple for doing this ?

    Read the article

  • WCF data services (OData), query with inheritance limitation?

    - by Mathieu Hétu
    Project: WCF Data service using internally EF4 CTP5 Code-First approach. I configured entities with inheritance (TPH). See previous question on this topic: Previous question about multiple entities- same table The mapping works well, and unit test over EF4 confirms that queries runs smoothly. My entities looks like this: ContactBase (abstract) Customer (inherits from ContactBase), this entity has also several Navigation properties toward other entities Resource (inherits from ContactBase) I have configured a discriminator, so both Customer and Resource map to the same table. Again, everythings works fine on the Ef4 point of view (unit tests all greens!) However, when exposing this DBContext over WCF Data services, I get: - CustomerBases sets exposed (Customers and Resources sets seems hidden, is it by design?) - When I query over Odata on Customers, I get this error: Navigation Properties are not supported on derived entity types. Entity Set 'ContactBases' has a instance of type 'CodeFirstNamespace.Customer', which is an derived entity type and has navigation properties. Please remove all the navigation properties from type 'CodeFirstNamespace.Customer'. Stacktrace: at System.Data.Services.Serializers.SyndicationSerializer.WriteObjectProperties(IExpandedResult expanded, Object customObject, ResourceType resourceType, Uri absoluteUri, String relativeUri, SyndicationItem item, DictionaryContent content, EpmSourcePathSegment currentSourceRoot) at System.Data.Services.Serializers.SyndicationSerializer.WriteEntryElement(IExpandedResult expanded, Object element, ResourceType expectedType, Uri absoluteUri, String relativeUri, SyndicationItem target) at System.Data.Services.Serializers.SyndicationSerializer.<DeferredFeedItems>d__b.MoveNext() at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Atom10FeedFormatter.WriteItems(XmlWriter writer, IEnumerable`1 items, Uri feedBaseUri) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Atom10FeedFormatter.WriteFeedTo(XmlWriter writer, SyndicationFeed feed, Boolean isSourceFeed) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Atom10FeedFormatter.WriteFeed(XmlWriter writer) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Atom10FeedFormatter.WriteTo(XmlWriter writer) at System.Data.Services.Serializers.SyndicationSerializer.WriteTopLevelElements(IExpandedResult expanded, IEnumerator elements, Boolean hasMoved) at System.Data.Services.Serializers.Serializer.WriteRequest(IEnumerator queryResults, Boolean hasMoved) at System.Data.Services.ResponseBodyWriter.Write(Stream stream) Seems like a limitation of WCF Data services... is it? Not much documentation can be found on the web about WCF Data services (OData) and inheritance specifications. How can I overpass this exception? I need these navigation properties on derived entities, and inheritance seems the only way to provide mapping of 2 entites on the same table with Ef4 CTP5... Any thoughts?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 818 819 820 821 822 823 824 825 826 827 828 829  | Next Page >