Search Results

Search found 23949 results on 958 pages for 'test test'.

Page 823/958 | < Previous Page | 819 820 821 822 823 824 825 826 827 828 829 830  | Next Page >

  • Can I commit changes to actual database while debugging C# in Visual Studio?

    - by nathant23
    I am creating a C# application using Visual Studio that uses an SQLExpress database. When I hit f5 to debug the application and make changes to the database I believe what is happening is there is a copy of the database in the bin/debug folder that changes are being made to. However, when I stop the debugging and then hit f5 the next time a new copy of the database is being put in the bin/debug folder so that all the changes made the last time are gone. My question is: Is there a way that when I am debugging the application I can have it make changes to the actual database and those changes are actually saved or will it only make changes to the copy in the bin/debug folder (if that is what is actually happening)? I've seen similar questions, but I couldn't find an answer that said if it's possible to make those changes persistent in the actual .mdf file. The reason I ask is because as I build this application I am continuously adding pieces and testing to make sure they all work together. When I put in test data I am using actual data that I would like to stay in the database. This would just help me not have to reenter the data later. Thanks in advance for any help or information that could help me better understand the process.

    Read the article

  • Most Elegant Way to write isPrime in java

    - by Anantha Kumaran
    public class Prime { public static boolean isPrime1(int n) { if (n <= 1) { return false; } if (n == 2) { return true; } for (int i = 2; i <= Math.sqrt(n) + 1; i++) { if (n % i == 0) { return false; } } return true; } public static boolean isPrime2(int n) { if (n <= 1) { return false; } if (n == 2) { return true; } if (n % 2 == 0) { return false; } for (int i = 3; i <= Math.sqrt(n) + 1; i = i + 2) { if (n % i == 0) { return false; } } return true; } } public class PrimeTest { public PrimeTest() { } @Test public void testIsPrime() throws IllegalArgumentException, IllegalAccessException, InvocationTargetException { Prime prime = new Prime(); TreeMap<Long, String> methodMap = new TreeMap<Long, String>(); for (Method method : Prime.class.getDeclaredMethods()) { long startTime = System.currentTimeMillis(); int primeCount = 0; for (int i = 0; i < 1000000; i++) { if ((Boolean) method.invoke(prime, i)) { primeCount++; } } long endTime = System.currentTimeMillis(); Assert.assertEquals(method.getName() + " failed ", 78498, primeCount); methodMap.put(endTime - startTime, method.getName()); } for (Entry<Long, String> entry : methodMap.entrySet()) { System.out.println(entry.getValue() + " " + entry.getKey() + " Milli seconds "); } } } I am trying to find the fastest way to check whether the given number is prime or not. This is what is finally came up with. Is there any better way than the second implementation(isPrime2).

    Read the article

  • fix a columns width when a list is bound to a datagridview

    - by Andy
    I have a list that I have bound to a datagridview. I want the first column to be a fixed size. The data is bound to the dataGridView and I can't seem to find a way to access an individual colums properties. if I try myDatagridview.colums[0] I get an index out of bounds, since it says the columns count is 0. private DataGridView setUpDataGrid(List<NVRlineVal> _NVRData) { //setup dataGridView DataGridView NVRDataGridView = new System.Windows.Forms.DataGridView(); NVRDataGridView.ColumnHeadersHeightSizeMode = System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewColumnHeadersHeightSizeMode.AutoSize; NVRDataGridView.Dock = System.Windows.Forms.DockStyle.Fill; NVRDataGridView.AutoSizeColumnsMode = DataGridViewAutoSizeColumnsMode.Fill; NVRDataGridView.Location = new System.Drawing.Point(3, 3); NVRDataGridView.Name = "NVRDataGridView" + nvrIndex; NVRDataGridView.RowHeadersWidthSizeMode = System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewRowHeadersWidthSizeMode.AutoSizeToDisplayedHeaders; NVRDataGridView.Size = new System.Drawing.Size(380, 401); NVRDataGridView.TabIndex = 0; NVRDataGridView.DataSource = _NVRData; var test = NVRDataGridView.Columns; NVRDataGridView.DataMember = "devState"; DataGridViewAutoSizeColumnMode.None; } Any ideas on how to have a fixed column width for only one of these columns, the rest will autosize?

    Read the article

  • How to cope with null results in SQL Tasks that return single rows in SSIS 2005?

    - by JSacksteder
    In a dataflow task, I can slip a rowcount into the processing flow and place the count into a variable. I can later use that variable to conditionally perform some other work if the rowcount was 0. This works well for me, but I have no corresponding strategy for sql tasks expected to return a single row. In that event, I'm returning those values into variables. If the lookup produces no rows, the sql task fails when assigning values into those variables. I can branch on that component failing, but there's a side effect of that - if I'm running the job as a SQL server agent job step, the step returns DTSER_FAILURE, causing the step to fail. I can tell the sql agent to disregard the step failure, but then I won't know if I have a legitimate error in that step. This seems harder than it should be. The only strategy I can think of is to run the same query with a count(*) aggregate and test if that returns a number 0 and if so running the query again without the count. That's ugly because I have the same query in two places that I need to keep in sync. Is there a better way?

    Read the article

  • UTF-8 MySQL and Charset, pls help me understand this once and for all!

    - by FFish
    Can someone explain me when I set everything to UTF-8 I keep getting those damn ??? MySQL Server version: 5.1.44 MySQL charset: UTF-8 Unicode (utf8) I create a new database name: utf8test collation: utf8_general_ci MySQL connection collation: utf8_general_ci My SQL looks like this: SET SQL_MODE="NO_AUTO_VALUE_ON_ZERO"; CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `test_table` ( `test_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `test_text` text NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`test_id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8; INSERT INTO `test_table` (`test_id`, `test_text`) VALUES (1, 'hééélo'), (2, 'wööörld'); My PHP / HTML: <?php $db_conn = mysql_connect("localhost", "root", "") or die("Can't connect to db"); mysql_select_db("utf8test", $db_conn) or die("Can't select db"); // $result = mysql_query("set names 'utf8'"); // this works... why?? $query = "SELECT * FROM test_table"; $result = mysql_query($query); $output = ""; while($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { $output .= "id: " . $row['test_id'] . " - text: " . $row['test_text'] . "<br />"; } ?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html lang="it" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="it"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>UTF-8 test</title> </head> <body> <?php echo $output; ?> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • Formating Date in Freemarker to say "Today", "Yesterday", etc.

    - by egervari
    Is there a way in freemarker to compare dates to test if the date is today or yesterday... or do I have to write code in Java to do these tests? I basically want to do this: <#------------------------------------------------------------------------------ formatDate -------------------------------------------------------------------------------> <#macro formatDate date showTime=true> <#if date??> <span class="Date"> <#if date?is_today> Today <#elseif date?is_yesterday> Yesterday <#else> ${date?date} </#if> </span> <#if showTime> <span class="Time">${date?time}</span> </#if> </#if> </#macro> EDIT: My best guess to implement this is to pass "today" and "yesterday" into the model for the pages that use this function and then compare the date values against these 2 objects in the model. I am out of out of options, but I'd rather not have to do this for every page that uses this macro. Any other options that are nicer? <#if date??> <span class="Date"> <#if date?date?string.short == today?date?string.short> Today <#elseif date?date?string.short == yesterday?date?string.short> Yesterday <#else> ${date?date} </#if> </span> <#if showTime> <span class="Time">${date?time}</span> </#if> </#if>

    Read the article

  • How to avoid resetting the java Scanner position

    - by Derek
    I have some code that looks more or less like this: while(scanner.hasNext()) { if(scanner.findInLine("Test") !=null) { //do some things }else{ scanner.nextLine(); } } I am using this to parse an ~10MB text file. The problem is, if I put a breakpoint on the while() and the scanner.nextLine(), I can see that sometimes the scanners position (in the debug window) goes back to zero. I think this is causing me some kind of loop blow up, because the regext in findInLine() starts at zero, looks through some amount of text, advancing the position, and then it randomly gets set back to zero, so it has to re-parse all that text again. Any ideas what can be causing that? Am I even doing this the right way? Thanks Some additional info: The Scanner is instantiated from an InputStream. After diubg sine debugging, it appears that there is a HearCharBuffer that Scanner uses and it only allows 1024 characters at a time, and then resets. Is there a way to avoid this, or do things differently? That seems like a small amount of characters to be able to scan. Derek

    Read the article

  • Java BoxLayout alignment issue

    - by ManInMoon
    Can anyone help me. Why is the Label "Current" NOT left aligned in Panel/Frame? public static void main(String[] args) { JFrame TFrame = new JFrame("Test DisplayLayout"); TFrame.setResizable(true); TFrame.setSize(new Dimension(900, 840)); TFrame.setLocationRelativeTo(null); TFrame.setTitle("DisplayLayout"); TFrame.setVisible(true); JPanel P = DisplayLayout2(); P.setVisible(true); P.setOpaque(true); P.setLayout(new BoxLayout(P, BoxLayout.Y_AXIS)); TFrame.add(P); TFrame.revalidate(); TFrame.repaint(); } public static JPanel DisplayLayout2() { JPanel Panel=new JPanel(); Panel.setVisible(true); Panel.setOpaque(true); Panel.setLayout(new BoxLayout(Panel, BoxLayout.Y_AXIS)); Panel.setAlignmentX(Component.LEFT_ALIGNMENT); JLabel lab = new JLabel("Current"); lab.setHorizontalAlignment(SwingConstants.LEFT); lab.setForeground(Color.WHITE); lab.setBackground(Color.PINK); lab.setOpaque(true); Panel.add(lab,Component.LEFT_ALIGNMENT); JPanel posPanel = new JPanel(); JScrollPane scrollPane = new JScrollPane(posPanel,JScrollPane.VERTICAL_SCROLLBAR_ALWAYS,JScrollPane.HORIZONTAL_SCROLLBAR_NEVER); scrollPane.setPreferredSize(new Dimension(290, 200)); scrollPane.setOpaque(true); posPanel.setBackground(Color.YELLOW); posPanel.setPreferredSize(new Dimension(290, 200)); posPanel.setLayout(new BoxLayout(posPanel, BoxLayout.Y_AXIS)); posPanel.setAlignmentX(Component.LEFT_ALIGNMENT); Panel.add(scrollPane); return Panel; }

    Read the article

  • how to return response from post in a variable? jQuery

    - by robertdd
    i use this function to return the response of post: $.sendpost = function(){ return jQuery.post('inc/operations.php', {'operation':'test'}, "json"); }, i want to make something like this: in: $.another = function(){ var sendpost = $.sendpost(); alert(sendpost); } but i get: [object XMLHttpRequest] if i print the object with: jQuery.each(sendpost, function(i, val) { $(".displaydetails").append(i + " => " + val + "<br/>"); }); i get: details abort => function () { x && h.call(x); g("abort"); } dispatchEvent => function dispatchEvent() { [native code] } removeEventListener => function removeEventListener() { [native code] } open => function open() { [native code] } setRequestHeader => function setRequestHeader() { [native code] } onreadystatechange => [xpconnect wrapped nsIDOMEventListener] send => function send() { [native code] } readyState => 4 status => 200 getResponseHeader => function getResponseHeader() { [native code] } responseText => mdaaa from php how to return only the response in the variable?

    Read the article

  • Returning an integer from a select box - JavaScript

    - by Ross
    Very simply, I want to be able to access the year from the select box as an integer. In my test, my alertbox is telling me the value is undefined. <form name="form1" method="post" action=""> <label>birth year <select name="birth year" id="dueYear"> <OPTION VALUE='' SELECTED>--Year--</OPTION> <OPTION VALUE='2011'>2011</OPTION> <OPTION VALUE='2010'>2010</OPTION> <OPTION VALUE='2009'>2009</OPTION></SELECT> </select> </label> </form> <script type="text/javascript"> var dueDateYear = parseInt(document.getElementById("dueYear")); </script> <button onclick="alert(dueDateYear)">Click Me!</button> All I want it to do, is tell me the year I have selected -- any help would be appreciated, I am a newbie :(

    Read the article

  • SCJP Book, IO section: Is this a typo or is there a reason it would look like this?

    - by iamchuckb
    My question is about line 4, where the new PrintWriter is created with the constructor taking the FileWriter fw as a parameter. I don't understand the use of chaining the BufferedWriter bw to FileWriter if it isn't used later on in the actual writing. Can Java apply chaining in a way that bw still somehow affects the rest of the program? 16. try { 17. FileWriter fw = new FileWriter(test); 18. BufferedWriter bw = new BufferedWriter(fw, 1024); 19. PrintWriter out = new PrintWriter(fw); 20. out.println("<html><body><h1>"); 21. out.println(args[0]); 22. out.println("</h1></body></html>"); 23. out.close(); 24. bw.close(); 25. fw.close(); 26. }catch(IOException e) { 27. e.printStackTrace(); 28. } I think it is probably a typo and they meant to use bw as the parameter for PrintWriter out but like the title says, I'm new to this. Thanks to all in advance.

    Read the article

  • Reading Unicode files line by line C++

    - by Roger Nelson
    What is the correct way to read Unicode files line by line in C++? I am trying to read a file saved as Unicode (LE) by Windows Notepad. Suppose the file contains simply the characters A and B on separate lines. In reading the file byte by byte, I see the following byte sequence (hex) : FE FF 41 00 0D 00 0A 00 42 00 0D 00 0A 00 So 2 byte BOM, 2 byte 'A', 2byte CR , 2byte LF, 2 byte 'B', 2 byte CR, 2 byte LF . I tried reading the text file using the following code: std::wifstream file("test.txt"); file.seekg(2); // skip BOM std::wstring A_line; std::wstring B_line; getline(file,A_line); // I get "A" getline(file,B_line); // I get "\0B" I get the same results using operator instead of getline file >> A_line; file >> B_line; It appears that the single byte CR character is is being consumed only as the single byte. or CR NULL LF is being consumed but not the high byte NULL. I would expect wifstream in text mode would read the 2byte CR and 2byte LF. What am I doing wrong? It does not seem right that one should have to read a text file byte by byte in binary mode just to parse the new lines.

    Read the article

  • CSS: how come html, body height: 100% is more then 100% ?!

    - by Nati
    hey, i was trying to do a bottom sticky footer link test and but it kept being more then 100% meaning it scrolled a litle bit.. so i made a simple HTML code, without any additions but its still more than 100%, see here: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="he" lang="he" dir="rtl" id="bangler"> <head> <title>my title</title> <style type="text/css"> html, body, #wrapper { height: 100%; } body > #wrapper { height: auto; min-height: 100%; } </style> </head> <body> <div id="wrapper">aa</div> </body> </html> the thing is, it scrolls just a little bit more then 100% meaning about 5-10px more.. this is really strange, on both IE and Firefox !! Thanks in advance !

    Read the article

  • TransactionScope and Transactions

    - by Mike
    In my C# code I am using TransactionScope because I was told not to rely that my sql programmers will always use transactions and we are responsible and yada yada. Having said that It looks like TransactionScope object Rolls back before the SqlTransaction? Is that possible and if so what is the correct methodology for wrapping a TransactionScope in a transaction. Here is the sql test CREATE PROC ThrowError AS BEGIN TRANSACTION --SqlTransaction SELECT 1/0 IF @@ERROR<> 0 BEGIN ROLLBACK TRANSACTION --SqlTransaction RETURN -1 END ELSE BEGIN COMMIT TRANSACTION --SqlTransaction RETURN 0 END go DECLARE @RESULT INT EXEC @RESULT = ThrowError SELECT @RESULT And if I run this I get just the divide by 0 and return -1 Call from the C# code I get an extra error message Divide by zero error encountered. Transaction count after EXECUTE indicates that a COMMIT or ROLLBACK TRANSACTION tatement is missing. Previous count = 1, current count = 0. If I give the sql transaction a name then Cannot roll back SqlTransaction. No transaction or savepoint of that name was found. Transaction count after EXECUTE indicates that a COMMIT or ROLLBACK TRANSACTION statement is missing. Previous count = 1, current count = 2. some times it seems the count goes up, until the app completely exits The c# is just using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope()) { ... Execute Sql scope.Commit() }

    Read the article

  • NSPopupButton Bindings with Value Transformer

    - by rdelmar
    I don't know if what I see with a popup button populated by bindings with a value transformer is the way it's supposed to be or not -- the unusual thing I'm seeing (at least with respect to what I've seen with value transformers and table views) is that the "value" parameter in the transformedValue: method is the whole array bound to the array controller, not the individual strings in the array. When I've done this with table views, the transformer is called once for each displayed row in the table, and the "value" parameter is whatever object is bound to that row and column, not the whole array that serves as the content array for the array controller. I have a very simple app to test this. In the app delegate there is this: +(void)initialize { RDTransformer *transformer = [[RDTransformer alloc] init]; [NSValueTransformer setValueTransformer:transformer forName:@"testTransformer"]; } - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(NSNotification *)aNotification { self.theData = @[@{@"name":@"William", @"age":@"24"},@{@"name":@"Thomas", @"age":@"23"},@{@"name":@"Alexander", @"age":@"64"},@{@"name":@"James", @"age":@"47"}]; } In the RDTransformer class is this: + (Class)transformedValueClass { return [NSString class]; } +(BOOL)allowsReverseTransformation { return NO; } -(id)transformedValue:(id)value { NSLog(@"%@",value); return value; } In IB, I added an NSPopupButton to the window and an array controller to the objects list. The content array of the controller is bound to App Delegate.theData, and the Content Values of the popup button is bound to Array Controller.arrangedObjects.name with the value transformer, testTransformer. When I run the program, the log from the transformedValue: method is this: 2012-09-19 20:31:39.975 PopupBindingWithTransformer[793:303] ( ) 2012-09-19 20:31:40.019 PopupBindingWithTransformer[793:303] ( William, Thomas, Alexander, James ) This doesn't seem to be other people's experience from what I can see on SO. Is there something I'm doing wrong with either the bindings or the value transformer?

    Read the article

  • Why should I override hashCode() when I override equals() method?

    - by Bragaadeesh
    Ok, I have heard from many places and sources that whenever I override the equals() method, I need to override the hashCode() method as well. But consider the following piece of code package test; public class MyCustomObject { int intVal1; int intVal2; public MyCustomObject(int val1, int val2){ intVal1 = val1; intVal2 = val2; } public boolean equals(Object obj){ return (((MyCustomObject)obj).intVal1 == this.intVal1) && (((MyCustomObject)obj).intVal2 == this.intVal2); } public static void main(String a[]){ MyCustomObject m1 = new MyCustomObject(3,5); MyCustomObject m2 = new MyCustomObject(3,5); MyCustomObject m3 = new MyCustomObject(4,5); System.out.println(m1.equals(m2)); System.out.println(m1.equals(m3)); } } Here the output is true, false exactly the way I want it to be and I dont care of overriding the hashCode() method at all. This means that hashCode() overriding is an option rather being a mandatory one as everyone says. I want a second confirmation.

    Read the article

  • Simulating a contains If-Else using RewriteCond

    - by hlissner
    Hi! I'm trying to get my head around RewriteCond, and want to rewrite any requests either to a static html page (if it exists), or to a specific index.php (so long as the requested file doesn't exist). To illustrate the logic: if HTTP_HOST is '(www\.)?mydomain.com' if file exists: "/default/static/{REQUEST_URI}.html", then rewrite .* to /default/static/{REQUEST_URI}.html else if file exists: {REQUEST_FILENAME}, then do not rewrite else rewrite .* to /default/index.php I don't seem to have much trouble doing it when I don't need to test for the HTTP_HOST. Ultimately, this one .htaccess file will be handling requests for several domains. I know I could get around this with vhosts, but I'd like to figure out how to do it this way. Here's where I am at now: RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^(www\.)?mydomain\.com$ [NC] RewriteCond /default/static/%{REQUEST_URI}.html -f RewriteRule . /default/static/%{REQUEST_URI}.html [L,NC] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule . /default/index.php [L,QSA] I'm not too familiar with some of the other flags, will any of them be of use here (like chain|C, next|N or skip|S)? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • How to keep the CPU usage down while running an SDL program?

    - by budwiser
    I've done a very basic window with SDL and want to keep it running until I press the X on window. #include "SDL.h" const int SCREEN_WIDTH = 640; const int SCREEN_HEIGHT = 480; int main(int argc, char **argv) { SDL_Init( SDL_INIT_VIDEO ); SDL_Surface* screen = SDL_SetVideoMode( SCREEN_WIDTH, SCREEN_HEIGHT, 0, SDL_HWSURFACE | SDL_DOUBLEBUF ); SDL_WM_SetCaption( "SDL Test", 0 ); SDL_Event event; bool quit = false; while (quit != false) { if (SDL_PollEvent(&event)) { if (event.type == SDL_QUIT) { quit = true; } } SDL_Delay(80); } SDL_Quit(); return 0; } I tried adding SDL_Delay() at the end of the while-clause and it worked quite well. However, 80 ms seemed to be the highest value I could use to keep the program running smoothly and even then the CPU usage is about 15-20%. Is this the best way to do this and do I have to just live with the fact that it eats this much CPU already on this point?

    Read the article

  • Not able to connect to TFS Server from TFS Proxy

    - by GV India
    In our office we have setup TFS for project development. The TFS Server is WIN 2003 server SP2 with VSTFS 2008 and is running fine. Now we need to setup a TFS Proxy server on client site for client to access. Before going for the client setup, I wanted to build and test proxy in our office on a dummy server (will call it Proxy server hereon) by keeping it on a different domain. OS configuration of the Proxy server is the same as TFS server. I have installed and configured TFS proxy on Proxy server to connect to TFS Server. Also we have built trust between the two different domains to enable communication. Now problem is that I am not able to at all connect to TFS server. I am trying to connect from Internet Explorer of proxy server using proxy service account. It gives me error: The page cannot be displayed. HTTP 500 - Internal server error. The page I was browsing was http://tfs:8080/VersionControl/v1.0/ProxyStatistics.asmx. I think I have done all the required steps correctly to configure proxy as described in MSDN and also TFS installation guide. Here Proxy service account is a member of ‘Team Foundation Valid Users’ group. I am able to connect to TFS Server (specifying port) using Telnet from command prompt on proxy server as suggested by few sites. The TFS server web sites have been configured to use Integration Windows Authentication. Event Logs on both the servers are also not giving any error. Overall I’m not able to get it done. Any ideas on what might be the problem???

    Read the article

  • Web pages that a long time to load keep on reloading, just on vista on my work n/w...

    - by Ralpharama
    I have a curious problem at work which I've been struggling with since the advent of Windows Vista. We send our own email newsletter out to 40,000+ people once a week. The sending code has been in place for years, it's in classic ASP/VBscript called through a browser and simply loops through each email address, sending it to them. The page takes 40 mins or more to run, so has a big timeout value to allow it to do so. All well and good, suddenly, after Windows Vista is installed on the work PCs, the email sending page behaved oddly - after a period of time it seems to reload the page, endlessly, so the first 20% of our users get multiple copies of the newsletter until we kill the process! If we run the code on an XP machine in the on the same office network, it works fine. If we run it on Vista outside the office, so, say, on my own ISP, then it also works fine! Note, same effect in IE and FF... So, something about my office network and Vista is causing this... I recently re-wrote the newsletter code so it would split the task into chunks of 100 users at a time, hoping this would fix it, but my most recent test shows that the office n/w vista machine once again reloads the same page over any over, even though it takes 1/10th of the time to run... Does anyone have any ideas what it might be, how I can prove it, or, better, how I can get round it? Thanks for your advice :)

    Read the article

  • jQuery - disable selected options

    - by Jeffrey
    Need to disable already selected options in select box using jQuery. I'd like it to grey out like asmselect. Test my example here. //JS $("#theSelect").change(function(){ var value = $("#theSelect option:selected").val(); var theDiv = $(".is" + value); theDiv.slideDown().removeClass("hidden"); }); $("div a.remove").click(function () { $(this).parent().slideUp(function() { $(this).addClass("hidden"); }); }); //HTML <body> <div class="selectContainer"> <select id="theSelect"> <option value="">- Select -</option> <option value="Patient">Patient</option> <option value="Physician">Physician</option> <option value="Nurse">Nurse</option> </select> </div> <div class="hidden isPatient">Patient <a href="#" class="remove" rel="Patient">remove</a></div> <div class="hidden isPhysician">Physician <a href="#" class="remove" rel="Patient">remove</a></div> <div class="hidden isNurse">Nurse <a href="#" class="remove" rel="Patient">remove</a></div> </body>

    Read the article

  • Why does first call to java.io.File.createTempFile(String,String,File) take 5 seconds on Citrix?

    - by Ben Roling
    While debugging slow startup of an Eclipse RCP app on a Citrix server, I came to find out that java.io.createTempFile(String,String,File) is taking 5 seconds. It does this only on the first execution and only for certain user accounts. Specifically, I am noticing it Citrix anonymous user accounts. I have not tried many other types of accounts, but this behavior is not exhibited with an administrator account. Also, it does not matter if the user has access to write to the given directory or not. If the user does not have access, the call will take 5 seconds to fail. If they do have access, the call with take 5 seconds to succeed. This is on a Windows 2003 Server. I've tried Sun's 1.6.0_16 and 1.6.0_19 JREs and see the same behavior. I googled a bit expecting this to be some sort of known issue, but didn't find anything. It seems like someone else would have had to have run into this before. The Eclipse Platform uses File.createTempFile() to test various directories to see if they are writeable during initialization and this issue adds 5 seconds to the startup time of our application. I imagine somebody has run into this before and might have some insight. Here is sample code I executed to see that it is indeed this call that is consuming the time. I also tried it with a second call to createTempFile and notice that subsequent calls return nearly instantaneously. public static void main(final String[] args) throws IOException { final File directory = new File(args[0]); final long startTime = System.currentTimeMillis(); File file = null; try { file = File.createTempFile("prefix", "suffix", directory); System.out.println(file.getAbsolutePath()); } finally { System.out.println(System.currentTimeMillis() - startTime); if (file != null) { file.delete(); } } } Sample output of this program is the following: C:\java.exe -jar filetest.jar C:/Temp C:\Temp\prefix8098550723198856667suffix 5093

    Read the article

  • Determine if the current thread has low I/O priority

    - by Magnus Hoff
    I have a background thread that does some I/O-intensive background type work. To please the other threads and processes running, I set the thread priority to "background mode" using SetThreadPriority, like this: SetThreadPriority(GetCurrentThread(), THREAD_MODE_BACKGROUND_BEGIN); However, THREAD_MODE_BACKGROUND_BEGIN is only available in Windows Server 2008 or newer, as well as Windows Vista and newer, but the program needs to work well on Windows Server 2003 and XP as well. So the real code is more like this: if (!SetThreadPriority(GetCurrentThread(), THREAD_MODE_BACKGROUND_BEGIN)) { SetThreadPriority(GetCurrentThread(), THREAD_PRIORITY_LOWEST); } The problem with this is that on Windows XP it will totally disrupt the system by using too much I/O. I have a plan for a ugly and shameful way of mitigating this problem, but that depends on me being able to determine if the current thread has low I/O priority or not. Now, I know I can store which thread priority I ended up setting, but the control flow in the program is not really well suited for this. I would rather like to be able to test later whether or not the current thread has low I/O priority -- if it is in "background mode". GetThreadPriority does not seem to give me this information. Is there any way to determine if the current thread has low I/O priority?

    Read the article

  • Adding an Array inside an array in a PHP function

    - by bateman_ap
    I have created a function in PHP that calls a webservice and parses through the result, assinging values to variables and returning them all as an Array. This all works perfectly, however I have come across a need to have an "array within my array" I am assigning values as below: $productName = $product->Name; $productID = $product->ID; $productArray = array( 'productName' => "$productName", 'productID' => "$productID" ); return $productArray; However I now have a piece of data that comes back with multiple results so I need to have a additional array to store these, I am getting the values from the returned XML using a foreach loop, however I want to be able to add them to the array with a name so I can reference them in the returned data, this is where I have a problem... $bestForLists = $product->BestFors; foreach( $bestForLists as $bestForList ) { $productBestFors = $bestForList->BestFor; foreach( $productBestFors as $productBestFor ) { $productBestForName = $productBestFor->Name; $productBestForID = $productBestFor->ID; } } I tried creating an array for these using the below code: $bestForArray[] = (array( "productBestForID" => "$productBestForID", "productBestForName" => "$productBestForName" )); And then at the end merging these together: $productArray= array_merge($productArray,$bestForArray); If I print out the returned value I get: Array ( [productName] => Test Product [productID] => 14128 [0] => Array ( [productBestForID] => 56647 [productBestForName] => Lighting ) [1] => Array ( [productBestForID] => 56648 [productBestForName] => Sound ) ) I would like to give the internal Array a name so I can reference it in my code, or is there a better way of doing this, at the moment I am using the following in my PHP page to get values: $productName = $functionReturnedValues['productName']; I would like to use the following to access the array I could then loop through: $bestForArray = $functionReturnedValues['bestForArray']; Hope someone can help

    Read the article

  • Zend Partial + Zend Action Helper causes an additional request to bootstrap?

    - by AndreLiem
    I've been profiling some zend framework code with webgrind to see where some bottle necks are and I'm noticing some very odd behavior. Using the zend partial for example, if I pass a variable value that comes from a zend action helper, it results in two requests being made. in sample.phtml echo $this->partial('partial/embed.phtml', array('url' => $this->url)); in indexcontroller.php $this->view->url = $this->_helper->Embed()->url; But if I don't pass the value from the helper to the partial, but still run the helper, it only makes one request in webgrind. e.g. $this->view->url = 'test'; $this->_helper->Embed()->url; Does anybody know why this could be happening? Am I potentially interpreting web grind incorrectly, or is it really calling the bootstrap twice when the an action helper value is tied to a partial? I'm starting to realize how inefficient some components of Zend are. Thanks

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 819 820 821 822 823 824 825 826 827 828 829 830  | Next Page >