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  • Problem with looping a video in Flash

    - by Blaze
    I am trying to loop a video and i am having some issues with this in flash. You can view the video here: http://www.healthcarepros.net/travel.html Here the specific code for the flash video: <script language="javascript"> if (AC_FL_RunContent == 0) { alert("This page requires AC_RunActiveContent.js."); } else { AC_FL_RunContent( 'codebase', 'http://download.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=9,0,0,0', 'width', '330', 'height', '245', 'src', 'healthcare-video', 'quality', 'high', 'pluginspage', 'http://www.macromedia.com/go/getflashplayer', 'align', 'middle', 'play', 'true', 'loop', 'true', 'scale', 'showall', 'wmode', 'window', 'devicefont', 'false', 'id', 'healthcare-video', 'bgcolor', '#ffffff', 'name', 'healthcare-video', 'menu', 'true', 'allowFullScreen', 'false', 'allowScriptAccess','sameDomain', 'movie', 'healthcare-video', 'salign', '' ); //end AC code } </script> <noscript> <object classid="clsid:d27cdb6e-ae6d-11cf-96b8-444553540000" codebase="http://download.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=9,0,0,0" width="330" height="245" id="healthcare-video" align="middle"> <param name="allowScriptAccess" value="sameDomain" /> <param name="allowFullScreen" value="false" /> <param name="loop" value="true" /> <param name="play" value="true" /> <param name="movie" value="healthcare-video.swf" /><param name="quality" value="high" /><param name="bgcolor" value="#ffffff" /> <embed src="healthcare-video.swf" play="true" flashvars="autoplay=true&play=true" quality="high" bgcolor="#ffffff" width="330" height="245" name="healthcare-video" align="middle" allowScriptAccess="sameDomain" allowFullScreen="false" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" pluginspage="http://www.macromedia.com/go/getflashplayer" /> </object> Additionally, i have added in the parameter code that calls the loop function but for some reason it still doesnt seem to work, any suggestions?

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  • i have code below where i need to develop the xsl-fo file using loop

    - by karthick
    <?xml version="1.0" encoding="iso-8859-1"?> <!--<!DOCTYPE svg PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD SVG 1.1//EN" "http://www.w3.org/Graphics/SVG/1.1/DTD/svg11.dtd">--> <!-- Generator: Arbortext IsoDraw 7.0 --> <?xml-stylesheet type="text/xsl" href="file:///C:/Documents%20and%20Settings/Admin/Desktop/Info%20Tech/task--2/taskbaba.xsl"?> <svg width="100%" height="100%" viewBox="0 0 214.819 278.002"> <g id="Catalog"> <text transform="matrix(0.984 0 0 0.93 183.515 265.271)" stroke="none" fill="#000000" font-family="'Helvetica'" font-size="3.174"/> <text transform="matrix(0.994 0 0 0.93 7.235 265.3)" stroke="none" fill="#000000" font-family="'Helvetica'" font-size="3.174">087156-8-</text> <text transform="matrix(0.995 0 0 0.93 21.708 265.357)" stroke="none" fill="#000000" font-family="'Helvetica'" font-size="3.174" font-weight="bold">AB</text> <text x="103.292" y="265.298" stroke="none" fill="#000000" font-family="'Helvetica'" font-size="3.174">P. 1/1</text> <g id="IC_TextBlock.1"> <g> <text transform="matrix(0.994 0 0 0.93 192.812 8.076)" stroke="none" fill="#000000" font-family="'Helvetica'" font-size="4.586" font-weight="bold">Fittings</text> <text transform="matrix(0.994 0 0 0.93 188.492 13.323)" stroke="none" fill="#000000" font-family="'Helvetica'" font-size="4.586" font-weight="bold">Raccords</text> <text transform="matrix(0.994 0 0 0.93 183.431 18.571)" stroke="none" fill="#000000" font-family="'Helvetica'" font-size="4.586" font-weight="bold">Conexiones</text> </g> </g> </svg>

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  • slow SQL command

    - by Retrocoder
    I need to take some data from one table (and expand some XML on the way) and put it in another table. As the source table can have thousands or records which caused a timeout I decided to do it in batches of 100 records. The code is run on a schedule so doing it in batches works ok for the customer. If I have say 200 records in the source database the sproc runs very fast but if there are thousands it takes several minutes. I'm guessing that the "TOP 100" only takes the top 100 after it has gone through all the records. I need to change the whole code and sproc at some point as it doesn't scale but for now is there a quick fix to make this run quicker ? INSERT INTO [deviceManager].[TransactionLogStores] SELECT TOP 100 [EventId], [message].value('(/interface/mac)[1]', 'nvarchar(100)') AS mac, [message].value('(/interface/device) [1]', 'nvarchar(100)') AS device_type, [message].value('(/interface/id) [1]', 'nvarchar(100)') AS device_id, [message].value('substring(string((/interface/id)[1]), 1, 6)', 'nvarchar(100)') AS store_id, [message].value('(/interface/terminal/unit)[1]', 'nvarchar(100)') AS unit, [message].value('(/interface/terminal/trans/event)[1]', 'nvarchar(100)') AS event_id, [message].value('(/interface/terminal/trans/data)[1]', 'nvarchar(100)') AS event_data, [message].value('substring(string((/interface/terminal/trans/data)[1]), 9, 11)', 'nvarchar(100)') AS badge, [message].value('(/interface/terminal/trans/time)[1]', 'nvarchar(100)') AS terminal_time, MessageRecievedAt_UTC AS db_time FROM [deviceManager].[TransactionLog] WHERE EventId > @EventId --WHERE MessageRecievedAt_UTC > @StartTime AND MessageRecievedAt_UTC < @EndTime ORDER BY terminal_time DESC

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  • Parsing back to 'messy' API strcuture

    - by Eric Fail
    I'm fetching data from an online database (REDcap) via API and the data gets delivered in as comma separated string like this, RAW.API <- structure("id,event_arm,name,dob,pushed_text,pushed_calc,complete\n\"01\",\"event_1_arm_1\",\"John\",\"1979-05-01\",\"\",\"\",2\n\"01\",\"event_2_arm_1\",\"John\",\"2012-09-02\",\"abc\",\"123\",1\n\"01\",\"event_3_arm_1\",\"John\",\"2012-09-10\",\"\",\"\",2\n\"02\",\"event_1_arm_1\",\"Mary\",\"1951-09-10\",\"def\",\"456\",2\n\"02\",\"event_2_arm_1\",\"Mary\",\"1978-09-12\",\"\",\"\",2\n", "`Content-Type`" = structure(c("text/html", "utf-8"), .Names = c("", "charset"))) I have this script that nicely parses it into a data frame, (df <- read.table(file = textConnection(RAW.API), header = TRUE, sep = ",", na.strings = "", stringsAsFactors = FALSE)) id event_arm name dob pushed_text pushed_calc complete 1 1 event_1_arm_1 John 1979-05-01 <NA> NA 2 2 1 event_2_arm_1 John 2012-09-02 abc 123 1 3 1 event_3_arm_1 John 2012-09-10 <NA> NA 2 4 2 event_1_arm_1 Mary 1951-09-10 def 456 2 5 2 event_2_arm_1 Mary 1978-09-12 <NA> NA 2 I then do some calculations and write them to pushed_text and pushed_calc whereafter I need to format the data back to the messy comma separated structure it came in. I imagine something like this, API.back <- `some magic command`(df, ...) identical(RAW.API, API.back) [1] TRUE Some command that can format my data from the data frame I made, df, back to the structure that the raw API-object came in, RAW.API. Any help would be very appreciated.

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  • findViewById returns null in new Intent

    - by drozzy
    I am having a problem where in the started Intent, the findViewById returns null. Is there anything special I should know about starting a new intent? It goes something like this for me: //in the MainList class Intent stuffList = new Intent(this, StuffList.class); then in the new Stuff's constructor: public class StuffList extends ListActivity { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); this.setContentView(R.layout.stuff_list); ... this.setListAdapter(new StuffAdapter(this, my_cursor)); and in the StuffAdapter I do my usual view and data retrieval. Note the line where findViewById returns null: class ViewWrapper{ View base; TextView label = null; ViewWrapper(View base){ this.base = base; } TextView getLabel(){ if(label == null){ label = (TextView)base.findViewById(R.id.my_label); // returns NULL } return label;} } class StuffAdapter extends CursorAdapter{ StuffAdapter(Context context, Cursor cursor){ super(context, cursor); } @Override public View newView(Context context, Cursor cursor, ViewGroup parent) { LayoutInflater inflater = getLayoutInflater(); View row = inflater.inflate(R.layout.stuff_list, parent, false); ViewWrapper wrapper = new ViewWrapper(row); row.setTag(wrapper); return(row); } @Override public void bindView(View row, Context context, Cursor cursor) { ViewWrapper wrapper = (ViewWrapper)row.getTag(); TextView label = wrapper.getLabel(); // also NULL //this throws exception of course label.setText(cursor.getString("title")); } } The curious thing is that in the class that calls intent (MainList class), I do Exactly the same thing (i list a bunch of objects), and it Works! however when I try to do it in an Intent - it can't seem to find the view by id.

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  • Firefox/vista not showing div tag

    - by flavour404
    Hi, I have a div tag which should be displayed at the bottom of a page given a set of circumstances. On my machine XP/IE, chrome, firefox, opera (all latest versions) the div shows up fine. But on my bosses machine, running vista with Firefox 3.6 for some reason the div tag is not showing up. However, if i go to another machine with vista and firefox the div tag shows up fine. My question is, what could have been set in firefox that would cause this div tag to now be displayed. It is there, if you resize the window then the tag flickers into view and then disappears again... <div id="savePane" style="position:absolute;left:0px;top:457px;width:100%;height:40px;border-top:#EFECDC 1px solid;padding:5px; visibility:visible;"> <table width="100%"> <tr> <td width="130" align="left"> Ad Description: </td> <td align="left"> <input type="text" id="adDescription" style="width: 270px" onfocus="skipcycle=true;loadThumbnail(<%=AdToSaveID%>);" onblur="skipcycle=false;"> </td> <td align="right"> <% 'onblur='skipcycle=false' onfocus='skipcycle=true' is needed to do not focus on SaveToFolder window when user enter data to that window but focus on that input box instead %> <input type="button" onclick="saveItemToSelectedFolder('<%=AdToSaveID%>', '<%=AdNumber%>', '<%=Sequencer%>', '<%=PageNumber%>', '<%=Section%>', '<%=Zone%>', '<%=RunDate%>', '<%=PublicationID%>')" value="Save" style="width: 70px; margin-right: 10px" /> </td> </tr> </table> Thanks, Ron.

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  • how to set SqlMapClient outside of spring xmls

    - by Omnipresent
    I have the following in my xml configurations. I would like to convert these to my code because I am doing some unit/integration testing outside of the container. xmls: <bean id="MyMapClient" class="org.springframework.orm.ibatis.SqlMapClientFactoryBean"> <property name="configLocation" value="classpath:sql-map-config-oracle.xml"/> <property name="dataSource" ref="IbatisDataSourceOracle"/> </bean> <bean id="IbatisDataSource" class="org.springframework.jndi.JndiObjectFactoryBean"> <property name="jndiName" value="jdbc/my/mydb"/> </bean> code I used to fetch stuff from above xmls: this.setSqlMapClient((SqlMapClient)ApplicationInitializer.getApplicationContext().getBean("MyMapClient")); my code (for unit testing purposes): SqlMapClientFactoryBean bean = new SqlMapClientFactoryBean(); UrlResource urlrc = new UrlResource("file:/data/config.xml"); bean.setConfigLocation(urlrc); DriverManagerDataSource dataSource = new DriverManagerDataSource(); dataSource.setDriverClassName("oracle.jdbc.OracleDriver"); dataSource.setUrl("jdbc:oracle:thin:@123.210.85.56:1522:ORCL"); dataSource.setUsername("dbo_mine"); dataSource.setPassword("dbo_mypwd"); bean.setDataSource(dataSource); SqlMapClient sql = (SqlMapClient) bean; //code fails here when the xml's are used then SqlMapClient is the class that sets up then how come I cant convert SqlMapClientFactoryBean to SqlMapClient

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  • Help with ZK component development

    - by Lucas
    I'm developing a simple component. My jar structure is: br/netsoft/zkComponents/Tef.class META-INF/MANIFEST.MF metainfo/zk/lang-addon.xml web/js/br/netsoft/zkComponents.js web/zkComponents/tef.dsp My dsp file is: <c:set var="self" value="${requestScope.arg.self}"/> <span z.type="br.netsoft.zkComponents.Tef" id="${self.uuid}" ${self.outerAttrs}${self.innerAttrs}> <applet archive="tef.jar" id="tefApplet" code="br.netsoft.applets.tef.TEFProxy" width="0px" height="0px" /> <span/> and the language-addon.xml is: <language-addon> <addon-name>componentes</addon-name> <language-name>xul/html</language-name> <component> <component-name>tef</component-name> <component-class>br.netsoft.zkComponents.Tef</component-class> <mold> <mold-name>default</mold-name> <mold-uri>~./zkComponents/tef.dsp</mold-uri> </mold> </component> </language-addon> When i try to test this component, appears a pop-up showing : " /js/br/netsoft/zkComponents.js not found" what is wrong?

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  • Deleting objects with FK constraints in Spring/Hibernate

    - by maxdj
    This seems like such a simple scenario to me, yet I cannot for the life of my find a solution online or in print. I have several objects like so (trimmed down): @Entity public class Group extends BaseObject implements Identifiable<Long> { private Long id; private String name; private Set<HiringManager> managers = new HashSet<HiringManager>(); private List<JobOpening> jobs; @ManyToMany(fetch=FetchType.EAGER) @JoinTable( name="group_hiringManager", joinColumns=@JoinColumn(name="group_id"), inverseJoinColumns=@JoinColumn(name="hiringManager_id") ) public Set<HiringManager> getManagers() { return managers; } @OneToMany(mappedBy="group", fetch=FetchType.EAGER) public List<JobOpening> getJobs() { return jobs; } } @Entity public class JobOpening extends BaseObject implements Identifiable<Long> { private Long id; private String name; private Group group; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="group_id", updatable=false, nullable=true) public Group getGroup() { return group; } } @Entity public class HiringManager extends User { @ManyToMany(mappedBy="managers", fetch=FetchType.EAGER) public Set<Group> getGroups() { return groups; } } Say I want to delete a Group object. Now there are dependencies on it in the JobOpening table and in the group_hiringManager table, which cause the delete function to fail. I don't want to cascade the delete, because the managers have other groups, and the jobopenings can be groupless. I have tried overriding the remove() function of my GroupManager to remove the dependencies, but it seems like no matter what I do they persist, and the delete fails! What is the right way to remove this object?

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  • Location redirect - is tracking possible ?

    - by Gerald Ferreira
    Hi there, I was wondering if someone can help me, I have the following script that redirect users to an affiliate link when they click on a banner. <?php $targets = array( 'site1' => 'http://www.site1.com/', 'site2' => 'http://www.site2.com/', 'site3' => 'http://www.site3.com/', 'site4' => 'http://www.site4.com/', ); if (isset($targets[$_GET['id']])) { header('Location: '.$targets[$_GET['id']]); exit; } ?> Is it possible to track when a user hits the banner telling me the referer site as well as the ip address of the person clicking on the banner. hmmmm something like pixel tracking? I have tried to add an iframe that does the tracking but it creates an error Hope it makes sense Thanks! This is more or less how I would have done it in asp <% var Command1 = Server.CreateObject ("ADODB.Command"); Command1.ActiveConnection = MM_cs_stats_STRING; Command1.CommandText = "INSERT INTO stats.g_stats (g_stats_ip, g_stats_referer) VALUES (?, ? ) "; Command1.Parameters.Append(Command1.CreateParameter("varg_stats_ip", 200, 1, 20, (String(Request.ServerVariables("REMOTE_ADDR")) != "undefined" && String(Request.ServerVariables("REMOTE_ADDR")) != "") ? String(Request.ServerVariables("REMOTE_ADDR")) : String(Command1__varg_stats_ip))); Command1.Parameters.Append(Command1.CreateParameter("varg_stats_referer", 200, 1, 255, (String(Request.ServerVariables("HTTP_REFERER")) != "undefined" && String(Request.ServerVariables("HTTP_REFERER")) != "") ? String(Request.ServerVariables("HTTP_REFERER")) : String(Command1__varg_stats_referer))); Command1.CommandType = 1; Command1.CommandTimeout = 0; Command1.Prepared = true; Command1.Execute(); %> I am not sure how to do it in php - unfortunately for me the hosting is only supporting php so I am more or less clueless on how to do it in php I was thinking if I can somehow call a picture I can do it with pixel tracking in anoter asp page, on another server. Hope this makes better sense

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  • Rails NoMethodError in loop when method exists

    - by Kevin Whitaker
    Good day all. I'm running into a bit of a problem getting a script running on my production environment, even though it works just fine on my dev box. I've verified that all the requisite gems and such are the same version. I should mention that the script is intended to be run with the script/runner command. Here is a super-condensed version of what I'm trying to do, centered around the part that's broken: def currentDeal marketTime = self.convertToTimeZone(Time.new) deal = Deal.find(:first, :conditions = ["start_time ? AND market_id = ? AND published = ?", marketTime, marketTime, self.id, 1]) return deal end markets = Market.find(all) markets.each do |market| deal = market.currentDeal puts deal.subject end Now convertToTimeZone is a method attached to the model. So, this code works just fine on my dev machine, as stated. However, attempting to run it on my production machine results in: undefined method `subject' for nil:NilClass (NoMethodError) If, however, I go into the console on the production box and do this: def currentDeal marketTime = self.convertToTimeZone(Time.new) deal = Deal.find(:first, :conditions = ["start_time ? AND market_id = ? AND published = ?", marketTime, marketTime, self.id, 1]) return deal end market = Market.find(1) deal = market.currentDeal puts deal.subject It returns the correct value, no problem. So what is going on? This is on rails v 2.3.5, on both machines. Thanks for any help

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  • .NET MVC custom routing with empty parameters

    - by user135498
    Hi All, I have a .net mvc with the following routes: routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}/{firstname}/{middlename}/{lastname}/{city}/{state}/{address}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = (string)null, middlename = (string)null, lastname = (string)null, city = (string)null, state = (string)null, address = (string)null, SearchType = SearchType.PeopleSearch, InputType = InputType.Name }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = "", middlename = "", lastname = "", city = "", state = "", address = "" }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = "", middlename = "", lastname = "", city = "", state = "", address = "", SearchType = SearchType.PeopleSearch, InputType = InputType.Name }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Account", action = "LogOn", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); The following request works fine: http://localhost:2608/Lookups/PeopleSearch/Name/john/w/smith/seattle/wa/123 main This request does not work: http://localhost:2608/Lookups/PeopleSearch/Name/john//smith//wa/ Not all requests will have all paramters and I would like empty parameters to be passed to the method as empty string or null. Where am I going wrong? The method: public ActionResult Search(string firstname, string middlename, string lastname, string city, string state, string address, SearchType searchtype, InputType inputtype) { SearchRequest r = new SearchRequest { Firstname = firstname, Middlename = middlename, Lastname = lastname, City = city, State = state, Address = address, SearchType = searchtype, InputType = inputtype }; return View(r); }

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  • How can I make an even more random number in ActionScript 2.0

    - by Theo
    I write a piece of software that runs inside banner ads which generates millions of session IDs every day. For a long time I've known that the random number generator in Flash is't random enough to generate sufficiently unique IDs, so I've employed a number of tricks to get even more random numbers. However, in ActionScript 2.0 it's not easy, and I'm seeing more and more collisions, so I wonder if there is something I've overlooked. As far as I can tell the problem with Math.random() is that it's seeded by the system time, and when you have sufficient numbers of simultaneous attempts you're bound to see collisions. In ActionScript 3.0 I use the System.totalMemory, but there's no equivalent in ActionScript 2.0. AS3 also has Font.enumerateFonts, and a few other things that are different from system to system. On the server side I also add the IP address to the session ID, but even that isn't enough (for example, many large companies use a single proxy server and that means that thousands of people all have the same IP -- and since they tend to look at the same sites, with the same ads, roughly at the same time, there are many session ID collisions). What I need isn't something perfectly random, just something that is random enough to dilute the randomness I get from Math.random(). Think of it this way: there is a certain chance that two people will generate the same random number sequence using only Math.random(), but the chance of two people generating the same sequence and having, say, the exact same list of fonts is significantly lower. I cannot rely on having sufficient script access to use ExternalInterface to get hold of things like the user agent, or the URL of the page. I don't need suggestions of how to do it in AS3, or any other system, only AS2 -- using only what's available in the standard APIs. The best I've come up with so far is to use the list of microphones (Microphone.names), but I've also tried to make some fingerprinting using some of the properties in System.capabilities, I'm not sure how much randomness I can get out of that though so I'm not using that at the moment. I hope I've overlooked something.

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  • Mysql InnoDB performance optimization and indexing

    - by Davide C
    Hello everybody, I have 2 databases and I need to link information between two big tables (more than 3M entries each, continuously growing). The 1st database has a table 'pages' that stores various information about web pages, and includes the URL of each one. The column 'URL' is a varchar(512) and has no index. The 2nd database has a table 'urlHops' defined as: CREATE TABLE urlHops ( dest varchar(512) NOT NULL, src varchar(512) DEFAULT NULL, timestamp timestamp NOT NULL DEFAULT CURRENT_TIMESTAMP, KEY dest_key (dest), KEY src_key (src) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 Now, I need basically to issue (efficiently) queries like this: select p.id,p.URL from db1.pages p, db2.urlHops u where u.src=p.URL and u.dest=? At first, I thought to add an index on pages(URL). But it's a very long column, and I already issue a lot of INSERTs and UPDATEs on the same table (way more than the number of SELECTs I would do using this index). Other possible solutions I thought are: -adding a column to pages, storing the md5 hash of the URL and indexing it; this way I could do queries using the md5 of the URL, with the advantage of an index on a smaller column. -adding another table that contains only page id and page URL, indexing both columns. But this is maybe a waste of space, having only the advantage of not slowing down the inserts and updates I execute on 'pages'. I don't want to slow down the inserts and updates, but at the same time I would be able to do the queries on the URL efficiently. Any advice? My primary concern is performance; if needed, wasting some disk space is not a problem. Thank you, regards Davide

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  • JMS template credentials default value

    - by Gandalf StormCrow
    Hello everyone I'm trying to work with jboss messaging, does anyone knows the default value for these java.naming.security.principal and java.naming.security.credentials or how can I set them? <bean id="jndiTemplate" class="org.springframework.jndi.JndiTemplate"> <property name="environment"> <props> <prop key="java.naming.factory.initial">org.jnp.interfaces.NamingContextFactory</prop> <prop key="java.naming.provider.url">jnp://localhost:8080</prop> <prop key="java.naming.factory.url.pkgs">org.jboss.naming:org.jnp.interfaces</prop> <prop key="java.naming.security.principal">value</prop> <prop key="java.naming.security.credentials">value</prop> </props> </property> </bean> I'm trying to instansiate the <bean id="connectionFactory" class="org.springframework.jndi.JndiObjectFactoryBean"> I'm guessing that this is the cause why jboss timeouts when starts

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  • error on connecting to the server : socket io is not defined

    - by max
    i know there's been couple of question about the same problem , i've already check them . i have very simple node.js chat app i have a server running on 8000 port and it works fine my client pages are html , they are running on apache and i'm using socket.io to connect them to the server and it works fine on the local host but when i upload the app on the server i keep on getting this error in the firebug io is not defined var socket = io.connect('http://atenak.com:8000/'); or sometimes it doesn't show that but when i try to broadcast message from cliend i get this error : socket is undefined socket.emit('msg', { data: msg , user:'max' }); the only difference is i've changed the localhost with atenak.com ! here is my html code var socket = io.connect('http://atenak.com:8000/'); var user = 'jack'; socket.on('newmsg', function (data) { if(data.user == user ) { $('#container').html(data.data); } }); function brodcast(){ var msg = $('#fild').val(); socket.emit('msg', { data: msg , user:'max' }); } </script> </head> <body> <div id="container"> </div> <input id="fild" type="text"> <input name="" type="button" onClick="brodcast();"> </body> i have included the sockt.io.js and server is running ok which means socket.io is installed on the server here is the live page http://atenak.com/client.html

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  • How to hide some nodes in Richfaces Tree (do not render nodes by condition)?

    - by VestniK
    I have a tree of categories and courses in my SEAM application. Courses may be active and inactive. I want to be able to show only active or all courses in my tree. I've decided to always build complete tree in my PAGE scope component since building this tree is quite expensive operation. I have boolean flag courseActive in the data wrapped by TreeNode<T>. Now I can't find the way to show courses node only if this flag is true. The best result I've achieved with the following code: <h:outputLabel for="showInactiveCheckbox" value="show all courses: "/> <h:selectBooleanCheckbox id="showInactiveCheckbox" value="#{categoryTreeEditorModel.showAllCoursesInTree}"> <a4j:support event="onchange" reRender="categoryTree"/> </h:selectBooleanCheckbox> <rich:tree id="categoryTree" value="#{categoryTree}" var="item" switchType="ajax" ajaxSubmitSelection="true" reRender="categoryTree,controls" adviseNodeOpened="#{categoryTreeActions.adviseRootOpened}" nodeSelectListener="#{categoryTreeActions.processSelection}" nodeFace="#{item.typeName}"> <rich:treeNode type="Category" icon="..." iconLeaf="..."> <h:outputText value="#{item.title}"/> </rich:treeNode> <rich:treeNode type="Course" icon="..." iconLeaf="..." rendered="#{item.courseActive or categoryTreeEditorModel.showAllCoursesInTree}"> <h:outputText rendered="#{item.courseActive}" value="#{item.title}"/> <h:outputText rendered="#{not item.courseActive}" value="#{item.title}" style="color:#{a4jSkin.inactiveTextColor}"/> </rich:treeNode> </rich:tree> the only problem is if some node is not listed in any rich:treeNode it just still shown with title obtained by Object.toString() method insted of being hidden. Does anybody know how to not show some nodes in the Richfases tree according to some condition?

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  • Is this the right way to organize my database tables?

    - by Moss
    So I'm making a website that allows users to build contact lists. So their are users, the users have lists, and the lists have contacts. It seems to me that I need 3 tables for this but I just want to make sure. There would be a User table of course, and then a "List of Lists" table that has the username, and listname, as primary key along with whatever other info we want to attach to the lists as a whole. Finally, for lack of a better word, the List table which would again have the username/listname p.k., then the contact ID and notes and such that the user attaches to that contact on that specific list. I hope that is a clear explanation. For some reason I feel unsure about this arrangement. For one thing if the website becomes popular the List table could swell to billions of rows. And it also feels a little weird that everybody's list info is all jumbled up in the same table. I suppose I could create separate tables for each user and even for each list but that seems like a bad idea for other reasons. My db explanation assumes I can use foreign keys on my tables which at the moment isn't actually an option. If I can't get InnoDB tables enabled I will probably use ID's for the lists instead of depending on a compound key. Maybe I should do this anyway?

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  • Pass checkbox values with Jquery to PHP and display result in div

    - by user1343955
    I want to filter realtime results with jQuery (just like on this site http://shop.www.hi.nl/hi/mcsmambo.p?M5NextUrl=RSRCH). So when someones checks a checkbox the results should update realtime (in a div). Now I'm a newbie with jQuery and I've tried lots of examples but I can't get it to work. Here's my code, could anyone tell what I'm doing wrong? Thank you very much! HTML <div id="c_b"> Kleur:<br /> <input type="checkbox" name="kleur[1]" value="Blauw"> Blauw <br /> <input type="checkbox" name="kleur[2]" value="Wit"> Wit <br /> <input type="checkbox" name="kleur[3]" value="Zwart"> Zwart <br /> <br /> Operating System:<br /> <input type="checkbox" name="os[1]" value="Android"> Android <br /> <input type="checkbox" name="os[2]" value="Apple iOS"> Apple iOS <br /> </div> <div id="myResponse">Here should be the result</div> jQuery function updateTextArea() { var allVals = []; $('#c_b :checked').each(function() { allVals.push($(this).val()); }); var dataString = $(allVals).serialize(); $.ajax({ type:'POST', url:'/wp-content/themes/u-design/filteropties.php', data: dataString, success: function(data){ $('#myResponse').html(data); } }); } $(document).ready(function() { $('#c_b input').click(updateTextArea); updateTextArea(); }); PHP //Just to see if the var passing works echo var_export($_POST);

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  • CSS :hover not working

    - by Babiker
    <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN"> <html> <head> <style type='text/css'> #body{ margin:0px; } #headerDiv{ background-color:#e0e2eb; } .header_innerHeaderDivs{ border:solid 1px gray; display:inline; font:normal 11px tahoma; color:black; } .header_innerHeaderDivs:hover{ padding:4px; } </style> </head> <body id='body'> <div id='headerDiv'> <div class='header_innerHeaderDivs'>Comapny</div> <div class='header_innerHeaderDivs'>Edit</div> <div class='header_innerHeaderDivs'>Inventory</div> <div class='header_innerHeaderDivs'>Logout</div> </div> </body> </html>

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  • Windows Mobile : How to bind dropdown's selectedvalue to a column in table A and the list data to a

    - by Rob
    Hi, I am trying to learn the basics of Windows Mobile development against SQL CE and have come across a basic problem. I have two tables. One called Customers that stores customer info and has an identity column called ID as the primary key. The other table is called Orders which has a column called CustomerID (the FK constraint is present). I have added a DataSet to the project that contains both tables and have autogenerated the edit/view forms. This has produced a text control for the CustomerID column in the Order table for the new/edit form and I deleted it and replaced it with a dropdown list. Then, using the 'Advanced' databinding options (in Properties) I set the datasource of the list to the Customers table setting the value to the ID field and the text to the CustomerName field. I then set the SelectedValue of the list box to the CustomerID field of the Orders dataset. So far so good. When I run the app in the emulator and view the 'New' form for Orders the Customer dropdown is indeed populated with a list of customer names and I can select one and happily create a new order successfully. This is confirmed when I see the order appear in the Orders Grid form. However, when I then click on the order in the grid and then select 'Edit' the order loads but the dropdown always shows the first customer in the list and doesn't seem to bind the SelectedValue to the Orders dataset CustomerID field. Now I am an ASP.NET guy and normally hand craft the DAL and it's binding to the UI so I'm not entirely sure where to look to investigate what is going wrong here as this is all generated code. I am sure it is something very trivial but any pointers would be appreciated. My gut feeling is that the SelectedValue and the Customers.CustomerID values do not match for some reason? Many thanks, Rob.

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  • PHP Post Count in Forum

    - by Chris
    I'm currently desiging a forum application, I considered using a premade but decided against it as it's useful for me to learn some of the techniques. So I've written a fairly full featured forum... great. One of the problems I want to solve is to include user data for each post, at the minute the post table includes the poster ID (obviously) and I added the poster's username at a later date so I didn't have to query the User DB for X number of posts in a thread. However, it's become apparent I now want to do this, usernames don't need to update retrospectively, however avatars, sigs, and especially post counts need to update actively, so data in some form needs keeping up to date somewhere... What would be a good way of implementing this? I obviously don't want to include any more user data on the Posts DB table than necessary, but I'm struggling to find an easy way to do this short of querying the DB for each post in a thread, which is potentially going to create a lot of traffic. How have other people solved this, I've been examining the code on some other open source apps but I can't find what I'm looking for. Is it possible to select multiple records in one query? In which case I could build an array dynamically on each page request (eg 'SQL blah blah' then a for each loop to insert the ID's). Could I join the tables each time? Do I submit a query for each post? Hmm.

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  • JDO difficulties in retrieving persistent vector

    - by Michael Omer
    I know there are already some posts regarding this subject, but although I tried using them as a reference, I am still stuck. I have a persistent class as follows: @PersistenceCapable(identityType = IdentityType.APPLICATION) public class GameObject implements IMySerializable{ @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) protected Key m_databaseKey; @NotPersistent private final static int END_GAME_VAR = -1000; @Persistent(defaultFetchGroup = "true") protected GameObjectSet m_set; @Persistent protected int m_databaseType = IDatabaseAccess.TYPE_NONE; where GameObjectSet is: @PersistenceCapable(identityType = IdentityType.APPLICATION) @FetchGroup(name = "mySet", members = {@Persistent(name = "m_set")}) public class GameObjectSet { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) private Key id; @Persistent private Vector<GameObjectSetPair> m_set; and GameObjectSetPair is: @PersistenceCapable(identityType = IdentityType.APPLICATION) public class GameObjectSetPair { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) private Key id; @Persistent private String key; @Persistent(defaultFetchGroup = "true") private GameObjectVar value; When I try to fetch the entire structure by fetching the GameObject, the set doesn't have any elements (they are all null) I tried adding the fetching group to the PM, but to no avail. This is my fetching code Vector<GameObject> ret = new Vector<GameObject>(); PersistenceManager pm = PMF.get().getPersistenceManager(); pm.getFetchPlan().setMaxFetchDepth(-1); pm.getFetchPlan().addGroup("mySet"); Query myQuery = pm.newQuery(GameObject.class); myQuery.setFilter("m_databaseType == objectType"); myQuery.declareParameters("int objectType"); try { List<GameObject> res = (List<GameObject>)myQuery.execute(objectType); ret = new Vector<GameObject>(res); for (int i = 0; i < ret.size(); i++) { ret.elementAt(i).getSet(); ret.elementAt(i).getSet().touchSet(); } } catch (Exception e) { } finally { pm.close(); } Does anyone have any idea? Thanks Mike

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  • Using Client Application Services in windows forms not working

    - by Nickson
    i am trying to implement asp.net membership, profile and role based security in a windows application by configuring client Application Services for my windows forms application. I have followed both these articles http://www.dotnetbips.com/articles/e863aa3c-0dd6-468d-bd35-120a334c5030.aspx and http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb546195.aspx step-by-step but for some reason i can't get the authentication working. I have a deployed intranet asp.net website which is already using an asp.net membership database for authentication and want to use that same database for authenitcation in my windows forms application. The site URL is http://myServer_Name:My_Port and i am specifying that URL as the both the Authentication service location and Roles service location in the windows application services property tab. But in the windows application login form, when i say Dim msg As String = "Welcome " If Not Membership.ValidateUser(UsernameTextBox.Text), PasswordTextBox.Text)) Then MessageBox.Show("Invalid User ID or Password!") Else msg = msg + UsernameTextBox.Text End If i get my "Invalid User ID or Password!" message even when i supply a valid user name with the corresponding password. i am able to login with the same credentials from the asp.net site. How can i test if the Authentication service location is being reached from the windows application?? Or what other information can i provide here such that one is able to help me get this working??

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  • LINQ to SQL - Why can't you use a WHERE after an ORDER BY?

    - by MCS
    The following code: // select all orders var orders = from o in FoodOrders where o.STATUS = 1 order by o.ORDER_DATE descending select o; // if customer id is specified, only select orders from specific customer if (customerID!=null) { orders = orders.Where(o => customerID.Equals(o.CUSTOMER_ID)); } gives me the following error: Cannot implicitly convert type 'System.Linq.IQueryable' to 'System.Linq.IOrderedQueryable'. An explicit conversion exists (are you missing a cast?) I fixed the error by doing the sorting at the end: // select all orders var orders = from o in FoodOrders where o.STATUS = 1 select o; // if customer id is specified, only select orders from specific customer if (customerID!=null) { orders = orders.Where(o => customerID.Equals(o.CUSTOMER_ID)); } // I'm forced to do the ordering here orders = orders.OrderBy(o => o.ORDER_DATE).Reverse(); But I'm wondering why is this limitation in place? What's the reason the API was designed in such a way that you can't add a where constraint after using an order by operator?

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