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  • C++ Eclipse error class mynamespace::mynamespace

    - by user2969329
    I'm new to C++, coming from a Java and web programming background. I specified a header file, with class definition. The class and the namespace have the same name. I do not know if that causes this issue, eclipse is very unspecific. Here is the World.h file: `/* * World.h * * Created on: 5 nov. 2013 * Author: Mo */ #ifndef WORLD_H_ #define WORLD_H_ #include "../../lib/tinyxml/tinyxml.h" #include "Layer.h" namespace World { class World { private: Layer layers[]; public: World(); virtual ~World(); TiXmlElement toXML(); }; } /* namespace World */ #endif /* WORLD_H_ */` The error occurs in the class definition. The only thing eclipse shows is: class World::World I have been googling for the last day and a half, and haven't found anything similar. In other classes, World is not seen as a type: "World" does not name a type. What have I done wrong? Help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • How-to diagnose and fix such "on-site" crash of dotnet application?

    - by Dmitriy Matveev
    Hello! I'm working on some application which has auto-update function. The implemented idea is simple as following: - There are some "starter" application which is installed to "Program Files/whatever/...". It's the application which is intended to be started by user. - Each time the "starter" application is executed it checks server for updates and downloads it to "%APPDATA%/some/...". And then it starts some application from that folder. Above approach is working on my development machine (running Vista) and on some other machines under XP, but under some different machine (running Windows 7) it isn't working. When "starter" executes the real application it crashes with some unknown problem (Signature = System.UnauthorizedAccess). When real application is executed manually from %APPDATA%/some/ folder then everything is working fine. I've tried to set same working directory in ProcessStartInfo, so "starter" will also execute real application in that folder, but this isn't helped me. How can I diagnose and/or fix that issue?

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  • simplexml object node iteration

    - by MorbidWrath
    I have an xml file that I'm parsing with php's simplexml, but I'm having an issue with an iteration through nodes. the xml: <channel> <item> <title>Title1</title> <category>Cat1</category> </item> <item> <title>Title2</title> <category>Cat1</category> </item> <item> <title>Title3</title> <category>Cat2</category> </item> </channel> my counting function: public function cat_count($cat){ $count = 0; $items = $this->xml->channel->item; $size = count($size); for($i=0;$i<$size;$i++){ if($items[$i]->category == $cat){ $count++; } } return $count; } Am I overlooking an error in my code, or is there another preferred method for iterating through the nodes? I've also used a foreach and while statement with no luck, so I'm at a loss. Any suggestions?

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  • Array indexOf implentation for Internet Explorer

    - by Daemon
    There are plenty of solutions on how to get the indexOf implementation into the Array prototype so that it works under Internet Explorer, however I've stumbled upon an issue that doesn't seem to be addressed anywhere I've looked so far. Using the pretty well agreed upon implementation at MDC, I have the following code that's being problematic now: // indexOf support for IE (from MDC) if (!Array.prototype.indexOf) { Array.prototype.indexOf = function(elt /*, from*/) { var len = this.length >>> 0; var from = Number(arguments[1]) || 0; from = (from < 0) ? Math.ceil(from) : Math.floor(from); if (from < 0) from += len; for (; from < len; from++) { if (from in this && this[from] === elt) return from; } return -1; }; } var i = [1,2,3,4]; for (j in i) { alert(i[j]); } I am expecting to receive 4 alerts, each one containing one of the elements of the array. In Firefox and Chrome, that's exactly what I see, however in IE8 I get an additional alert containing the indexOf function code. What can be done to avoid this?

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  • Slideshow in Javascript without framework, animation?

    - by aaron
    The issue I am having is fairly complicated to explain. I have written up a javascript that displays an image slideshow, and it works fairly well, despite using up more resources than I would like // imgArr[] is populated before var i = 0; var pageLoaded = 0; window.onload = function() {pageLoaded = 1;} function loaded(i,f) { if (document.getElementById(i) != null) f(); else if (!pageLoaded) setTimeout('loaded(\''+i+'\','+f+')',100); } } function displaySlideshow() { document.getElementById(destinationId).innerHTML = '<div id="slideWindow"><img src="'+imgArr[i]+'" />' + '<img src="'+imgArr[i + 1]+'" /></div>'; setTimeout('displaySlideshow()',1000*3); i++; if (i >= imgArr.length - 1) i = 0; } loaded(destinationId,displaySlideshow); So, this script dynamically adds two images to a HTML element, and it is wrapped in a div. The div is styled with the height and width of the image, with the overflow (the second image) hidden. The second image is below the first, and the slideshow is meant to go from RIGHT to LEFT. My inquiry is twofold: 1) Is there a more efficient way of doing this? 2) How would I animate the images? Would I need to put the second image on the right of the first with CSS somehow, and then set a timer to pull the images (via a style) leftward?

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  • Migrating MachineKey from iis6 on old server to iis7 on new server

    - by MaseBase
    I am migrating our hosting environment to a totally new data center with new boxes and hardware and software... the whole deal. Our website cookies are encrypted using the machineKey, so when I make a request to my domain and point it to the new web server (by overriding the local hosts file), I get an error because the cookie cannot be decrypted, since the Machine Key is different. I'd like to avoid any problems a frequent user might have when they arrive at the new server for the first time. To the best of my knowledge, at this point I think I need to set the same MachineKey from our current servers on our new servers. This way when past visitors with a cookie arrive at our website served by the new server, the cookie will be decrypted properly with the MachineKey it was encrypted with and then log them in properly. My question is where do I find my MachineKey value (in IIS 6 win2k3 server) so I can use that value to set it statically on my new servers? I've pulled up my machine.config file, but it doesn't specify the key, it only specifies a configSection where the key can be defined. It's not in my web.config for the app or elsewhere. I did find this great article on some MachineKey and Web Garden woes (which could explain some other bugs I've been experiencing with regard to the machineKey). Update I am back to this issue and am still faced with a similar problem. I have the MachineKey auto-generated on the IIS6 server but I need to get that exact key so I can set it explicitly and not have it auto-generated anymore. Any help is appreciated...

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  • Dropdown not working in some IE 6 browsers

    - by James Thomas
    We unfortunately find ourselves having to support our product in IE 6 because some of our largest users use it. One of them called today and told me that one of the dropdowns doesn't work when he clicks on it - it simply selects the first item. I checked the markup and the entire contents of the select control are being sent: <select onchange="SDateFilter_S('#ctlDateRange')" size="1" name="ctlDateRange" style="width:100px;"> <option selected="selected" value="0"> All Dates </option><option value="1"> Within </option><option value="2"> Before </option><option value="3"> After </option><option value="4"> Between </option><option value="5"> Last </option><option value="6"> Since </option> </select> This is done in ASP .NET but I am fairly certain the issue isn't with ASP .NET as when I try it in my copy of IE 6, it works correctly. Do you have any idea what would cause a dropdown list in some copies of IE 6 to effectively not work?

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  • DropDown Box + Update Panel

    - by bExplosion
    Hey I'm having an issue updating a dropdown box inside of an update panel. Works perfectly if the page posts back, but I'd prefer seemless loading: Here my form code: <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" EnablePartialRendering="true" runat="server"> </asp:ScriptManager> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="ajaxClassifications" UpdateMode="Conditional" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <td style="font-size: small; color: #003853; width: 50%;"> <asp:DropDownList AutoPostBack="true" ID="ddlClassifications" runat="server" Width="99%" Style="font-size: medium" OnSelectedIndexChanged="ddlClassifications_SelectedIndexChanged"> </asp:DropDownList> </td> <td style="font-size: small; color: #003853; width: 50%;"> <asp:DropDownList ID="ddlSubClassifications" runat="server" Width="99%" Style="font-size: medium"> </asp:DropDownList> </td> </ContentTemplate> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="ddlClassifications" EventName="SelectedIndexChanged" /> </Triggers> </asp:UpdatePanel> Heres the code in my code behind: protected void ddlClassifications_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { ddlSubClassifications.Items.Clear(); getSubClassifications(int.Parse(ddlClassifications.SelectedValue)); } Is there something I am missing here? Thanks in advance!

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  • Finding out the windows group by virtue of which a user is able to access a database in sql server?

    - by Raghu Dodda
    There is a SQL Server 2005 database with mixed-mode authentication. Among others, we have the following logins on the server: our-domain\developers-group-1, and our-domain\developers-group-2 which are AD groups. The our-domain\developer-group-2 is added to the sysadmin role on the server, by virture of which all domain users of that group can access any database as SQL Server implictly maps the sysadmin role to the dbo user in each database. There are two users our-domain\good-user and our-domain\bad-user The issue is the following: Both the good-user and the bad-user have the exact same AD group memberships. They are both members of our-domain\developers-group-1 and our-domain\developers-group-2. The good-user is able to access all the databases, and the bad-user is not. The bad-user is able to login, but he is unable access any databases. By the way, I am the good-user. How do I go about finding out why? Here's what I tried so far: When I do print current_user, I get dbo When I do print system_user, I get my-domain\good-user When I do select * from fn_my_permissions(NULL, 'SERVER'), I see permissions. But if do execute as user='my-domain\good-user'; select * from fn_my_permissions(NULL, 'SERVER'), I dont see any permisisons. And When I do, execute as user='my-domain\bad-user'; select * from fn_my_permissions(NULL, 'SERVER'), I dont see any permisisons. Also, I was wondering if there is a sql command that will tell me, "hey! the current database user is able to access this database because he is a member such-and-such ad-group, which is a login that is mapped to such-and-such user in this database".

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  • Android: New app not showing on a sprint phone...

    - by Allan
    I uploaded my app to the Android Market last week and people have been purchasing it with no problems. My carrier is T-Mobile. As soon as I uploaded my app to the Market I got on my phone (Nexus One), searched for it, and there it was - instantly! (Is that because I have a google phone?) My friends G1 found it instantly also. BUT, another friend has a Sprint Moment phone and when he tried to search for it - it just wasn't there - like it didn't exist. I then called T-Mobile and Sprint representatives and found some information that I didn't know. The Sprint dude said that Sprint goes to some sort of massive Android Market Database and that's how Sprint knows about new apps and is then able to list them. New apps are not instantly shown on Sprint phones, you have to wait till their database updates to Android's database. At least that is what I thought they were trying to say to me. Has anyone else come across this issue and/or does anyone know how long Sprint takes to update their database for new Android apps? Do other carriers follow these methods?

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  • Help with a loop to return UIImage from possible matches

    - by Canada Dev
    I am parsing a list of locations and would like to return a UIImage with a flag based on these locations. I have a string with the location. This can be many different locations and I would like to search this string for possible matches in an NSArray, and when there's a match, it should find the appropriate filename in an NSDictionary. Here's an example of the NSDictionary and NSArray: NSDictionary *dict = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: @"franceFlag", @"france", @"greeceFlag", @"greece", @"spainFlag", @"spain", @"norwayFlag", @"norway", nil]; NSArray *array = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: @"france" @"greece" @"spain" @"portugal" @"ireland" @"norway", nil]; Obviously I'll have a lot more countries and flags in both. Here's what I have got to so far: -(UIImage *)flagFromOrigin:(NSString *)locationString { NSRange range; for (NSString *arrayString in countryArray) { range = [locationString rangeOfString:arrayString]; if (range.location != NSNotFound) { return [UIImage imageWithContentsOfFile:[[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:[dictionary objectForKey: arrayString] ofType:@"png"]]; } } return nil; } Now, the above doesn't actually work. I am missing something (and perhaps not even doing it right in the first place) The issue is, the locationString could have several locations in the same country, described something like this "Barcelona, Spain", "Madrid, Spain", "North Spain", etc., but I just want to retrieve "Spain" in this case. (Also, notice caps for each country). Basically, I want to search the locationString I pass into the method for a possible match with one of the countries listed in the NSArray. If/When one is found, it should continue into the NSDictionary and grab the appropriate flag based on the correct matched string from the array. I believe the best way would then to take the string from the array, as this would be a stripped-out version of the location. Any help to point me in the right direction for the last bit is greatly appreciated.

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  • c# How to find if two objects are equal

    - by Simon G
    Hi, I'm needing to know the best way to compare two objects and to find out if there equal. I'm overriding both GethashCode and Equals. So a basic class looks like: public class Test { public int Value { get; set; } public string String1 { get; set; } public string String2 { get; set; } public override int GetHashCode() { return Value ^ String1.GetHashCode() ^ String2.GetHashCode(); } public override bool Equals( object obj ) { return GetHashCode() == obj.GetHashCode(); } } So for testing purposes I created two objects: Test t = new Test() { Value = 1, String1 ="One", String2 = "One" }; Test t2 = new Test() { Value = 1, String1 = "Two", String2 = "Two" }; bool areEqual = t.Equals( t2 ); In testing this areEqual returns true event though both objects are different. I realise this is because String1 and String2 are the same value in each object and thus cancels each other out when hashing. Is there a better way off hashing object that the method I have that will resolve my issue?

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  • Socket select() Handling Abrupt Disconnections

    - by Genesis
    I am currently trying to fix a bug in a proxy server I have written relating to the socket select() call. I am using the Poco C++ libraries (using SocketReactor) and the issue is actually in the Poco code which may be a bug but I have yet to receive any confirmation of this from them. What is happening is whenever a connection abruptly terminates the socket select() call is returning immediately which is what I believe it is meant to do? Anyway, it returns all of the disconnected sockets within the readable set of file descriptors but the problem is that an exception "Socket is not connected" is thrown when Poco tries to fire the onReadable event handler which is where I would be putting the code to deal with this. Given that the exception is silently caught and the onReadable event is never fired, the select() call keeps returning immediately resulting in an infinite loop in the SocketReactor. I was considering modifying the Poco code so that rather than catching the exception silently it fires a new event called onDisconnected or something like that so that a cleanup can be performed. My question is, are there any elegant ways of determining whether a socket has closed abnormally using select() calls? I was thinking of using the exception message to determine when this has occured but this seems dirty to me.

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  • CherryPy always returning HTTP 200 [closed]

    - by DarkArctic
    I'm having a bit of a problem when browsing to a non-existent resource. I get a response code of 200 instead of 404. I'm using the MethodDispatcher and I have a class that overloads the __getattr__ method to instantiate a resource if a child exists or to return AttributeError if one doesn't. My class is always returning the AttributeError correctly, but the data I actually get is always from the last good resource. Here's a simplified (except for __getattr__) version of my class: class BaseResource(object): exposed = True def __init__(self, name): self.children = [] # Pretend this has child resources def __getattr__(self, name): if name in self._children: uuid, application, obj_type, server = self._children[name] try: resource = getattr(app[application], obj_type) except AttributeError as e: raise cherrypy.HTTPError(500, e) return resource(uuid) else: raise AttributeError('Child with name \'{}\' could not be found.'.format(name)) def GET(self): cherrypy.log.error('*** {} not found, raising AttributeError'.format(name)) return 'GET request for {}'.format(self._name) So fetching I get the following when I browse to the following resources: http://localhost:8000/users - This resource exists, so it returns it correctly. http://localhost:8000/users/fake - This returns the "users" resource giving an HTTP 200. http://localhost:8000/users/fake/reallyfake - This returns the "users" resource again. So my question is, where can I start looking to find out why my code isn't returning a 404 for a non-existent resource. I'm sure I've done something wrong, but I'm not sure what. Whatever I did wrong I've undone and I'm now getting a 404 returned correctly. I'm sorry I can't give any detail on what the issue was, but I'm honestly not sure what I did.

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  • Recover lost code from compiled apk

    - by AlexRamallo
    I have an issue here..and its making me really nervous. I was working on this game, and it was going great, so I took a copy of it on my laptop to work do some work while away from my computer. long story short, hard-drive failure + poor back ups led to me losing a very important class. Is there a way to decompile the apk to retrieve the bit of code that was lost? It isn't overly complicated or sophisticated, its just that its impossible to re-write it without reading every. single. line. of. code. in the entire application since it initializes a LOT of classes and loads a bunch of stuff in a specific way. With a quick google search I was able to find apktool, which decompiles it into a bunch of .smali files, which I don't think were designed for human reading. All I need to recover is one very big method in the class. I found the smali file that contains it and I think I found the line where it starts. something like .method public declared-synchronized load(Lcom/X/X/game/X;)I Anyone help would be appreciated since I would have to scrap the entire game without this method.

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  • Passing objects across Appdomains

    - by MUSTAQ
    My issue is similar to the one posted in "http://stackoverflow.com/questions/981773/moving-objects-across-appdomains-in-net". In one of my application, I am creating a separate appdomain. I need to create an instance of a class (Note: this class is derived by MarshalByRefObject) in my parent domain and invoke a MethodA in that instance. This instance is created using "CreateInstanceAndUnwrap". The problem is that this MethodA takes objects of type class as an argument. These objects are not created in the MethodB where i created the appdomain. It was passed as an argument to the MethodB where i create the appdomain. So is it necessary to create a new instance of these objects using "CreateInstanceAndUnwrap" before passing it to the created domain. Not doing this gives me an error in the created domain mentioning that "MyClass object has no attribute foo" during some invocation. Please let me know how to pass the objects across appdomains and execute the method. My statements might be confusing, please let me know for any specific details required.

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  • iPhone SDK: problem managing orientation with multiple view controllers.

    - by Tom
    I'm trying to build an iPhone application that has two subviews in the main window. Each view has its own UIViewController subclass associated with it. Also, within each controller's implementation, I've added the following method: -(BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation: (UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { return YES; } Thus, I would expect both of the views to respond to changes in orientation. However, this is not the case. Only the first view added to the app's main window responds to orientation. (If I swap the order the views are added, then only the other view responds. In other words, either will work--but only one at a time.) Why is this? Is it not possible to handle the orientation changes of more than one view? Thanks! EDIT: Someone else had this question, so I'm copying my solution here: I was able to address this issue by providing a root view and a root view controller with the method "shouldAutoRotate..." and adding my other views as subviews to the root view. The subviews inherit the auto-rotating behavior, and their associated view controllers shouldn't need to override "shouldAutoRotate..."

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  • How to insert <li> element on <ul> using pure javascript

    - by Damiii
    I am having an issue with javascript and i don't know how to solve it ... Actually my code is working good with jsfiddle, but when i try to insert on my HTML page ,it simply doesnt work anymore ... What i want to, is to add the < li on < ul each time i tried to hit the button named "Add" ! HTML code: .... <td width="50%" valign="top"> <b> SUPER: </b> <ul id="ul"> </ul> </td> .... <input type="submit" value="Add" onclick="add()"/> .... JavaScript code: <script type="text/javascript"> function add(){ var ul = document.getElementById("ul"); var li = document.createElement("li"); li.innerHTML = "LoL"; ul.appendChild(li); } </script> The result with that code : it doesn't add anything on my HTML page when i try to hit the button... Thankfully,

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  • Pass variable to Info Window in FusionTableLayer

    - by user1030205
    I am building a web application that includes a Google Map layered with data from a Google Fusion Table. I have defined the info window for the markers in the Fusion Table and all is rendering as expected, but I have one issue. I need to pass a session variable from my web application to be included in the links that are defined in the info window, but can't seem to find a way to do this. Below is the javascript I am currently using to render the map: var myOptions = { zoom: 10, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP, center: new google.maps.LatLng( 40.4230,-98.7372) } map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map_canvas"), myOptions); // Weather weatherLayer = new google.maps.weather.WeatherLayer({ temperatureUnits: google.maps.weather.TemperatureUnit.FAHRENHEIT }); weatherLayer.setMap(map); //Hobby Stores var storeLayer = new google.maps.FusionTablesLayer({ query: { select: "col2", from: "3991553" }, map: map, supressInfoWindows: true }); //Club Sites var siteLayer = new google.maps.FusionTablesLayer({ query: { select: "col13", from: "3855088" }, styles: [{ markerOptions: { iconName: "airports" }}], map: map, supressInfoWindows: true }); I'd like to be able to pass some type of parameter in the call to google.maps.FusionTableLayer that passes a value to be include in the info window, but can't find a way to do this. To view the actual page, visit www.dualrates.com. Enter your zipcode and select one of the airport markers to see the info window. You may have to zoom the map out to see an airfield.

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  • Is there an efficient way to write this PHP if / else statement?

    - by nvoyageur
    I've written a simple issue tracker for my web app. I have some comments that I want to keep private (only a role of 'root' can see them). Is there a better way to write the following so I do not need the empty else section? $role will be 'root' or some other values $is_private will be true if the comment is private <?php // Don't show private comments to non-root users if ($is_private && 'root' != $role): // NON Root cannot see private else: ?> <div class="comment <?= $is_private ? 'private' : '' ; ?>"> <div class="comment-meta toolbar"> <?= $is_private ? 'PRIVATE - ': ''; ?> <span class="datestamp"><?= $created_at; ?></span> - <span class="fullname"><?= $fname . ' ' . $lname; ?></span></div> <p class="content"><?= nl2br($body); ?></p> </div> <?php endif; ?>

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  • Process data BEFORE a 301 Redirect?

    - by Jesse
    So, I've been working on a PHP link shortener (I know, just what the world needs). Basically when the page loads, php determines where it needs to go and sends a 301 Header to redirect the browser, like so... Header( "HTTP/1.1 301 Moved Permanently" ); header("Location: http://newsite.com"; Now, I'm trying to add some tracking to my redirects and insert some custom analytics data into a MySQL table before the redirect happen. It works perfectly if I don't specify the a redirect type and just use: header("Location: http://newsite.com"; But, of course as soon as you add in the 301 header, nothing else gets processed. Actually, on the first request, it sends the data to MySQL, but on any subsequent requests there's no communication with the database. I assume it's a browser caching issue, once it's seen the 301 it decides they're no reason to parse anything on future requests. But, does anyone know if there's any way to get around this? I'd really like to keep it as a 301 for SEO purposes (I believe if you don't specify it sends a 404 by default?). I thought about using .htaccess to prepend a file to the page that will do the MySQL work, but with the 301, wouldn't that just get ignored as well? Anyway, I'm not sure if there's any solution other than using a different type of redirect, but I'm ready to give up just yet. So, any suggestions would be much appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Completed Event not triggering for web service on some systems

    - by Farukh
    Hi, This is rather weird issue that I am facing with by WCF/Silverlight application. I am using a WCF to get data from a database for my Silverlight application and the completed event is not triggering for method in WCF on some systems. I have checked the called method executes properly has returns the values. I have checked via Fiddler and it clearly shows that response has the returned values as well. However the completed event is not getting triggered. Moreover in few of the systems, everything is fine and I am able to process the returned value in the completed method. Any thoughts or suggestions would be greatly appreciated. I have tried searching around the web but without any luck :( Following is the code.. Calling the method.. void RFCDeploy_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { btnSelectFile.IsEnabled = true; btnUploadFile.IsEnabled = false; btnSelectFile.Click += new RoutedEventHandler(btnSelectFile_Click); btnUploadFile.Click += new RoutedEventHandler(btnUploadFile_Click); RFCChangeDataGrid.KeyDown += new KeyEventHandler(RFCChangeDataGrid_KeyDown); btnAddRFCManually.Click += new RoutedEventHandler(btnAddRFCManually_Click); ServiceReference1.DataService1Client ws = new BEVDashBoard.ServiceReference1.DataService1Client(); ws.GetRFCChangeCompleted += new EventHandler<BEVDashBoard.ServiceReference1.GetRFCChangeCompletedEventArgs>(ws_GetRFCChangeCompleted); ws.GetRFCChangeAsync(); this.BusyIndicator1.IsBusy = true; } Completed Event.... void ws_GetRFCChangeCompleted(object sender, BEVDashBoard.ServiceReference1.GetRFCChangeCompletedEventArgs e) { PagedCollectionView view = new PagedCollectionView(e.Result); view.GroupDescriptions.Add(new PropertyGroupDescription("RFC")); RFCChangeDataGrid.ItemsSource = view; foreach (CollectionViewGroup group in view.Groups) { RFCChangeDataGrid.CollapseRowGroup(group, true); } this.BusyIndicator1.IsBusy = false; } Please note that this WCF has lots of other method as well and all of them are working fine.... I have problem with only this method... Thanks...

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  • Expanders inside listbox leaving blank space on collapse

    - by siz
    We have a rather complex UI that is presenting some problems for us. I have a ListBox that contains a set of DataItems. The DataTemplate for each item is an Expander. The header is text, the content of the Expander is a ListBox. The ListBox contains SubDataItems. The DataTemplate for each SubDataItem is an Expander. Here is a simplified XAML in which I reproduce the issue: <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding Items}"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Expander Header="{Binding Header}"> <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding SubItems}"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Expander Header="{Binding SubHeader}"> <Grid Height="40"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding SubText}" /> </Grid> </Expander> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> </Expander> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> There is a problem with how the layout is produced. If any Expander corresponding to the SubDataItem is expanded, the ListBoxItem containing this ListBox (the Expander.Content in the parent DataTemplate) correctly requests more space. So I can expand all SubDataItems and correctly see my data. However, when I collapse, the space I previously asked to expand, remains blank, instead of being reclaimed by the ListBoxItem. This is a problem because if I have say 10 SubDataItems and happen to expand all of them at the same time and then collapse, there is a significant amount of white space wasting my real estate. How can I force WPF to resize the ListBoxItem to the correct state?

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  • How would I authenticate against a local windows user on another machine in an ASP.NET application?

    - by Daniel Chambers
    In my ASP.NET application, I need to be able to authenticate/authorise against local Windows users/groups (ie. not Active Directory) on a different machine, as well as be able to change the passwords of said remote local Windows accounts. Yes, I know Active Directory is built for this sort of thing, but unfortunately the higher ups have decreed it needs to be done this way (so authentication against users in a database is out as well). I've tried using DirectoryEntry and WinNT like so: DirectoryEntry user = new DirectoryEntry(String.Format("WinNT://{0}/{1},User", serverName, username), username, password, AuthenticationTypes.Secure) but this results in an exception when you try to log in more than one user: Multiple connections to a server or shared resource by the same user, using more than one user name, are not allowed. Disconnect all previous connections to the server or shared resource and try again. I've tried making sure my DirectoryEntries are used inside a using block, so they're disposed properly, but this doesn't seem to fix the issue. Plus, even if that did work it is possible that two users could hit that line of code concurrently and therefore try to create multiple connections, so it would be fragile anyway. Is there a better way to authenticate against local Windows accounts on a remote machine, authorise against their groups, and change their passwords? Thanks for your help in advance.

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  • gcc compilations (sometimes) result in cpu underload

    - by confusedCoder
    I have a larger C++ program which starts out by reading thousands of small text files into memory and storing data in stl containers. This takes about a minute. Periodically, a compilation will exhibit behavior where that initial part of the program will run at about 22-23% CPU load. Once that step is over, it goes back to ~100% CPU. It is more likely to happen with O2 flag turned on but not consistently. It happens even less often with the -p flag which makes it almost impossible to profile. I did capture it once but the gprof output wasn't helpful - everything runs with the same relative speed just at low cpu usage. I am quite certain that this has nothing to do with multiple cores. I do have a quad-core cpu, and most of the code is multi-threaded, but I tested this issue running a single thread. Also, when I run the problematic step in multiple threads, each thread only runs at ~20% CPU. I apologize ahead of time for the vagueness of the question but I have run out of ideas as to how to troubleshoot it further, so any hints might be helpful. UPDATE: Just to make sure it's clear, the problematic part of the code does sometimes (~30-40% of the compilations) run at 100% CPU, so it's hard to buy the (otherwise reasonable) argument that I/O is the bottleneck

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