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  • gethostbyname fails for local hostname after resuming from hibernate (Vista+7?)

    - by John
    Just wondering if anyone else has spotted this: On some user's machines running our software, occasionally the call to Win32 winsock gethostbyname fails with error code 11004. For the argument to gethostbyname, I'm passing in the result from gethostname. Now the docs say 11004 is WSANO_DATA. None of the descriptions seem to be relevant (it occurs if you pass in an IP6 address, but as I say, I'm passing in a hostname). Even more interesting is that the MSDN suggests that this combination (gethostname followed by gethostbyname) should never fail, not even if there is no IP address (in that case it would just return empty list of IPs). Here is the quote from the gethostname MSDN entry: ...it is guaranteed that the name returned will be successfully parsed by gethostbyname and WSAAsyncGetHostByName. It only ever happens after resuming from hibernate, in that short period when the network is restarting, and only on Vista/7 (well I've only seen it on Vista and 7). One theory I had was that it related to IP6. Maybe for a short period the network reports an IP6 address but not the corresponging IP4 address (I'm pretty sure that all the client machines are dual IP stack, but I could be wrong). I tried to reproduce by turning off my network card (to force no IP addresses) and couldn't reproduce. Anyone seen this before? Any ideas? John

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  • Python and a "time value of money" problem.

    - by jamieb
    (I asked this question earlier today, but I did a poor job of explaining myself. Let me try again) I have a client who is an industrial maintenance company. They sell service agreements that are prepaid 20 hour blocks of a technician's time. Some of their larger customers might burn through that agreement in two weeks while customers with fewer problems might go eight months on that same contract. I would like to use Python to help model projected sales revenue and determine how many billable hours per month that they'll be on the hook for. If each customer only ever bought a single service contract (never renewed) it would be easy to figure sales as monthly_revenue = contract_value * qty_contracts_sold. Billable hours would also be easy: billable_hrs = hrs_per_contract * qty_contracts_sold. However, how do I account for renewals? Assuming that 90% (or some other arbitrary amount) of customers renew, then their monthly revenue ought to grow geometrically. Another important variable is how long the average customer burns through a contract. How do I determine what the revenue and billable hours will be 3, 6, or 12 months from now, based on various renewal and burn rates? I assume that I'd use some type of recursive function but math was never one of my strong points. Any suggestions please? Edit: I'm thinking that the best way to approach this is to think of it as a "time value of money" problem. I've retitled the question as such. The problem is probably a lot more common if you think of "monthly sales" as something similar to annuity payments.

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  • In facebook connect, how can I check if a user is a fan of my facebook page? Is it possible to track

    - by Tony
    I am trying to determine if a user is a facebook fan. I load the facebook JS library and initialize: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://static.ak.connect.facebook.com/js/api_lib/v0.4/FeatureLoader.js.php/en_US"></script> FB_RequireFeatures(["XFBML","Connect","Api"], function() { FB.init("my_api_key","xd_receiver.htm") }); FB.ensureInit(function () { FB.ApiClient.pages_isFan(my_profile_id,"some_UID",callback); }); However when I call the API client with FB.ApiClient.pages_isFan, I get a JS error - FB.ApiClient is undefined I am also using the FBML fan tag to display the "become a fan" button: <fb:fan profile_id="my_profile_id" stream="0" connections="10" logobar="1" width="300"></fb:fan> And would like to be notified when either the "become a fan" button is clicked or a user has successfully become a fan. The business logic is pretty simple - If they become a fan, track it in my database. Then if they try to become a fan again, check with the library if they are a fan and say "You are already a fan" if they are a fan, show the widget if not.

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  • Is Form validation and Business validation too much?

    - by Robert Cabri
    I've got this question about form validation and business validation. I see a lot of frameworks that use some sort of form validation library. You submit some values and the library validates the values from the form. If not ok it will show some errors on you screen. If all goes to plan the values will be set into domain objects. Here the values will be or, better said, should validated (again). Most likely the same validation in the validation library. I know 2 PHP frameworks having this kind of construction Zend/Kohana. When I look at programming and some principles like Don't Repeat Yourself (DRY) and single responsibility principle (SRP) this isn't a good way. As you can see it validates twice. Why not create domain objects that do the actual validation. Example: Form with username and email form is submitted. Values of the username field and the email field will be populated in 2 different Domain objects: Username and Email class Username {} class Email {} These objects validate their data and if not valid throw an exception. Do you agree? What do you think about this aproach? Is there a better way to implement validations? I'm confused about a lot of frameworks/developers handling this stuff. Are they all wrong or am I missing a point? Edit: I know there should also be client side kind of validation. This is a different ballgame in my Opinion. If You have some comments on this and a way to deal with this kind of stuff, please provide.

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  • TFS How does merging work?

    - by Johannes Rudolph
    I have a release branch (RB, starting at C5) and a changeset on trunk (C10) that I now want to merge onto RB. The file has changes at C3 (common to both), one in CS 7 on RB, and one in C9 (trunk) and one in C10). So the history for my changed file looks like this: RB: C5 -> C7 Trunk: C3 -> C9 -> C10 When I merge C10 from trunk to RB, I'd expect to see a merge window showing me C10 | C3 | C7 since C3 is the common ancestor revision and C10 and C7 are the tips of my two branches respectively. However, my merge tool shows me C10 | C9 | C7. My merge tool is configured to show %1(OriginalFile)|%3(BaseFile)|%2(Modified File), so this tells me TFS chose C9 as the base revision. This is totally unexpected and completely contrary to the way I'm used to merges working in Mercurial or Git. Did I get something wrong or is TFS trying to drive me nuts with merging? Is this the default TFS Merge behavior? If so, can you provide insight into why they chose to implement it this way? I'm using TFS 2008 with VS2010 as a Client.

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  • Handling form from different view and passing form validation through session in django

    - by Mo J. Mughrabi
    I have a requirement here to build a comment-like app in my django project, the app has a view to receive a submitted form process it and return the errors to where ever it came from. I finally managed to get it to work, but I have doubt for the way am using it might be wrong since am passing the entire validated form in the session. below is the code comment/templatetags/comment.py @register.inclusion_tag('comment/form.html', takes_context=True) def comment_form(context, model, object_id, next): """ comment_form() is responsible for rendering the comment form """ # clear sessions from variable incase it was found content_type = ContentType.objects.get_for_model(model) try: request = context['request'] if request.session.get('comment_form', False): form = CommentForm(request.session['comment_form']) form.fields['content_type'].initial = 15 form.fields['object_id'].initial = 2 form.fields['next'].initial = next else: form = CommentForm(initial={ 'content_type' : content_type.id, 'object_id' : object_id, 'next' : next }) except Exception as e: logging.error(str(e)) form = None return { 'form' : form } comment/view.py def save_comment(request): """ save_comment: """ if request.method == 'POST': # clear sessions from variable incase it was found if request.session.get('comment_form', False): del request.session['comment_form'] form = CommentForm(request.POST) if form.is_valid(): obj = form.save(commit=False) if request.user.is_authenticated(): obj.created_by = request.user obj.save() messages.info(request, _('Your comment has been posted.')) return redirect(form.data.get('next')) else: request.session['comment_form'] = request.POST return redirect(form.data.get('next')) else: raise Http404 the usage is by loading the template tag and firing {% comment_form article article.id article.get_absolute_url %} my doubt is if am doing the correct approach or not by passing the validated form to the session. Would that be a problem? security risk? performance issues? Please advise Update In response to Pol question. The reason why I went with this approach is because comment form is handled in a separate app. In my scenario, I render objects such as article and all I do is invoke the templatetag to render the form. What would be an alternative approach for my case? You also shared with me the django comment app, which am aware of but the client am working with requires a lot of complex work to be done in the comment app thats why am working on a new one.

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  • pthread condition variables on Linux, odd behaviour.

    - by janesconference
    Hi. I'm synchronizing reader and writer processes on Linux. I have 0 or more process (the readers) that need to sleep until they are woken up, read a resource, go back to sleep and so on. Please note I don't know how many reader processes are up at any moment. I have one process (the writer) that writes on a resource, wakes up the readers and does its business until another resource is ready (in detail, I developed a no starve reader-writers solution, but that's not important). To implement the sleep / wake up mechanism I use a Posix condition value, pthread_cond_t. The clients call a pthread_cond_wait() on the variable to sleep, while the server does a pthread_cond_broadcast() to wake them all up. As the manual says, I surround these two calls with a lock/unlock of the associated pthread mutex. The condition variable and the mutex are initialized in the server and shared between processes through a shared memory area (because I'm not working with threads, but with separate processes) an I'm sure my kernel / syscall support it (because I checked _POSIX_THREAD_PROCESS_SHARED). What happens is that the first client process sleeps and wakes up perfectly. When I start the second process, it blocks on its pthread_cond_wait() and never wakes up, even if I'm sure (by the logs) that pthread_cond_broadcast() is called. If I kill the first process, and launch another one, it works perfectly. In other words, the condition variable pthread_cond_broadcast() seems to wake up only one process a time. If more than one process wait on the very same shared condition variable, only the first one manages to wake up correctly, while the others just seem to ignore the broadcast. Why this behaviour? If I send a pthread_cond_broadcast(), every waiting process should wake up, not just one (and, however, not always the same one).

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  • ConcurrentLinkedQueue$Node remains in heap after remove()

    - by action8
    I have a multithreaded app writing and reading a ConcurrentLinkedQueue, which is conceptually used to back entries in a list/table. I originally used a ConcurrentHashMap for this, which worked well. A new requirement required tracking the order entries came in, so they could be removed in oldest first order, depending on some conditions. ConcurrentLinkedQueue appeared to be a good choice, and functionally it works well. A configurable amount of entries are held in memory, and when a new entry is offered when the limit is reached, the queue is searched in oldest-first order for one that can be removed. Certain entries are not to be removed by the system and wait for client interaction. What appears to be happening is I have an entry at the front of the queue that occurred, say 100K entries ago. The queue appears to have the limited number of configured entries (size() == 100), but when profiling, I found that there were ~100K ConcurrentLinkedQueue$Node objects in memory. This appears to be by design, just glancing at the source for ConcurrentLinkedQueue, a remove merely removes the reference to the object being stored but leaves the linked list in place for iteration. Finally my question: Is there a "better" lazy way to handle a collection of this nature? I love the speed of the ConcurrentLinkedQueue, I just cant afford the unbounded leak that appears to be possible in this case. If not, it seems like I'd have to create a second structure to track order and may have the same issues, plus a synchronization concern.

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  • Firebug error causing code to fail in Sitecore when using IE8 to view the Content Editor

    - by iamdudley
    Hi, I have a Sitecore 6 CMS with a custom data provider to create child items on the fly based on items added to a field in the parent item. This was working okay (about a week ago was the last time I was working on this project), but now I am getting errors in the web client which are originating in the FirebugLite html and JS files. Basically, I click on a content item, the FirebugLite js fails, and then my code in my custom data provider fails to run. I would have thought any FirebugLite scripts would be disabled or ignored when running under IE8 (isn't FirebugLite a Firefox addin?) When I remove the FirebugLite folder from ..\sitecore\shell\Controls\Lib\ my code runs fine and I don't get the clientside errors. I'm not really sure what my question is. I guess it is should FirebugLite affect IE8? What am I missing out on if I remove FirebugLite from the Sitecore directory tree? I'm running WindowsXP SP3, VS2008. The errors I get are the following: Webpage error details User Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 5.1; Trident/4.0; .NET CLR 1.1.4322; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.0.4506.2152; .NET CLR 3.5.30729) Timestamp: Fri, 14 May 2010 06:42:04 UTC Message: Invalid argument. Line: 301 Char: 9 Code: 0 URI: http://xxxxxxx.com.au/sitecore/shell/controls/lib/FirebugLite/firebug.js Message: Object doesn't support this property or method Line: 21 Char: 1 Code: 0 URI: http://xxxxxxxx.com.au/sitecore/shell/controls/lib/FirebugLite/firebug.html Message: Invalid argument. Line: 301 Char: 9 Code: 0 URI: http://xxxxxxxx.com.au/sitecore/shell/controls/lib/FirebugLite/firebug.js Message: Object doesn't support this property or method Line: 21 Char: 1 Code: 0 URI: http://xxxxxxxx.com.au/sitecore/shell/controls/lib/FirebugLite/firebug.html Cheers, James.

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  • Sending URL as a parameter using javascript

    - by Prashant Singh
    I have to send a name and a link from client side to the server. I thought of using AJAX called by Javascript to do this. This is what I mean. I wished to make an ajax request to a file called abc.php with parameters :- 1. http://thumbs2.ebaystatic.com/m/m7dFgOtLUUUSpktHRspjhXw/140.jpg 2. Apple iPod touch, 3rd generation, 32GB To begin with, I encoded the URL and tried to send it. But the server says status Forbidden Any solution to this ? UPDATE :: It end up calling to http://abc.com/addToWishlist.php?rand=506075547542422&image=http://thumbs1.ebaystatic.com/m/mO64jQrMqam2jde9aKiXC9A/140.jpg&prod=Flat%20USB%20Data%20Sync%20Charging%20Charger%20Cable%20Apple%20iPhone%204G%204S%20iPod%20Touch%20Nano Javascript Code :: function addToWishlist(num) { var myurl = "addToWishlist.php"; var myurl1 = myurl; myRand = parseInt(Math.random()*999999999999999); var rand = "?rand="+myRand ; var modurl = myurl1+ rand + "&image=" + encodeURI(storeArray[num][1]) + "&prod=" + encodeURI(storeArray[num][0]); httpq2.open("GET", modurl, true); httpq2.onreadystatechange = useHttpResponseq2; httpq2.send(null); } function useHttpResponseq2() { if (httpq2.readyState == 4) { if(httpq2.status == 200) { var mytext = httpq2.responseText; document.getElementById('wish' + num).innerHTML = "Added to your wishlist."; } } } Server Code <?php include('/home/ankit/public_html/connect_db.php'); $image = $_GET['image']; $prod = $_GET['prod']; $id = $_GET['id']; echo $prod; echo $image; ?> As I mentioned, its pretty basics More Updates : On trying to send a POST request via AJAX to the server, it says :- Refused to set unsafe header "Content-length" Refused to set unsafe header "Connection"

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  • Minimal deployment of couchdb on windows

    - by MartinStettner
    Hi, I'd like to use couchdb for a client-only application on Windows (the document-oriented structure and the synchronization features would be perfect for me). There is a Windows installer package here, but the installer itself has about 45 MB, when installed it takes more than 100 MB on my HD. This is far to much for my (relatively small) application. I noticed that there are a lot of "src" directories in the couchdb/lib subdirs. I've been experimenting with removing some of them and it didn't seem to break the system. Now I'm wondering what would be the "minimal" set of files (preferably binary-only) that would be needed in order to run a local couchdb server. Are there already any efforts to create such a deployment-friendly installer? Or could anyone give some (even very general) hints how to create it? How much disk space would be minimally required for such an installation? Needless to say that I'm not at all familiar with neither the couchdb internals nor the Erlang system :). But perhaps I could figure out if I got some direction (or I could stop trying if someone told me that this would be impossible or didn't make sense at all ...) Thanks anyway!

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  • Printing to different printers using mozilla.

    - by Nick-ACNB
    I am currently creating a web application that will be deployed in an intranet environment. I chose firefox to be the browser that will run it. However, in the application I am building, I need to be able to print to different printers quickly since they use different paper size depending on what client is coming. To avoid many time-wasting mistakes that could occur, for instance someone choosing the wrong printer and wasting paper. Also, the time used to find the right printer for the job and then pressing print is considered too long in the current context. Is there any solution to this problem? I understand the potential security flaw behind this, but please be aware that this is solely an intranet project and that I can reduce the browser's security to the lowest since they don't access internet. I know there could be something doable behind IE (ActiveX or VBScript) but I am using firefox. Also, I guess there could also be something rather tricky that when you press print on the browser, it saves what needs to be printed to a DB and then there is an exe app that runs and fetch that DB every set ammount of time and print to the right printer. Any suggestion would be greatly appreciated. I doubt I am the only one to ever face this issue! :) Thank you very much.

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  • How to name multiple versioned ServiceContracts in the same WCF service?

    - by Tor Hovland
    When you have to introduce a breaking change in a ServiceContract, a best practice is to keep the old one and create a new one, and use some version identifier in the namespace. If I understand this correctly, I should be able to do the following: [ServiceContract(Namespace = "http://foo.com/2010/01/14")] public interface IVersionedService { [OperationContract] string WriteGreeting(Person person); } [ServiceContract(Name = "IVersionedService", Namespace = "http://foo.com/2010/02/21")] public interface IVersionedService2 { [OperationContract(Name = "WriteGreeting")] Greeting WriteGreeting2(Person2 person); } With this I can create a service that supports both versions. This actually works, and it looks fine when testing from soapUI. However, when I create a client in Visual Studio using "Add Service Reference", VS disregards the namespaces and simply sees two interfaces with the same name. In order to differentiate them, VS adds "1" to the name of one of them. I end up with proxies called ServiceReference.VersionedServiceClient and ServiceReference.VersionedService1Client Now it's not easy for anybody to see which is the newer version. Should I give the interfaces different names? E.g IVersionedService1 IVersionedService2 or IVersionedService/2010/01/14 IVersionedService/2010/02/21 Doesn't this defeat the purpose of the namespace? Should I put them in different service classes and get a unique URL for each version?

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  • Image URL not changing in Update panel

    - by Chiefy
    Ok this is probably really simple but I have been staring at it for too long now. I have an AJAX AsyncFileUpload control that when a file is selected I want the Image next to it to change. I tried it in Javascript and it did nothing, i have since tried it server-side and still nothing. here is the client side. <asp:UpdatePanel runat="server" ID="upnlConfidential"> <ContentTemplate> <td> <asp:AsyncFileUpload ID="_flupCV" runat="server" OnUploadedComplete="AdminFileUpload" /> </td> <td> <asp:Image ID="imgCV" runat="server" Height="25px" Width="25px" ImageUrl="~/Images/Exclamation.png"/> </td> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> and here is the server side protected void AdminFileUpload(object sender, AjaxControlToolkit.AsyncFileUploadEventArgs e) { AjaxControlToolkit.AsyncFileUpload upload = (AjaxControlToolkit.AsyncFileUpload)sender; if (upload.PostedFile != null) { switch (upload.ID) { case "_flupCV": ImageCheckMark(imgCV); break; //etc... } } } private void ImageCheckMark(Image image) { image.Visible = true; image.ImageUrl = "~/Images/CheckMark.png"; } When the server side is called it sets the URL just fine but then nothing happens to the image, when I call the code again the URL is still the previous Exclamation image. its almost like its forgotten. Can anybody help me on this please. Thanks in advance to all who contribute!

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  • What is the performance penalty of XML data type in SQL Server when compared to NVARCHAR(MAX)?

    - by Piotr Owsiak
    I have a DB that is going to keep log entries. One of the columns in the log table contains serialized (to XML) objects and a guy on my team proposed to go with XML data type rather than NVARCHAR(MAX). This table will have logs kept "forever" (archiving some very old entries may be considered in the future). I'm a little worried about the CPU overhead, but I'm even more worried that DB can grow faster (FoxyBOA from the referenced question got 70% bigger DB when using XML). I have read this question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/514827/microsoft-sql-server-2005-2008-xml-vs-text-varchar-data-type and it gave me some ideas but I am particulairly interrested in clarification on whether the DB size increases or decreases. Can you please share your insight/experiences in that matter. BTW. I don't currently have any need to depend on XML features within SQL Server (there's nearly zero advantage to me in the specific case). Ocasionally log entries will be extracted, but I prefer to handle the XML using .NET (either by writing a small client or using a function defined in a .NET assembly).

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  • MySQL query pulling from two tables, display in correct fields

    - by Matt Nathanson
    I'm trying to select all fields in two separate tables as long as they're sharing a common ID. //mysql query $result = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM project, links WHERE project.id = links.id and project.id = $clientID") //displaying the link if ($row['url'] != null){ echo "<div class='clientsection' id='links'>Links</div>"; echo "<a class='clientlink' id='link1' href='" . $row['url'] . "'>" . $row['name'] . "</a>"; } else { echo "<a class='clientlink' id='link1' href='" . $row['url'] . "' style='display:none;'>" . $row['name'] . "</a>"; }; As you can see, my tables are "projects", and "links" Each is sharing a common field "id" for reference. It looks as though where both links.id and project.id are equal, it outputs anything, but when there is no links.id associated with a given $clientID the container relative to the $clientID doesn't display at all. Essentially I'm using this to add links dynamically to a specific client in this CMS and if there are no links, I want the container to show up anyway. Hopefully I've expressed myself clearly, any pointers in the right direction are appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Foreign/accented characters in sql query

    - by FromCanada
    I'm using Java and Spring's JdbcTemplate class to build an SQL query in Java that queries a Postgres database. However, I'm having trouble executing queries that contain foreign/accented characters. For example the (trimmed) code: JdbcTemplate select = new JdbcTemplate( postgresDatabase ); String query = "SELECT id FROM province WHERE name = 'Ontario';"; Integer id = select.queryForObject( query, Integer.class ); will retrieve the province id, but if instead I did name = 'Québec' then the query fails to return any results (this value is in the database so the problem isn't that it's missing). I believe the source of the problem is that the database I am required to use has the default client encoding set to SQL_ASCII, which according to this prevents automatic character set conversions. (The Java environments encoding is set to 'UTF-8' while I'm told the database uses 'LATIN1' / 'ISO-8859-1') I was able to manually indicate the encoding when the resultSets contained values with foreign characters as a solution to a previous problem with a similar nature. Ex: String provinceName = new String ( resultSet.getBytes( "name" ), "ISO-8859-1" ); But now that the foreign characters are part of the query itself this approach hasn't been successful. (I suppose since the query has to be saved in a String before being executed anyway, breaking it down into bytes and then changing the encoding only muddles the characters further.) Is there a way around this without having to change the properties of the database or reconstruct it? PostScript: I found this function on StackOverflow when making up a title, it didn't seem to work (I might not have used it correctly, but even if it did work it doesn't seem like it could be the best solution.):

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  • Stubbing an ActsAs Rails Plugin

    - by Rabbott
    I need to create a plugin much like Authlogic (or even just add on to Authlogic), but due to requirements beyond my control I need my plugin to authenticate using SOAP. Basically the plugin would require that anyone accessing the controller (before_filter would be fine) would have to authenticate first. I have ZERO control over the login page, or the SOAP server, I am simply a client attempting to authenticate to the providers SOAP Web Service. Here is what happens.. before_filter realizes that no session[:credential] is set, and forwards the user to the url on the providers servers. The user enters their credentials, and once authenticated, the web service forwards the user to a URL that has been entered by their sysadmins, attaching a token to the url on its way back. I need to take that token, append it to some parameters stored in a local YAML file, and make the SOAP call to the providers server. If all goes as planned, I need to set session[:credential] to the result of the SOAP call, and forward the user to the root page. Subsequent calls to the before_filter will not make the SOAP call, because session[:credential] is set. Ideally I think this would be awesome to slap on top of Authlogic, but I'm not sure how to do this, So I started to create my own acts_as_soap_authentic plugin, which isn't causing errors, but doesn't do anything.. Anyone have any pointers, or tips as to how I can get the ball rolling here? It seems simple, but is proving not to be..

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  • Handling data update/freshness issue in web-app in general (or GWT specifically)

    - by edwin.nathaniel
    In general, how do you guys handle user update/data freshness interaction with the user (UI issue) in web-apps? For example: Multi-users web-app (like project management) Login to a "virtual" space People can update project names, etc How to handle a situation such that: user-A and user-B load a project with title "Project StackOverflow" user-B updates the title to "Project StackExchange" user-A updates the title after user-B update operation to "Project Basecamp" The question I'm asking is from the user perspective (UI) and not about transactional operation. What do most people do in this situation? What would you do after user-B updates the title in user-A screen/view? What happened when user-A tries to update the title after user-B finished his/her update operation? do you inform user-A that the title has changed and he/she has to reload the page? do you go ahead and change the title and let user-B has old data? Do you do some sort of application-level "locking" mechanism? (if someone is updating, nobody else can?) Or fix the application workflow? (who has the access to be able to change things, etc). What would be the simplest solution, but at the same time not annoy the user with more dialog/warning messages. I've encountered this particular problem frequently in a GWT app specifically where domain models are being passed around and refreshing the whole app/client-side isn't the optimal solution in my mind (since it means the whole "loading"/initialization phase must be executed again in this specific environment). Maybe the answer is to stay away from GWT? :) Love to hear options, solutions, and advises from you guys. Thanks

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  • How to deploy ClickOnce .Net 3.5 application on 3.0 machine

    - by Buthrakaur
    I have .Net 3.5 SP1 WPF application which I'm successfully deploying to client computers using ClickOnce. Now I got new requirement - one of our clients need to run the application on machines equipped just with .Net 3.0 and it's entirely impossible to upgrade or install anything on the machines. I already tried to run the 3.5 application with some of the 3.5FW DLLs copied to the application directory and it worked without any problems. The only problem at the moment is ClickOnce. I already made it to include the 3.5FW System.*.dll files in list of application files, but it always aborts installation on 3.0 machine with this error message: Unable to install or run the application. The application requires that assembly System.Core Version 3.5.0.0 be installed in the Global Assembly Cache (GAC) first. Please contact your system administrator. I already tried to tweak prerequisites on Publish tab of my project, but no combination solved the issue. What part of ClickOnce is responsible for checking prerequisites? I already tried to deploy using mageui.exe, but the 3.5FW error is still present. What should I do to fore ClickOnce to stop checking any prerequisites at all? The project is created using VS2010.

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  • Cascading DropDown List in MVC 4

    - by Misi
    I have a ASP.NET MVC 4 project with EF I have a table with Parteners. This table has 2 types of parteners : agents(part_type=1) and clients(part_type=2). In an Create view I have the first DropDownList that shows all my agents, a button and the second DDL that shows all my clients that correspond to the selected agent. Q1 : What button shoud I use ? , , @Html.ActionLink() ? Create.cshtml <div class="editor-field"> @Html.DropDownList("idagenti", ViewData["idagenti"] as List<SelectListItem>, String.Empty) </div> @*a button*@ <div class="editor-label"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.id_parten, "Client") </div> <div class="editor-field"> @Html.DropDownList("id_parten", String.Empty) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.id_parten) </div> OrdersController.cs public ActionResult Create(int? id) // id is the selected agent { var agqry = db.partener.Where(p => p.part_type == 1).Where(p => p.activ == true); var cltqry = db.partener.Where(p => p.part_type == 2).Where(p => p.activ == true); List<SelectListItem> idagenti = new List<SelectListItem>(); foreach (partener ag in agqry) { idagenti.Add(new SelectListItem { Text = ag.den_parten, Value = ag.id_parten.ToString() }); } if (id != null) { cltqry = cltqry.Where(p => p.par_parten == id); } ViewData["idagenti"] = idagenti; ViewBag.id_parten = new SelectList(cltqry, "id_parten", "den_parten");// } Q: How can I pass the selected agent id from the first DDL to my controller ?

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  • Fun with "The remote server returned an error: NotFound" - Silverlight4 Out of Browser

    - by Scott Silvi
    Hey all - I'm running SL4 on VS2010. I've got an app that authenticates via a web service to SPROC in my db. Unfortunately this is not WCF/WCF RIA, as I'm inheriting the DB/services from my client. This works perfectly inside of a browser. I'm attempting to move this OOB, and it's at this point that my authentication fails. Here's the steps I took... 1) SL App Properties Enable running app Out of Browser 2) SL App Properties Out of Browser Settings Require elevated trust when running OOB If i set a breakpoint on my logon button click, I see the service call is being made. However, if I step through it (or set a breakpoint on the actual logon web service), the code never gets that far. Here's the block it fails on: public LogonSVC.LogonResponse EndLogon(System.IAsyncResult result) { object[] _args = new object[0]; LogonSVC.LogonResponse _result = ((LogonSVC.LogonResponse)(base.EndInvoke("Logon", _args, result))); return _result; } I know using Elevated Trust means the crossdomain.xml isn't necessary. I dropped one in that allows everything, just to test, and that still fails. here's the code that calls the service: private void loginButton_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { string Username = txtUserName.Text; string Password = txtPassword.Password; Uri iSilverlightServiceUriRelative = new Uri(App.Current.Host.Source, "../Services/Logon.asmx"); EndpointAddress iSilverlightServiceEndpoint = new EndpointAddress(iSilverlightServiceUriRelative); BasicHttpBinding iSilverlightServiceBinding = new BasicHttpBinding(BasicHttpSecurityMode.Transport);// Transport if it's HTTPS:// LogonService = new LogonSVC.LogonSoapClient(iSilverlightServiceBinding, iSilverlightServiceEndpoint); LogonService.LogonCompleted += new EventHandler<LogonSVC.LogonCompletedEventArgs>(LogonService_LogonCompleted); LogonService.LogonAsync(Username, Password); } My LogonService_LogonCompleted doesn't fire either (which makes sense, just a heads up). I don't know how to fiddler this, as this is running OOB with the site served via localhost/IIS. I know this works though in browser, so I'm curious what would break it OOB. Thank you, Scott

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  • Running mysql query using node blocks the whole process and then timesout

    - by lobengula3rd
    I have a node javascript that uses mysql npm (Felix). I have a procedure stored in my DB which I call when the user selects an option to kind of create its own instance of the program. The user chooses for how long he wants that data to be initialized for him. This is suppsoed to be between 1 and 2 years. So if he choose 1 year this query will insert around 20,000 rows into 1 table. If I run this query and a local DB this takes around 30 seconds (I suppose it is reasonable because its a big query which should be done only once in 1 or 2 years so its ok). For some reason my node script freezes as if it can't handle any more calls from other users. The even worse problem is that after like 2 minutes my client ui gets like an error from the server. At this point not all the data that was supposed to enter the DB is entered. After waiting like another minute all the data finally gets to the DB and only then it will accept new requests. This is my connection: this.connection = mysql.createConnection({ host : '********rds.amazonaws.com', user : 'admin', password : '******', database : '*****' }); and this is my query function: this.createCourts = function (req, res, next){ connection.query('CALL filldates("' + req.body['startDate'] + '","' + req.body['endDate'] + '","' + req.body['numOfCourts'] + '","' + req.body['duration'] + '","' + req.body['sundayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['mondayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['tuesdayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['wednesdayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['thursdayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['fridayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['saturdayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['sundayClose'] + '","' + req.body['mondayClose'] + '","' + req.body['tuesdayClose'] + '","' + req.body['wednesdayClose'] + '","' + req.body['thursdayClose'] + '","' + req.body['fridayClose'] + '","' + req.body['saturdayClose'] + '");', function(err){ if (err){ console.log(err); } else return res.send(200); }); }; what am i missing here? as i understand connection.query should by async so why is it actually blocking my node script? thanks.

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  • How to debug PHP?

    - by NutMotion
    Anyone's been trying himself at object oriented programming ? Most probably every developer I guess:D I for one have never studied OO design patterns thoroughly, and trying to put it all together now does prove at times thrilling, and many times frustrating also. Even more so when trying to do it in : PHP! All-in-all, my boss asked me to add some Database persistence functions to her server, but most of all, she asked me to translate her already working procedural code into a working Object Oriented code. Here I am, still standing on my PHP OO project. I'm (already) fed up with this "file logging only" PHP capability. I believe there must be some (free or not too much expansive) PHP debugging utility ? I've heard about Zend Studio and PHPEd so far, which didn't quite do the trick for whatever reasons. WIRCW("Which I don't Remember Correctly Why" lol) What say yé? on debugging PHP ? Is there a tool that provides a good debug mode? what's more, don't forget I'm not speaking about the classical web Request/response model. Talking about a debugging facility which can enable you to trigger a web service (aka client request) and go into debug mode on the SOAP web service side. Thks for any input.

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  • How to get Facebook Login Button To Display "Logout"

    - by Will Merydith
    I apologize ahead of time if this is clearly documented somewhere on the FB developer site - but I can't find it (so please link me if appropriate). I've implemented the FB login button on a website using GAE + Python. Here is the HTML: <fb:login-button></fb:login-button> <div id="fb-root"></div> <script src="http://connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js"></script> <script> FB.init({appId: 'ad16a806fc10bef5d30881322e73be68', status: true, cookie: true, xfbml: true}); FB.Event.subscribe('auth.sessionChange', function(response) { if (response.session) { // A user has logged in, and a new cookie has been saved } else { // The user has logged out, and the cookie has been cleared } }); </script> Currently the behavior is - if I click on the "login" button, I am asked to allow the application access to FB. Which I then choose, "OK". But then the login button is still showing "login" and not "logout". How do I implement that? On the server or client side?

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