Search Results

Search found 25792 results on 1032 pages for 'map edit'.

Page 831/1032 | < Previous Page | 827 828 829 830 831 832 833 834 835 836 837 838  | Next Page >

  • SHA1 hashing in Delphi XE

    - by Leonardo Herrera
    Hello, I'm in the process of implementing XML digital signatures. I'm starting with little steps, so right now I want to solve the problem of SHA-1 hashing. There are lots of questions about this in SO: Digitially Sign Key with Lockbox Encryption library for Delphi Convert this php digital signing to Delphi Delphi: is there a version of LockBox for Delphi-XE Delphi 2010 Cryptography libraries ...and probably more. However, I'm using Delphi XE. So far, I've tried LockBox 2 (both the Songbeamer and Sourceforge versions), Lock Box 3, DCPCrypto2 and some others (Hashes is an easy to use unit which uses Windows crypto functions) I prepared a small test rig that gives me the following: LockBox2 FAILED: 1 ('abc') Got: '9f04f41a848514162050e3d68c1a7abb441dc2b5' Expected: 'a9993e364706816aba3e25717850c26c9cd0d89d' FAILED: 2 ('abcdbcdecdefdefgefghfghighijhijkijkljklmklmnlmnomnopnopq') Got: '51d7d8769ac72c409c5b0e3f69c60adc9a039014' Expected: '84983e441c3bd26ebaae4aa1f95129e5e54670f1' LockBox3 FAILED: 1 ('abc') Got: '9f04f41a848514162050e3d68c1a7abb441dc2b5' Expected: 'a9993e364706816aba3e25717850c26c9cd0d89d' FAILED: 2 ('abcdbcdecdefdefgefghfghighijhijkijkljklmklmnlmnomnopnopq') Got: '51d7d8769ac72c409c5b0e3f69c60adc9a039014' Expected: '84983e441c3bd26ebaae4aa1f95129e5e54670f1' DCPCrypto2 FAILED: 1 ('abc') Got: '9f04f41a848514162050e3d68c1a7abb441dc2b5' Expected: 'a9993e364706816aba3e25717850c26c9cd0d89d' FAILED: 2 ('abcdbcdecdefdefgefghfghighijhijkijkljklmklmnlmnomnopnopq') Got: '51d7d8769ac72c409c5b0e3f69c60adc9a039014' Expected: '84983e441c3bd26ebaae4aa1f95129e5e54670f1' Hashes Test 1 passes Test 2 passes Have you succeeded in compile the mentioned libraries under Delphi XE and make them give the appropriate values? I'm particularly interested in DCPCrypt2 SelfTest procedure. Edit: I've added this answer with the fixed source code. Thank you all for your help, it is most appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Two different assembly versions "The located assembly's manifest definition does not match the assem

    - by snicker
    I have a project that I am working on that requires the use of the Mysql Connector for NHibernate, (Mysql.Data.dll). I also want to reference another project (Migrator.NET) in the same project. The problem is even though Migrator.NET is built with the reference to MySql.Data with specific version = false, it still tries to reference the older version of MySql.Data that the library was built with instead of just using the version that is there.. and I get the exception listed in the title: ---- System.IO.FileLoadException : Could not load file or assembly 'MySql.Data, Version=1.0.10.1, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=c5687fc88969c44d' or one of its dependencies. The located assembly's manifest definition does not match the assembly reference. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80131040) The version I am referencing in the main assembly is 6.1.3.0. How do I get the two assemblies to cooperate? Edit: For those of you specifying Assembly Binding Redirection, I have set this up: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <dependentAssembly> <assemblyIdentity name="MySql.Data" publicKeyToken="c5687fc88969c44d" culture="neutral"/> <bindingRedirect oldVersion="0.0.0.0-6.1.3.0" newVersion="6.1.3.0"/> </dependentAssembly> </assemblyBinding> </runtime> </configuration> I am referencing this the main assembly in another project and still getting the same errors. If my main assembly is copied local to be used in the other assembly, will it use the settings in app.config or does this information have to be included with every application or assembly that references my main assembly?

    Read the article

  • Django: Unicode Filenames with ASCII headers?

    - by TheLizardKing
    I have a list of strangely encoded files: 02 - Charlie, Woody and You/Study #22.mp3 which I suppose isn't so bad but there are a few particular characters which Django OR nginx seem to be snagging on. >>> test = u'02 - Charlie, Woody and You/Study #22.mp3' >>> test u'02 - Charlie, Woody and You\uff0fStudy #22.mp3' I am using nginx as a reverse proxy to connect to django's built in webserver (still in development stages) and postgresql for my database. My database and tables are all en_US.UTF-8 and I am using pgadmin3 to view my tables outside of django. My issue goes a little beyond my title, firstly how should I be saving possibly whacky filenames in my database? My current method is 'path': smart_unicode(path.lstrip(MUSIC_PATH)), 'filename': smart_unicode(file) and when I pprint out the values they do show u'whateverthecrap' I am not sure if that is how I should be doing it but assuming it is now I have issues trying to spit out the download. My download view looks something like this: def song_download(request, song_id): song = get_object_or_404(Song, pk=song_id) url = u'/static_music/%s/%s' % (song.path, song.filename) print url response = HttpResponse() response['X-Accel-Redirect'] = url response['Content-Type'] = 'audio/mpeg' response['Content-Disposition'] = "attachment; filename=test.mp3" return response and most files will download but when I get to 02 - Charlie, Woody and You/Study #22.mp3 I receive this from django: 'ascii' codec can't encode character u'\uff0f' in position 118: ordinal not in range(128), HTTP response headers must be in US-ASCII format. How can I use an ASCII acceptable string if my filename is out of bounds? 02 - Charlie, Woody and You\uff0fStudy #22.mp3 doesn't seem to work... EDIT 1 I am using Ubuntu for my OS.

    Read the article

  • Property being immediately reset by ApplicationSetting Property Binding

    - by Slider345
    I have a .net 2.0 windows application written in c#, which currently uses several project settings to store user configurations. The forms in the application are made up of lots of user controls, each of which have properties that need to be set to these project settings. Right now these settings are manually assigned to the user control properties. I was hoping to simplify the code by replacing the manual implementation with ApplicationSettings Property Bindings. However, my first property is not behaving properly at all. The setting is an integer, used to record a port number typed into a text box. The setting is bound to an integer property on a user control, and that property sets the Text property on a TextBox control. When I type a new value into the textbox at runtime, as soon as the textbox loses focus, it is immediately replaced by the original value. A breakpoint on the property shows that it is immediately setting the property to the setting from the properties collection after I set it. Can anyone see what I'm doing wrong? Here's some code: The setting: [global::System.Configuration.UserScopedSettingAttribute()] [global::System.Diagnostics.DebuggerNonUserCodeAttribute()] [global::System.Configuration.DefaultSettingValueAttribute("1000")] public int Port { get{ return ((int)(this["Port"])); } set{ this["Port"] = value; } } The binding: this.ctrlNetworkConfig.DataBindings.Add(new System.Windows.Forms.Binding("PortNumber", global::TestProject.Properties.Settings.Default, "Port", true, System.Windows.Forms.DataSourceUpdateMode.OnPropertyChanged)); this.ctrlNetworkConfig.PortNumber = global::TestProject.Properties.Settings.Default.Port; And lastly, the property on the user control: public int PortNumber { get{ int port; if(int.TryParse(this.txtPortNumber.Text, out port)) return port; else return 0; } set{ txtPortNumber.Text = value.ToString(); } } Any thoughts? Thanks in advance for your help. EDIT: Sorry about the formatting, trying to correct.

    Read the article

  • What is the worst programming language you ever worked with? [closed]

    - by Ludwig Weinzierl
    If you have an interesting story to share, please post an answer, but do not abuse this question for bashing a language. We are programmers, and our primary tool is the programming language we use. While there is a lot of discussion about the best one, I'd like to hear your stories about the worst programming languages you ever worked with and I'd like to know exactly what annoyed you. I'd like to collect this stories partly to avoid common pitfalls while designing a language (especially a DSL) and partly to avoid quirky languages in the future in general. This question is not subjective. If a language supports only single character identifiers (see my own answer) this is bad in a non-debatable way. EDIT Some people have raised concerns that this question attracts trolls. Wading through all your answers made one thing clear. The large majority of answers is appropriate, useful and well written. UPDATE 2009-07-01 19:15 GMT The language overview is now complete, covering 103 different languages from 102 answers. I decided to be lax about what counts as a programming language and included anything reasonable. Thank you David for your comments on this. Here are all programming languages covered so far (alphabetical order, linked with answer, new entries in bold): ABAP, all 20th century languages, all drag and drop languages, all proprietary languages, APF, APL (1), AS400, Authorware, Autohotkey, BancaStar, BASIC, Bourne Shell, Brainfuck, C++, Centura Team Developer, Cobol (1), Cold Fusion, Coldfusion, CRM114, Crystal Syntax, CSS, Dataflex 2.3, DB/c DX, dbase II, DCL, Delphi IDE, Doors DXL, DOS batch (1), Excel Macro language, FileMaker, FOCUS, Forth, FORTRAN, FORTRAN 77, HTML, Illustra web blade, Informix 4th Generation Language, Informix Universal Server web blade, INTERCAL, Java, JavaScript (1), JCL (1), karol, LabTalk, Labview, Lingo, LISP, Logo, LOLCODE, LotusScript, m4, Magic II, Makefiles, MapBasic, MaxScript, Meditech Magic, MEL, mIRC Script, MS Access, MUMPS, Oberon, object extensions to C, Objective-C, OPS5, Oz, Perl (1), PHP, PL/SQL, PowerDynamo, PROGRESS 4GL, prova, PS-FOCUS, Python, Regular Expressions, RPG, RPG II, Scheme, ScriptMaker, sendmail.conf, Smalltalk, Smalltalk , SNOBOL, SpeedScript, Sybase PowerBuilder, Symbian C++, System RPL, TCL, TECO, The Visual Software Environment, Tiny praat, TransCAD, troff, uBasic, VB6 (1), VBScript (1), VDF4, Vimscript, Visual Basic (1), Visual C++, Visual Foxpro, VSE, Webspeed, XSLT The answers covering 80386 assembler, VB6 and VBScript have been removed.

    Read the article

  • Hibernate: "Field 'id' doesn't have a default value"

    - by André Neves
    Hi, all. I'm facing what I think is a simple problem with Hibernate, but can't get over it (Hibernate forums being unreachable certainly doesn't help). I have a simple class I'd like to persist, but keep getting: SEVERE: Field 'id' doesn't have a default value Exception in thread "main" org.hibernate.exception.GenericJDBCException: could not insert: [hibtest.model.Mensagem] at org.hibernate.exception.SQLStateConverter.handledNonSpecificException(SQLStateConverter.java:103) at org.hibernate.exception.SQLStateConverter.convert(SQLStateConverter.java:91) [ a bunch more ] Caused by: java.sql.SQLException: Field 'id' doesn't have a default value [ a bunch more ] The relevant code for the persisted class is: package hibtest.model; import javax.persistence.Entity; import javax.persistence.GeneratedValue; import javax.persistence.Id; import javax.persistence.Inheritance; import javax.persistence.InheritanceType; @Entity @Inheritance(strategy = InheritanceType.JOINED) public class Mensagem { protected Long id; protected Mensagem() { } @Id @GeneratedValue public Long getId() { return id; } public Mensagem setId(Long id) { this.id = id; return this; } } And the actual running code is just plain: SessionFactory factory = new AnnotationConfiguration() .configure() .buildSessionFactory(); { Session session = factory.openSession(); Transaction tx = session.beginTransaction(); Mensagem msg = new Mensagem("YARR!"); session.save(msg); tx.commit(); session.close(); } I tried some "strategies" within the GeneratedValue annotation but it just doesn't seem to work. Initializing id doesn't help either! (eg Long id = 20L). Could anyone shed some light? EDIT 2: confirmed: messing with@GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.XXX) doesn't solve it SOLVED: recreating the database solved the problem

    Read the article

  • How do I run JUnit from NetBeans?

    - by FarmBoy
    I've been trying to understand how to start writing and running JUnit tests. When I'm reading this article: http://junit.sourceforge.net/doc/testinfected/testing.htm I get the the middle of the page and they write, "JUnit comes with a graphical interface to run tests. Type the name of your test class in the field at the top of the window. Press the Run button." I don't know how to launch this program. I don't even know which package it is in, or how you run a library class from an IDE. Being stuck, I tried this NetBeans tutorial: http://www.netbeans.org/kb/docs/java/junit-intro.html It seemed to be going OK, but then I noticed that the menu options for this tutorial for testing a Java Class Library are different from those for a regular Java application, or for a Java Web App. So the instructions in this tutorial don't apply generally. I'm using NetBeans 6.7, and I've imported JUnit 4.5 into the libraries folder. What would be the normal way to run JUnit, after having written the tests? The JUnit FAQ describes the process from the Console, and I'm willing to do that if that is what is typical, but given all that I can do inside netbeans, it seems hard to believe that there isn't an easier way. Thanks much. EDIT: If I right-click on the project and select "Test" the output is: init: deps-jar: compile: compile-test: test-report: test: BUILD SUCCESSFUL (total time: 0 seconds) This doesn't strike me as the desired output of a test, especially since this doesn't change whether the test condition is true or not. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • How to use Scala in IntelliJ IDEA (or: why is it so difficult to get a working IDE for Scala)?

    - by Alex R
    I recently gave up trying to use Scala in Eclipse (basic stuff like completion doesn't work). So now I'm trying IntelliJ. I'm not getting very far. I've been able to edit programs (within syntax highlighting and completion... yay!). But I'm unable to run even the simplest "Hello World". This was the original error: Scala signature Predef has wrong version Expected 5.0 found: 4.1 in .... scala-library.jar But that was yesterday with IDEA 9.0.1. See below... UPDATE Today I uninstalled IntelliJ 9.0.1, and installed 9.0.2 Early Availability, with the 4/14 stable version of the Scala plug-in. Then I setup a project from scratch through the wizards: new project from scratch JDK is 1.6.u20 accept the default (project) instead of global / module accept the download of Scala 2.8.0beta1 into project's lib folder Created a new class: object hello { def main(args: Array[String]) { println("hello: " + args); } } For my efforts, I now have a brand-new error :) Here it is: Scalac internal error: class java.lang.ClassNotFoundException [java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:202), java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method), java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:190), java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:307), sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:301), java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:248), java.lang.Class.forName0(Native Method), java.lang.Class.forName(Class.java:169), org.jetbrains.plugins.scala.compiler.rt.ScalacRunner.main(ScalacRunner.java:72)] FINAL UPDATE I uninstalled 9.0.2 EA and reinstalled 9.0.1, but this time went with the 2.7.3 version of Scala rather than the default 2.7.6, because 2.7.3 is the one shown in the screen-shots at the IntelliJ website (I guess the screen-shots prove that they actually tested this version!). Now everything works!!!

    Read the article

  • Ajax render attribute don't work in a h:dataTable in JSF2

    - by u2ix
    Hello everybody, I have some problem's with a simple application in JSF 2.0. I try to build a ToDo List with ajax support. I have some todo strings which I display using a datatable. Inside this datatable I have a commandLink to delete a task. The problem is now that the datatable don't get re-rendered. <h:dataTable id="todoList" value="#{todoController.todos}" var="todo"> <h:column> <h:commandLink value="X" action="#{todoController.removeTodo(todo)}"> <f:ajax execute="@this" render="todoList" /> </h:commandLink> </h:column> <h:column> <h:outputText value="#{todo}"/> </h:column> </h:dataTable> Thanks for your help. Edit (TodoController): @ManagedBean @SessionScoped public class TodoController { private String todoStr; private ArrayList<String> todos; public TodoController() { todoStr=""; todos = new ArrayList<String>(); } public void addTodo() { todos.add(todoStr); } public void removeTodo(String deleteTodo) { todos.remove(deleteTodo); } /* getter / setter */ }

    Read the article

  • IE6 and fieldset background color?

    - by codemonkey613
    Hey, I'm having some difficulty with CSS and IE6 compatibility. URL: http://bit.ly/dlX7cS Problem #1: I put a background image on the fieldset around Canada and United States. In IE6 and IE7, the background bleeds above the border-top of the fieldset. So, I found a fix. It is applied only to IE browsers, and moves the legend up a few pixels, aligning the background correctly. <!-- Fix: IE6/IE7, Legends --> <!--[if lte IE 7]> <style type="text/css"> fieldset { position: relative; } fieldset legend { position: absolute; top: -0.5em; left: 0; } </style> <![endif]--> This fixes IE7. But in IE6, it seems to make my legend for Canada vanish completely. Does anyone have a copy of IE6 they can open my site and tell me if you see Canada label. (I am testing with a multi-IE program, and it keeps crashing. My copy might not be accurate). If it's not there, any suggestions on how to fix it? Also, any suggestion on where I can download working copy of IE6? Problem #2: I have a Google Map embedded using iframe. The width of that iframe is 515px. In Firefox, Chrome, IE7 -- that is the correct alignment. But in IE6, it gets <br/> underneath the Just Energy paragraph beside it. It doesn't fit. I have to change width to 513px for it to fit. Uhm, anyone know where those 2px of difference happen? I removed border, padding, margin from the iframe, but still something is happening. <!-- Google Maps --> <iframe class="gmap" src="http://maps.google.com/maps/ms?hl=en&amp;ie=UTF8&amp;msa=0&amp;msid=100146512697135839835.000481e2a2779e8865863&amp;ll=42,-100&amp;spn=20,80&amp;output=embed" frameborder="0" marginheight="0" marginwidth="0" scrolling="no"></iframe> <!-- / Google Maps --> Er, big headache. lol

    Read the article

  • GNU Make: How to call $(wildcard) within $(eval)

    - by bengineerd
    I'm trying to create a generic build template for my Makefiles, kind of like they discuss in the eval documentation. I can't seem to get the wildcard function to work within an eval. The basic code I'm having issues with looks like this. SRC_DIR = ./src/ PROG_NAME = test define PROGRAM_template $(1)_SRC_DIR = $(join $(SRC_DIR), $(1)/) $(1)_SRC_FILES = $(wildcard $$($(1)_SRC_DIR)*.c) endef $(eval $(call PROGRAM_template, $(PROG_NAME))) all: @echo $(test_SRC_DIR) @echo $(test_SRC_FILES) @echo $(wildcard $(wildcard $(test_SRC_DIR)*.c) When I run make with this, the output is ./src/test [correct list of all .c files in ./src/test/] Basically, the wildcard call within PROGRAM_template is not being eval'd as I expect it. The call results in an empty list. The join call is being eval'd correctly though. So, what am I doing wrong? My guess is that $$($(1)_SRC_DIR) is not correct, but I can't figure out the right way to do it. EDIT Once this was solved, it didn't take long for me to hit another issue with eval. I posted it as a new question at http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2428506/workaround-for-gnu-make-3-80-eval-bug

    Read the article

  • MSBuild fails, but building inside Visual Studio works fine

    - by Matt
    C#, .NET 2.0 I have an ASP.NET website in a solution, with 2 other projects (used as library references). When I build (debug or release) in Visual Studio, everything works fine. However, building with MSBuild fails. This build had been working (it's actually invoked via a nAnt task). The only thing that has changed is that I have a new user control whose Type I am referencing in my code behind. The offending code is in my ASPX code behind. MessageAlert is the UserControl: MessageAlert userControl = this.LoadControl("~/UserControls/MessageAlert.ascx") as MessageAlert; userControl.UserMessage = message; this.UserMessages.Controls.Add(userControl); In order to get Visual Studio to recognize the type 'MessageAlert' I had to: 1) Set the ClassName="MessageAlert" in the @Control markup at the top of the user control (because using the auto-generated UserControls_MessageAlert wasn't working either) 2) Register the user control in the markup of my ASPX, using an @Register 3) Add a "using ASP" to the top of my code behind After those steps, I could successfully reference the MessageAlert type in my codebehind from visual studio. But from MSBuild I get "The type or namespace name 'MessageAlert' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) " The MSBuild execution is very simple - it points the the very same solution file and sets the configuration property to release. It seems, based on the # of steps I had to go through to get Type references to MessageAlert in Visual Studio, that there is something missing in the MSBuild process. But what? Doesn't Visual Studio in fact invoke MSBuild behind the scenes? Is there a better way to reference a UserControl type in the code behind of an ASPX? EDIT: To clarify, the MessageAlert user control is not in the other referenced assemblies/projects. I mentioned them because, together with the website, the compose the Solution file, which is the same sln file being built by MS Build.

    Read the article

  • MSWord automation:Get file contents after it was saved

    - by BlackTigerX
    I have an application that uses MSWord automation to edit some documents, after they save and close word I need to grab the modified file and put it back on the repository, there is only one scenario where I can't get it to work and that is when the user makes changes to the file, selects to close word and selects yes to save the file there are 2 events that I'm using: DocumentBeforeSave Quit on the Quit event I'm trying to load the .docx file from disk but on this particular scenario I get an IOException because the file is still in use, somehow I need to wait until after the Quit event has been processed, which is when Word is actually closed and the file is no longer being used right now I have it working using this word.Visible = true; while (!wordDone) { //gets changed to true on the Quit event System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(100); } bool error = false; do { try { //need to load the contents of the modified file ls.Content = System.IO.File.ReadAllBytes(provider.GetFileName()); error = false; } catch (System.IO.IOException) { error = true; System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(200); } } while (error); while this works it is very ugly, I need a way to fire an event after the Quit event has been handled, or block the current thread while word is still running, or get an event after the document has been saved, the bottom line is I need a clean way to load the file after it has been saved and word is closed. DocumentAfterSave would be awesome, but doesn't seem to exist. I Also tried unhooking the Quit handler and calling word.Quit on the Quit handler, that made no difference

    Read the article

  • How can I get controller type and action info from a url or from route data?

    - by Rob Levine
    How can I get the controller action (method) and controller type that will be called, given the System.Web.Routing.RouteData? My scenario is this - I want to be able to do perform certain actions (or not) in the OnActionExecuting method for an action. However, I will often want to know not the current action, but the "root" action being called; by this I mean I may have a view called "Login", which is my login page. This view may include another partial view "LeftNav". When OnActionExecuting is called for LeftNav, I want to be able to determine that it is really being called for the "root" aciton of Login. I realise that by calling RouteTable.Routes.GetRouteData(actionExecutingContext.HttpContext), I can get the route for the "root" request, but how to turn this into method and type info? The only solution I have so far, is something like: var routeData = RouteTable.Routes.GetRouteData(actionExecutingContext.HttpContext) var routeController = (string)routeData.Values["controller"]; var routeAction = (string)routeData.Values["action"]; The problem with this is that "routeController" is the controller name with the "Controller" suffix removed, and is not fully qualified; ie it is "Login", rather than "MyCode.Website.LoginController". I would far rather get an actual Type and MethodInfo if possible, or at least a fully qualified type name. Any thoughts, or alternative approaches? [EDIT - this is ASP.Net MVC 1.0]

    Read the article

  • Metro UsernameToken Policy

    - by Rodney
    I created a web services client prototype using api's available in weblogic 10.3. I've been told I need to use Metro 2.0 instead (it's already being used for other projects). The problem I have encounter is that the WSDL does not include any Security Policy information but a UsernameToken is required for each method call. In weblogic I was able to write my own policy xml file and instantiate my service with it (see below), however I can not seem to figure out how to do the same using Metro. Policy.xml <?xml version="1.0"?> <wsp:Policy xmlns:wsp="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/ws/2004/09/policy" xmlns:sp="http://docs.oasis-open.org/ws-sx/ws-securitypolicy/200512"> <sp:SupportingTokens> <wsp:Policy> <sp:UsernameToken sp:IncludeToken="http://docs.oasis-open.org/ws-sx/ws-securitypolicy/200512/IncludeToken/AlwaysToRecipient"> <wsp:Policy> <sp:WssUsernameToken10/> <sp:HashPassword/> </wsp:Policy> </sp:UsernameToken> </wsp:Policy> </sp:SupportingTokens> </wsp:Policy> Client.java (Weblogic) ClientPolicyFeature cpf = new ClientPolicyFeature(); InputStream asStream = WebServiceSoapClient.class.getResourceAsStream("Policy.xml"); cpf.setEffectivePolicy(new InputStreamPolicySource(asStream)); try { webService = new WebService(new URL("http://192.168.1.10/WebService/WebService.asmx?wsdl"), new QName("http://testme.com", "WebService")); } catch ( MalformedURLException e ) { e.printStackTrace(); } WebServiceSoap client = webService.getWebServiceSoap(new WebServiceFeature[] {cpf}); List<CredentialProvider> credProviders = new ArrayList<CredentialProvider>(); String username = "user"; String password = "pass"; CredentialProvider cp = new ClientUNTCredentialProvider(username.getBytes(), password.getBytes()); credProviders.add(cp); Map<String, Object> rc = ((BindingProvider) client).getRequestContext(); rc.put(WSSecurityContext.CREDENTIAL_PROVIDER_LIST, credProviders); ... I am able to generate my Proxy classes using Metro however I can not figure out how to configure it to send the UsernameToken. I have attempted several different examples from the web which have not worked. Any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Why are floating point values so prolific?

    - by Kibbee
    So, title says it all. Why are floating point values so prolific in computer programming. Due to problems like rounding errors, and not being able to even accurately represent numbers such as 0.1, I really can't see how they got as far as they did. I understand that the computation is faster with floating point numbers, however, I can think of only a few cases that they actually the right data type would be using. If you sat back and think about every time you used a floating point value, how many times did you say, well, some error would be ok, as long as the result was a few microseconds faster. It really makes me think because Jeff was talking about NP completeness, and how heuristics give an answer that is kind of right. And well, computers shouldn't do that. They should give you the answer that is correct. Yet we see floating point values used in many applications where they are completely not valid. What really bugs me, isn't that floating point exists, but that in many languages, there isn't even a viable alternative, non-floating point, decimal value. A lot of programmers when doing financial applications have to fall back to storing the number of cents in an integer field. Which brings with it all kinds of other problems. Why do floats continue to be so prolific, even though they can't represent the real answer, and we expect computers to be accurate? [EDIT] Just to clarify, I was talking about Base 2 floating points, and not base 10 floating points. .Net offers the Decimal data type, which is a base 10 floating point value which offers a much better representation of the numbers we deal with on a daily basis in most computer programs. I find it hard to believe that even modern languages like Java don't support base 10 floating point values, unless you want to move into the realm of things like BigDecimal, which isn't really the right answer either in a lot of situations.

    Read the article

  • Filter a wpf collectionviewsource in VB?

    - by Johnny Westlake
    Hi, I want to filter a collectionviewsource using a filter I've written, but I'm not sure how I can apply the filter to it? Here is my collection view source: <Grid.Resources> <CollectionViewSource x:Key="myCollectionView" Source="{Binding Path=Query4, Source={x:Static Application.Current}}"> <CollectionViewSource.SortDescriptions> <scm:SortDescription PropertyName="ContactID" Direction="Descending"/> </CollectionViewSource.SortDescriptions> </CollectionViewSource> </Grid.Resources> I have implemented a filter as such: Private Sub WorkerFilter(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As FilterEventArgs) Dim value As Object = CType(e.Item, System.Data.DataRow)("StaffSection") If (Not value Is Nothing) And (Not value Is DBNull.Value) Then If (value = "Builder") Or (value = "Office Staff") Then e.Accepted = True Else e.Accepted = False End If End If End Sub So how can I get the CollectionViewSource filtered by the filter on load? Could you please give all hte code I need (only a few lines I figure) as I'm quite new to coding. Thanks guys EDIT: For the record, <CollectionViewSource x:Key="myCollectionView" Filter="WorkerFilter" ... /> gives me the error: Failed object initialization (ISupportInitialize.EndInit). 'System.Windows.Data.BindingListCollectionView' view does not support filtering. Error at object 'myCollectionView'

    Read the article

  • Jquery image preview plugin issue...

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    I have a problem with an image preview that comes up when you hover over a thumbnail. I can change the distance between the preview and the cursor, but if a thumbnail is close to the side of the window, the preview cant fit and you only see part of it.. hope that makes sense... is there a way to make it so that if the preview doesnt fit, it will show up on the other side of the cursor?.... Here is the script... this.imagePreview = function() { /* CONFIG */ xOffset = 10; yOffset = 30; // these 2 variable determine popup's distance from the cursor // you might want to adjust to get the right result /* END CONFIG */ $("a.preview").hover(function(e) { this.t = this.title; this.title = ""; var c = (this.t != "") ? "<br/>" + this.t : ""; $("body").append("<p id='preview'> <img src='" + this.href + "' alt='Image preview' />" + c + "</p>"); $("#preview") .css("top", (e.pageY - xOffset) + "px") .css("left", (e.pageX + yOffset) + "px") .fadeIn("slow"); }, function() { this.title = this.t; $("#preview").remove(); }); $("a.preview").mousemove(function(e) { $("#preview") .css("top", (e.pageY - xOffset) + "px") .css("left", (e.pageX + yOffset) + "px"); }); }; // starting the script on page load $(document).ready(function() { imagePreview(); }); EDIT: see what i am getting, http://img202.imageshack.us/img202/4991/browserpreviewf.jpg my image at the right corner of the page so when i hover the img my preview goes even further right that is besides the page scrollbar half the preview is available.... How to get the preview to the left of the cursor..

    Read the article

  • Unable to change the value of the variable

    - by Legend
    I'm using a discrete event simulator called ns-2 that was built using Tcl and C++. I was trying to write some code in TCL: set ns [new Simulator] set state 0 $ns at 0.0 "puts \"At 0.0 value of state is: $state\"" $ns at 1.0 "changeVal" $ns at 2.0 "puts \"At 2.0 values of state is: $state\"" proc changeVal {} { global state global ns $ns at-now "set state [expr $state+1]" puts "Changed value of state to $state" } $ns run Here's the output: At 0.0 value of state is: 0 Changed value of state to 0 At 2.0 values of state is: 0 The value of state does not seem to change. I am not sure if I am doing something wrong in using TCL. Anyone has an idea as to what might be going wrong here? EDIT: Thanks for the help. Actually, ns-2 is something over which I do not have much control (unless I recompile the simulator itself). I tried out the suggestions and here's the output: for the code: set ns [new Simulator] set state 0 $ns at 0.0 "puts \"At 0.0 value of state is: $state\"" $ns at 1.0 "changeVal" $ns at 9.0 "puts \"At 2.0 values of state is: $state\"" proc changeVal {} { global ns set ::state [expr {$::state+1}] $ns at-now "puts \"At [$ns now] changed value of state to $::state\"" } $ns run the output is: At 0.0 value of state is: 0 At 1 changed value of state to 1 At 2.0 values of state is: 0 And for the code: set ns [new Simulator] set state 0 $ns at 0.0 "puts \"At 0.0 value of state is: $state\"" $ns at 1.0 "changeVal" $ns at 9.0 "puts \"At 2.0 values of state is: $state\"" proc changeVal {} { global ns set ::state [expr {$::state+1}] $ns at 1.0 {puts "At 1.0 values of state is: $::state"} } $ns run the output is: At 0.0 value of state is: 0 At 1.0 values of state is: 1 At 2.0 values of state is: 0 Doesn't seem to work... Not sure if its a problem with ns2 or my code...

    Read the article

  • Java SwingWorker still uses 98% CPU after it's done.

    - by RemiX
    I am new to the Java SwingWorker class, but I'm trying to get it to do some stuff in the background. That part works already, but now, when it is finished, the Windows Task Manager still shows that 70-98% of the CPU is still being used. Before I hit the 'Start' button it is only 3-15% and after I close the program it returns to those values. But what is still happening when the SwingWorker already reported being done?? I'll give you a simplified version of my code: I have this StereoProcessor extending SwingWorker, with doInBackground(): yLoop for(some values y) { for(some values x) { if(isCancelled()) break yLoop; else { setProgress(to some value); // do some non-SingWorker-related stuff } } } return returnValue; I call to this process through another code: stereoProcessor.addPropertyChangeListener(new PropertyChangeListener() { public void propertyChange(PropertyChangeEvent evt) { if(evt.getPropertyName().equals("state")) if(evt.getNewValue().equals(StereoProcessor.StateValue.DONE) { // do stuff } } } }); stereoProcessor.computeSomething(); // this method calls execute() That's about it, so I don't understand what it keeps doing. I tried putting some System.outs in the code in different places, but all stopped printing after a while. Does anyone know what's going on? Edit: I noticed the CPU also keeps running after a simple call to a method in StereoProcessor that doesn't even call execute()...

    Read the article

  • Complex ModelBinders and being in charge of creating part of the model

    - by Kieron
    Hi, I've a scenario where I need to bind to an interface - in order to create the correct type, I've got a custom model binder that knows how to create the correct concrete type (which can differ). However, the type created never has the fields correctly filled in. I know I'm missing something blindingly simple here, but can anyone tell me why or at least what I need to do for the model binder to carry on it's work and bind the properties? public class ProductModelBinder : DefaultModelBinder { override public object BindModel (ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext) { if (bindingContext.ModelType == typeof (IProduct)) { var content = GetProduct (bindingContext); return content; } var result = base.BindModel (controllerContext, bindingContext); return result; } IProduct GetProduct (ModelBindingContext bindingContext) { var idProvider = bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue ("Id"); var id = (Guid)idProvider.ConvertTo (typeof (Guid)); var repository = RepositoryFactory.GetRepository<IProductRepository> (); var product = repository.Get (id); return product; } } The Model in my case is a complex type that has an IProduct property, and it's those values I need filled in. Model: [ProductBinder] public class Edit : IProductModel { public Guid Id { get; set; } public byte[] Version { get; set; } public IProduct Product { get; set; } }

    Read the article

  • Uploadify - Passing Information Back to The Original Form

    - by CccTrash
    I have an Send.aspx page that has an uploadify control on it. Upload.ashx handles the file upload. I am adding a file record to a sql database in the Upload.ashx file and I need to get the ID of that record back from Upload.aspx when it is done. Can't get it working with Sessions. =( Something to do with an Adobe bug? What would the best way to handle this be? Here is the uploadify control: <script type="text/javascript"> // <![CDATA[ var contestID = $('[id$=HiddenFieldContestID]').val(); var maxEntries = $('[id$=HiddenFieldMaxEntries]').val(); var userID = $('[id$=HiddenFieldUserID]').val(); $(document).ready(function() { $('#fileInput').uploadify({ 'uploader': '../uploadify/uploadify.swf', 'script': '../uploadify/Upload.ashx', 'scriptData': { 'contestID': contestID, 'maxEntries': maxEntries, 'userID': userID }, 'cancelImg': '../uploadify/cancel.png', 'auto': true, 'multi': false, 'fileDesc': 'Image Files', 'fileExt': '*.jpg;*.png;*.jpeg', 'queueSizeLimit': 1, 'sizeLimit': 4000000, 'buttonText': 'Choose Image', 'folder': '/uploads', 'onAllComplete': function(event, queueID, fileObj, response, data) { document.getElementById('<%= ButtonCleanup.ClientID %>').click(); } }); }); // ]]></script> Edit: See Answer below... Video Tutorial from start to finish: http://casonclagg.com/articles/6/video-tutorial-uploadify-asp-net-c-sharp.aspx

    Read the article

  • Custom Installer class , rollback method never called.

    - by yossi1981
    Hi guys. I am having an installer class , Here is a snippet: [RunInstaller(true)] public partial class ServerWrapInstaller : Installer { public override void Install(IDictionary stateSaver) { EventLog.WriteEntry("Installer", "Install", EventLogEntryType.Information); base.Install(stateSaver); } public override void Commit(IDictionary savedState) { EventLog.WriteEntry("Installer", "Commit", EventLogEntryType.Information); base.Commit(savedState); } public override void Rollback(IDictionary savedState) { EventLog.WriteEntry("Installer", "Rollback", EventLogEntryType.Information); base.Rollback(savedState); } public override void Uninstall(IDictionary savedState) { EventLog.WriteEntry("Installer", "UnInstall", EventLogEntryType.Information); base.Uninstall(savedState); } } Now i start the installation in full GUI mode and then click the "Cancel" button in the middle of the process causing the installation to roll back. The problem is that the RollBack method is not called. I don't see the expected entry in the event log. I want to mention that if i let the installation to complete , I do see the "Install" message in the event log and If i then uninstall , I see the "uninstall" message in the event log. But if stop the installtion process in the middle , by pressing the "cancel" button , I do see the progress bar going backward , but the rollback method is not called. what am I doing wrong ? thanks in advance for any help. Edit: Providing more details... The installer is an MSI package. The package is built in vs2009 using a setup project. The installer class is used as a custom action by the setup project. Since this is a MSI Package I have an option to run it in silent mode or in user-interactive more . When I wrote "Full GUI mode" , I ment User-Interactive mode.

    Read the article

  • multiple stateful iframes per page will overwrite JSESSIONID?

    - by Nikita
    Hello, Looking for someone to either confirm or refute my theory that deploying two iframes pointing to two different stateful pages on the same domain can lead to JSESSIONIDs being overwritten. Here's what I mean: Setup suppose you have two pages that require HttpSession state (session affinity) to function correctly - deployed at http://www.foo.com/page1 and http://www.foo.com/page2 assume www.foo.com is a single host running a Tomcat (6.0.20, fwiw) that uses JSESSIONID for session id's. suppose these pages are turned into two iframe widgets to be embedded on 3rd party sites: http://www.site.com/page1" / (and /page2 respectively) suppose there a 3rd party site that wishes to place both widgets on the same page at http://www.bar.com/foowidgets.html Can the following race condition occur? a new visitor goes to http://www.bar.com/foowidgets.html browser starts loading URLs in foowidgets.html including the two iframe 'src' URLs because browsers open multiple concurrent connections against the same host (afaik up to 6 in chrome/ff case) the browser happens to simultaneously issue requests for http://www.foo.com/page1 and http://www.foo.com/page2 The tomcat @ foo.com receives both requests at about the same time, calls getSession() for the first time (on two different threads) and lazily creates two HttpSessions and, thus, two JSESSIONIDs, with values $Page1 and $Page2. The requests also stuff data into respective sessions (that data will be required to process subsequent requests) assume that the browser first receives response to the page1 request. Browser sets cookie JSESSIONID=$Page1 for HOST www.foo.com next response to the page2 request is received and the browser overwrites cookie JSESSIONID for HOST www.foo.com with $Page2 user clicks on something in 'page1' iframe on foowidgets.html; browser issues 2nd request to http://www.foo.com/page1?action=doSomethingStateful. That request carries JSESSIONID=$Page2 (and not $Page1 - because cookie value was overwritten) when foo.com receives this request it looks up the wrong HttpSession instance (because JSESSIONID key is $Page2 and NOT $Page1). Foobar! Can the above happen? I think so, but would appreciate a confirmation. If the above is clearly possible, what are some solutions given that we'd like to support multiple iframes per page? We don't have a firm need for the iframes to share the same HttpSession, though that would be nice. In the event that the solution will still stipulate a separate HttpSession per iframe, it is - of course - mandatory that iframe 1 does not end up referencing httpSession state for iframe 2 instead of own. off top of my head I can think of: map page1 and page2 to different domains (ops overhead) use URL rewriting and never cookies (messes up analytics) anything else? thanks a lot, -nikita

    Read the article

  • Creating a Custom Design-Time Environment

    - by Charlie
    Hello all, My question is related to the design-time support of WPF. From MSDN I read, The WPF Designer provides a framework and a public API which you can use to implement custom adorners, tools, property editors, and designers. But the vast majority of the examples I have found are trivial, and do not illustrate much concerning the creation of a customized designer in an existing WPF application. We have migrated our application from Windows Forms to WPF over the past year, and the next step will be to take an existing WinForms Panel designer, and rewrite it in WPF. Suffice it to say that this will be a huge project. But I don't even know where to begin. I am wondering if any of you have had similar experiences writing a customized designer for a WPF application, and what it was like. Even better, if you could compare and contrast the functionality between the WinForms designer and the WPF designer, or explain the transition from the former to the latter, that would be helpful. If you know of any simple examples that demonstrate a customized design environment (with custom controls, etc.) that would be extremely beneficial. All in all, I am just wondering if many people have undertaken this yet, and what their results have been. EDIT: To clarify, yes, I am talking about hosting a WPF designer. It appears that this may not even be possible, which is a huge setback. Here is a screenshot of our current WinForms designer. As you can see, it is used to create customized user interfaces. You can drag custom controls onto it and design them, then put the panel into a "run mode" in which all of the controls become functional. Short of spending months writing our designer, would this be possible in WPF? What about .NET 4.0 and VS2010? Will those add any designer functionality?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 827 828 829 830 831 832 833 834 835 836 837 838  | Next Page >