Search Results

Search found 22986 results on 920 pages for 'array difference'.

Page 835/920 | < Previous Page | 831 832 833 834 835 836 837 838 839 840 841 842  | Next Page >

• How can a C/C++ program put itself into background?

  - by Larry Gritz

  What's the best way for a running C or C++ program that's been launched from the command line to put itself into the background, equivalent to if the user had launched from the unix shell with '&' at the end of the command? (But the user didn't.) It's a GUI app and doesn't need any shell I/O, so there's no reason to tie up the shell after launch. But I want a shell command launch to be auto-backgrounded without the '&' (or on Windows). Ideally, I want a solution that would work on any of Linux, OS X, and Windows. (Or separate solutions that I can select with #ifdef.) It's ok to assume that this should be done right at the beginning of execution, as opposed to somewhere in the middle. One solution is to have the main program be a script that launches the real binary, carefully putting it into the background. But it seems unsatisfying to need these coupled shell/binary pairs. Another solution is to immediately launch another executed version (with 'system' or CreateProcess), with the same command line arguments, but putting the child in the background and then having the parent exit. But this seems clunky compared to the process putting itself into background. Edited after a few answers: Yes, a fork() (or system(), or CreateProcess on Windows) is one way to sort of do this, that I hinted at in my original question. But all of these solutions make a SECOND process that is backgrounded, and then terminate the original process. I was wondering if there was a way to put the EXISTING process into the background. One difference is that if the app was launched from a script that recorded its process id (perhaps for later killing or other purpose), the newly forked or created process will have a different id and so will not be controllable by any launching script, if you see what I'm getting at. Edit #2: fork() isn't a good solution for OS X, where the man page for 'fork' says that it's unsafe if certain frameworks or libraries are being used. I tried it, and my app complains loudly at runtime: "The process has forked and you cannot use this CoreFoundation functionality safely. You MUST exec()." I was intrigued by daemon(), but when I tried it on OS X, it gave the same error message, so I assume that it's just a fancy wrapper for fork() and has the same restrictions. Excuse the OS X centrism, it just happens to be the system in front of me at the moment. But I am indeed looking for a solution to all three platforms.

  Read the article

• Any thoughts on how to create a true 'punch-out' area in a Sprite?

  - by rhtx

  I've been working on this for awhile, now. You might also call it a 'reverse mask', or an 'inverse mask'. Basically, I'm creating a view window within a display object. I need to allow objects on the stage that are under the window to be able to interact with the mouse. This is similar to a WPF question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/740994/use-wpf-object-to-punch-hole-in-another, which has a much shorter write-up. I've got a Class called PunchOutShield, which creates a Sprite that covers the stage (or over some desired area). The Sprite's Graphics object is filled using the color and transparency of Flex's modal screen. The result is a screen that looks like the screen which appears behind a modal PopUp. PunchOutShield has a method called punch, which takes two arguments - the first is a Shape object, which defines the shape of the punch-through area; the second is a Point object, which indicates where to position the punch-through area. It took some experimenting, but I found that I can successfully create a punch-out area (i.e. - the modal screen does not display within the bounds of the given Shape). To do this, I set cacheAsBitmap to true on the Sprite that is used to create the modal screen, and also on the Shape object, which is added to the modal screen Sprite's displayList. If I set the blend mode of the Shape to ERASE, a completely transparent area is created in the modal screen. So far, great. The problem is that Shape does not subclass InteractiveObject, so there is no way to set mouseEnabled = false on it. And so, it prevents interaction between the mouse and any objects that are visible through the punch-out area. On top of that, InteractiveObject isn't available to look at, so I can't see if there is a way to borrow what it's doing to provide the mouseEnabled functionality and apply it to a subclass of Shape. I've tried using another Sprite object, rather than a Shape object, but the blending doesn't work out correctly. I'm not sure why there is a difference, but the Shape object seems to somehow combine with the parenting Sprite, allowing the ERASE blendMode to effect the desired punch-out visual appearance. It wouldn't be the end of the world if I had to draw up the screen with a series of rectangles so that the punch-out area was just simply not drawn, but that approach won't work if the punch-out area is complex. Or round. Any thoughts on this approach, or on an alternative approach?

  Read the article

• Some specific questions about object oriented and MVC design.

  - by Samn

  I have two objects, Users and Mail. Users create Mail objects and send them to other users. If I wanted to get all mail for a User, I could create a method like GetMail() that would return an array of Mail objects owned by that User. But if I wanted to get all mail across the system, what "type" of object would be responsible for that? To solve this problem, I usually create a Manager, which is an object responsible for dealing with a collection of a particular type of object. MailManager deals with collections of Mail objects. GetMailForUser() is one method, GetAllMail() is another method. The User objects invokes the MailManager and executes GetMailForUser(me). Is this stupid? When a user executes the controller CreateMail, a new instance of the Mail object is created. The Mail object, seeing it is creating a new Mail of type 'sent', decides to go ahead and create a second Mail object for the recipient, of type 'received'. Creating one Mail object triggers the creation of a second Mail object. Is this stupid? Should the controller have created both Mail objects, or just the first 'sent' one? When two Users are friends, the association is stored in a table of Relationships. I use a simple object for Relationships. A RelationshipManager has a method called GetFriendsForUser(). The User object has a method GetFriends(), which invokes the RelationshipManager. Is this stupid?

  Read the article

• Implementing a c/c++ style union as a column in MySQL

  - by user81338

  Friends, I have a strange need and cannot think my way through the problem. The great and mighty Google is of little help due to keyword recycling (as you'll see). Can you help? What I want to do is store data of multiple types in a single column in MySQL. This is the database equivalent to a C union (and if you search for MySQL and Union, you obviously get a whole bunch of stuff on the UNION keyword in SQL). [Contrived and simplified case follows] So, let us say that we have people - who have names - and STORMTROOPERS - who have TK numbers. You cannot have BOTH a NAME and a TK number. You're either BOB SMITH -or- TK409. In C I could express this as a union, like so: union { char * name; int tkNo; } EmperialPersonnelRecord; This makes it so that I am either storing a pointer to a char array or an ID in the type EmperialPersonnelRecord, but not both. I am looking for a MySQL equivalent on a column. My column would store either an int, double, or varchar(255) (or whatever combination). But would only take up the space of the largest element. Is this possible? (of course anything is possible given enough time, money and will - I mean is it possible if I am poor, lazy and on a deadline... aka "out of the box")

  Read the article

• CakePHP Routes: Messing With The MVC

  - by thesunneversets

  So we have a real-estate-related site that has controller/action pairs like "homes/view", "realtors/edit", and so forth. From on high it has been deemed a good idea to refactor the site so that URLS are now in the format "/realtorname/homes/view/id", and perhaps also "/admin/homes/view/id" and/or "/region/..." As a mere CakePHP novice I'm finding it difficult to achieve this in routes.php. I can do the likes of: Router::connect('/:filter/h/:id', array('controller'=>'homes','action'=>'view')); Router::connect('/admin/:controller/:action/:id'); But I'm finding that the id is no longer being passed simply and elegantly to the actions, now that controller and action do not directly follow the domain. Therefore, questions: Is it a stupid idea to play fast and loose with the /controller/action format in this way? Is there a better way of stating these routes so that things don't break egregiously? Would we be better off going back to subdomains (the initial method of achieving this type of functionality, shot down on potentially spurious SEO-related grounds)? Many thanks for any advice! I'm sorry that I'm such a newbie that I don't know whether I'm asking stupid questions or not....

  Read the article

• Zend Partial + Zend Action Helper causes an additional request to bootstrap?

  - by AndreLiem

  I've been profiling some zend framework code with webgrind to see where some bottle necks are and I'm noticing some very odd behavior. Using the zend partial for example, if I pass a variable value that comes from a zend action helper, it results in two requests being made. in sample.phtml echo $this->partial('partial/embed.phtml', array('url' => $this->url)); in indexcontroller.php $this->view->url = $this->_helper->Embed()->url; But if I don't pass the value from the helper to the partial, but still run the helper, it only makes one request in webgrind. e.g. $this->view->url = 'test'; $this->_helper->Embed()->url; Does anybody know why this could be happening? Am I potentially interpreting web grind incorrectly, or is it really calling the bootstrap twice when the an action helper value is tied to a partial? I'm starting to realize how inefficient some components of Zend are. Thanks

  Read the article

• minimum L sum in a mxn matrix - 2

  - by hilal

  Here is my first question about maximum L sum and here is different and hard version of it. Problem : Given a mxn *positive* integer matrix find the minimum L sum from 0th row to the m'th row . L(4 item) likes chess horse move Example : M = 3x3 0 1 2 1 3 2 4 2 1 Possible L moves are : (0 1 2 2), (0 1 3 2) (0 1 4 2) We should go from 0th row to the 3th row with minimum sum I solved this with dynamic-programming and here is my algorithm : 1. Take a mxn another Minimum L Moves Sum array and copy the first row of main matrix. I call it (MLMS) 2. start from first cell and look the up L moves and calculate it 3. insert it in MLMS if it is less than exists value 4. Do step 2. until m'th row 5. Choose the minimum sum in the m'th row Let me explain on my example step by step: M[ 0 ][ 0 ] sum(L1 = (0, 1, 2, 2)) = 5 ; sum(L2 = (0,1,3,2)) = 6; so MLMS[ 0 ][ 1 ] = 6 sum(L3 = (0, 1, 3, 2)) = 6 ; sum(L4 = (0,1,4,2)) = 7; so MLMS[ 2 ][ 1 ] = 6 M[ 0 ][ 1 ] sum(L5 = (1, 0, 1, 4)) = 6; sum(L6 = (1,3,2,4)) = 10; so MLMS[ 2 ][ 2 ] = 6 ... the last MSLS is : 0 1 2 4 3 6 6 6 6 Which means 6 is the minimum L sum that can be reach from 0 to the m. I think it is O(8*(m-1)*n) = O(m*n). Is there any optimal solution or dynamic-programming algorithms fit this problem? Thanks, sorry for long question

  Read the article

• Where do objects merge/join data in a 3-tier model?

  - by BerggreenDK

  Its probarbly a simple 3-tier problem. I just want to make sure we use the best practice for this and I am not that familiary with the structures yet. We have the 3 tiers: GUI: ASP.NET for Presentation-layer (first platform) BAL: Business-layer will be handling the logic on a webserver in C#, so we both can use it for webforms/MVC + webservices DAL: LINQ to SQL in the Data-layer, returning BusinessObjects not LINQ. DB: The SQL will be Microsoft SQL-server/Express (havent decided yet). Lets think of setup where we have a database of [Persons]. They can all have multiple [Address]es and we have a complete list of all [PostalCode] and corresponding citynames etc. The deal is that we have joined a lot of details from other tables. {Relations}/[tables] [Person]:1 --- N:{PersonAddress}:M --- 1:[Address] [Address]:N --- 1:[PostalCode] Now we want to build the DAL for Person. How should the PersonBO look and when does the joins occure? Is it a business-layer problem to fetch all citynames and possible addressses pr. Person? or should the DAL complete all this before returning the PersonBO to the BAL ? Class PersonBO { public int ID {get;set;} public string Name {get;set;} public List<AddressBO> {get;set;} // Question #1 } // Q1: do we retrieve the objects before returning the PersonBO and should it be an Array instead? or is this totally wrong for n-tier/3-tier?? Class AddressBO { public int ID {get;set;} public string StreetName {get;set;} public int PostalCode {get;set;} // Question #2 } // Q2: do we make the lookup or just leave the PostalCode for later lookup? Can anyone explain in what order to pull which objects? Constructive criticism is very welcome. :o)

  Read the article

• Combining FileStream and MemoryStream to avoid disk accesses/paging while receiving gigabytes of data?

  - by w128

  I'm receiving a file as a stream of byte[] data packets (total size isn't known in advance) that I need to store somewhere before processing it immediately after it's been received (I can't do the processing on the fly). Total received file size can vary from as small as 10 KB to over 4 GB. One option for storing the received data is to use a MemoryStream, i.e. a sequence of MemoryStream.Write(bufferReceived, 0, count) calls to store the received packets. This is very simple, but obviously will result in out of memory exception for large files. An alternative option is to use a FileStream, i.e. FileStream.Write(bufferReceived, 0, count). This way, no out of memory exceptions will occur, but what I'm unsure about is bad performance due to disk writes (which I don't want to occur as long as plenty of memory is still available) - I'd like to avoid disk access as much as possible, but I don't know of a way to control this. I did some testing and most of the time, there seems to be little performance difference between say 10 000 consecutive calls of MemoryStream.Write() vs FileStream.Write(), but a lot seems to depend on buffer size and the total amount of data in question (i.e the number of writes). Obviously, MemoryStream size reallocation is also a factor. Does it make sense to use a combination of MemoryStream and FileStream, i.e. write to memory stream by default, but once the total amount of data received is over e.g. 500 MB, write it to FileStream; then, read in chunks from both streams for processing the received data (first process 500 MB from the MemoryStream, dispose it, then read from FileStream)? Another solution is to use a custom memory stream implementation that doesn't require continuous address space for internal array allocation (i.e. a linked list of memory streams); this way, at least on 64-bit environments, out of memory exceptions should no longer be an issue. Con: extra work, more room for mistakes. So how do FileStream vs MemoryStream read/writes behave in terms of disk access and memory caching, i.e. data size/performance balance. I would expect that as long as enough RAM is available, FileStream would internally read/write from memory (cache) anyway, and virtual memory would take care of the rest. But I don't know how often FileStream will explicitly access a disk when being written to. Any help would be appreciated.

  Read the article

• Mysql Query is not working in edited jTable code, why?

  - by Furkan Kadioglu

  I'm using this example: www.jtable.org I've downloaded the jTable PHP version. I then edited the script. The jTable simple version is working, but my edited version isn't. I can create a list, but I can't add a row; this code is causing problems. However, PHP doesn't display any error messages. else if($_GET["action"] == "create") { //Insert record into database $result = mysql_query("INSERT INTO veriler(bolge, sehir, firma, adres, tel, web) VALUES('" . $_POST["bolge"] . "', '" . $_POST["sehir"] . "', '" . $_POST["firma"] . "', '" . $_POST["adres"] . "', '" . $_POST["tel"] . "', '" . $_POST["web"] . "'"); //Get last inserted record (to return to jTable) $result = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM veriler WHERE id = LAST_INSERT_ID();"); $row = mysql_fetch_array($result); //Return result to jTable $jTableResult = array(); $jTableResult['Result'] = "OK"; $jTableResult['Record'] = $row; print json_encode($jTableResult); } What is the problem?

  Read the article

• How to mimic polymorphism in classes with template methods (c++)?

  - by davide

  in the problem i am facing i need something which works more or less like a polymorphic class, but which would allow for virtual template methods. the point is, i would like to create an array of subproblems, each one being solved by a different technique implemented in a different class, but holding the same interface, then pass a set of parameters (which are functions/functors - this is where templates jump up) to all the subproblems and get back a solution. if the parameters would be, e.g., ints, this would be something like: struct subproblem { ... virtual void solve (double& solution, double parameter)=0; } struct subproblem0: public subproblem { ... virtual void solve (double& solution, double parameter){...}; } struct subproblem1: public subproblem { ... virtual void solve (double* solution, double parameter){...}; } int main{ subproblem problem[2]; subproblem[0] = new subproblem0(); subproblem[1] = new subproblem1(); double argument0(0), argument1(1), sol0[2], sol1[2]; for(unsigned int i(0);i<2;++i) { problem[i]->solve( &(sol0[i]) , argument0); problem[i]->solve( &(sol1[i]) , argument1); } return 0; } but the problem is, i need the arguments to be something like Arg<T1,T2> argument0(f1,f2) and thus the solve method to be something of the likes of template<T1,T2> solve (double* solution, Arg<T1,T2> parameter) which cant obviously be declared virtual ( so cant be called from a pointer to the base class)... now i'm pretty stuck and don't know how to procede...

  Read the article

• MySQL query returning mysql_error

  - by Sebastian

  This returns mysql_error: <?php $name = $_POST['inputName2']; $email = $_POST['inputEmail2']; $instruments = $_POST['instruments']; $city = $_POST['inputCity']; $country = $_POST['inputCountry']; $distance = $_POST['distance']; // ^^ These all echo properly ^^ // CONNECT TO DB $dbhost = "xxx"; $dbname = "xxx"; $dbuser = "xxx"; $dbpass = "xxx"; $con = mysqli_connect("$dbhost", "$dbuser", "$dbpass", "$dbname"); if (mysqli_connect_errno()) { echo "Failed to connect to MySQL: " . mysqli_connect_error(); } $query = "INSERT INTO depfinder (name, email, instrument1, instrument2, instrument3, instrument4, instrument5, city, country, max_distance) VALUES ($name, $email, $instruments[0], $instruments[1], $instruments[2], $instruments[3], $instruments[4], $city, $country, $max_distance)"; $result = mysqli_query($con, $query) or die(mysqli_error($con)); // script fails here if (!$result) { echo "There was a problem with the signup process. Please try again later."; } else { echo "Success"; } } ?> N.B. I'm not sure whether it's relevant, but the user may not choose five instruments so some $instrument[] array values may be empty. Bonus question: is my script secure enough or is there more I could do?

  Read the article

• Objective C code to handle large amount of data processing in iPhone

  - by user167662

  I had the following code that takes in 14 mb or more of image data encoded in base4 string and converts them to jpeg before writing to a file in iphone. It crashes my program giving the following error : Program received signal: “0”. warning: check_safe_call: could not restore current frame I tweak my program and it can process a few more images before the error appear again. My coding is as follows: // parameters is an array where the fourth element contains a list of images in base64 >encoded string NSMutableArray *imageStrList = (NSMutableArray*) [parameters objectAtIndex:5]; while (imageStrList.count != 0) { NSString *imgString = [imageStrList objectAtIndex:0]; // Create a file name using my own Utility class NSString *fileName = [Utility generateFileNName]; NSData *restoredImg = [NSData decodeWebSafeBase64ForString:imgString]; UIImage *img = [UIImage imageWithData: restoredImg]; NSData *imgJPEG = UIImageJPEGRepresentation(img, 0.4f); [imgJPEG writeToFile:fileName atomically:YES]; [imageStrList removeObjectAtIndex:0]; } I tried playing around with UIImageJPEGRepresentation and found out that the lower the value, the more image it can processed but this should not be the way. I am wondering if there is anyway to free up memory of the imageStrList immediately after processing each image so that it can be used by the next one in the line.

  Read the article

• Consume a JSON webservice and process data in Android

  - by user1783391

  I am trying to consume a the webservice below http://62.253.195.179/disaster/webservices/login.php?message=[{"email":"[email protected]","password":"welcome"}] This returns a JSON array [{"companyuserId":"2","name":"ben stein","superiorname":"Leon","departmentId":"26","departmentname":"Development","companyId":"23","UDID":"12345","isActive":"1","devicetoken":"12345","email":"[email protected]","phone":"5456465465654","userrole":"1","chngpwdStatus":"1"}] My code is below try{ String weblink = URLEncoder.encode("http://62.253.195.179/disaster/webservices/login.php?message=[{\"email\":\"[email protected]\",\"password\":\"welcome\"}]"); HttpParams httpParameters = new BasicHttpParams(); int timeoutConnection = 7500; HttpConnectionParams.setConnectionTimeout(httpParameters, timeoutConnection); int timeoutSocket = 7500; HttpConnectionParams.setSoTimeout(httpParameters, timeoutSocket); HttpClient client = new DefaultHttpClient(httpParameters); HttpGet request = new HttpGet(); URI link = new URI(weblink); request.setURI(link); HttpResponse response = client.execute(request); BufferedReader rd = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader( response.getEntity().getContent())); result = rd.readLine(); JSONObject myData = new JSONObject(result); JSONArray jArray = myData.getJSONArray(""); JSONObject steps = jArray.getJSONObject(0); String name = steps.getString("name"); } catch (JSONException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } But its not working and I am not 100% sure this is the best way to do it. 11-10 10:49:55.489: E/AndroidRuntime(392): java.lang.IllegalStateException: Target host must not be null, or set in parameters.

  Read the article

• Does className exist in Mootools ?

  - by anna mae

  Hi, I want to update this very simple JS to Mootools 1.2 and it's not easy. This function : function changeclass(x){ document.getElementById("content").className = "ziclass0"; document.getElementById("content").className = "ziclass" + x; } is triggered in the DOM by : <div id="someclass"> a href="javascript: changeclass(0)">Unstyled</a a href="javascript: changeclass(1)">link one</a a href="javascript: changeclass(2)">link two</a a href="javascript: changeclass(3)">link three</a </div> to call the according CSS classes like : .ziclass1 h1{ color: rgb(142,11,0); font-family: Verdana; font-size: 2.5em; letter-spacing: 0.1em; } and changes the layout accordingly in : <div id="content" class="ziclass3"> ... </div> I know I can add an event to the triggers like : $(#someclass.each(function(element,index) { element.addEvent('click', function(){ //some code }); But, how do I get #content class classname ? Through an array ? I am a bit confused here. I'd be really grateful for any help to set me on the right track

  Read the article

• Dependency injection in constructors

  - by andre

  Hello everyone. I'm starting a new project and setting up the base to work on. A few questions have risen and I'll probably be asking quite a few in here, hopefully I'll find some answers. First step is to handle dependencies for objects. I've decided to go with the dependency injection design pattern, to which I'm somewhat new, to handle all of this for the application. When actually coding it I came across a problem. If a class has multiple dependencies and you want to pass on multiple dependencies via the constructor (so that they cannot be changed after you instantiate the object). How do you do it without passing an array of dependencies, using call_user_func_array(), eval() or Reflection? This is what i'm looking for: <?php class DI { public function getClass($classname) { if(!$this->pool[$classname]) { # Load dependencies $deps = $this->loadDependencies($classname); # Here is where the magic should happen $instance = new $classname($dep1, $dep2, $dep3); # Add to pool $this->pool[$classname] = $instance; return $instance; } else { return $this->pool[$classname]; } } } Again, I would like to avoid the most costly methods to call the class. Any other suggestions?

  Read the article

• How to get all Div within a table using javascript

  - by Rajesh Rolen- DotNet Developer

  please tell me how can i get array of all Those DIV of specific table whose LANG="1" using javascript table structure is like this: < table > < tr > < td > < div id=1 lang="1" > some metter < /div > < /td >< /tr > < tr > < td > < div id=2 lang="2" > some metter < /div > < /td >< /tr > < tr > < td > < div id=3 lang="1" > some metter < /div > < /td >< /tr > < tr > < td > < div id=4 lang="1" > some metter < /div > < /td >< /tr > < /table >

  Read the article

• AddEvenLister fires off immediately after being attached

  - by Diego

  I want to know how to correctly add an Event Listener like onClick to a dynamic div. Here’s my snippet: var $menu = new Array(2); createDiv('yes'); function createDiv(title) { var $class = 'menuLink'; var $title = 'title'; for(var i=0; i<$menu.length;i++) { $title = 'title'; var newdiv = document.createElement('div'); newdiv.setAttribute('class', $class); newdiv.setAttribute('id', 'item'+i); newdiv.addEventListener('onclick', clickHandle(newdiv.id),false); if (title) { newdiv.innerHTML = $title; } else { newdiv.innerHTML = "No Title"; } document.getElementById('menu').appendChild(newdiv); showMenu(); } } function clickHandle(e) { if(e == 'item0') { alert('Link is' + ' ' + e); }else{ alert('Another Link'); } } Here's my problem, the snippet works fine, It creates my divs, adds id's values and all, but the event fires off as soon as the event is attached, so while the for loop is creating the divs the alert window says: Link is item0, and immediately after this it says: Another Link. Am I misunderstanding this? (I used this method zillions of times in AS3 with the expected result, just attached a function waiting for a click). What I want is that my Divs wait for the user to click on them, not to fire off immediately after of being attached. Thanks for any hint on this one. Greetings. Ps. IE doesn't support addEventListener, but I want to resolve this before cross to the IE sea of madness, but I will appreciate the IE approach as well. - I tried "onclick" and just 'click' into the addEventListener line, both with the same result described above.

  Read the article

• Stored procedure performance randomly plummets; trivial ALTER fixes it. Why?

  - by gWiz

  I have a couple of stored procedures on SQL Server 2005 that I've noticed will suddenly take a significantly long time to complete when invoked from my ASP.NET MVC app running in an IIS6 web farm of four servers. Normal, expected completion time is less than a second; unexpected anomalous completion time is 25-45 seconds. The problem doesn't seem to ever correct itself. However, if I ALTER the stored procedure (even if I don't change anything in the procedure, except to perhaps add a space to the script created by SSMS Modify command), the completion time reverts to expected completion time. IIS and SQL Server are running on separate boxes, both running Windows Server 2003 R2 Enterprise Edition. SQL Server is Standard Edition. All machines have dual Xeon E5450 3GHz CPUs and 4GB RAM. SQL Server is accessed using its TCP/IP protocol over gigabit ethernet (not sure what physical medium). The problem is present from all web servers in the web farm. When I invoke the procedure from a query window in SSMS on my development machine, the procedure completes in normal time. This is strange because I was under the impression that SSMS used the same SqlClient driver as in .NET. When I point my development instance of the web app to the production database, I again get the anomalous long completion time. If my SqlCommand Timeout is too short, I get System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding. Question: Why would performing ALTER on the stored procedure, without actually changing anything in it, restore the completion time to less than a second, as expected? Edit: To clarify, when the procedure is running slow for the app, it simultaneously runs fine in SSMS with the same parameters. The only difference I can discern is login credentials (next time I notice the behavior, I'll be checking from SSMS with the same creds). The ultimate goal is to get the procs to sustainably run with expected speed without requiring occasional intervention. Resolution: I wanted to to update this question in case others are experiencing this issue. Following the leads of the answers below, I was able to consistently reproduce this behavior. In order to test, I utilize sp_recompile and pass it one of the susceptible sprocs. I then initiate a website request from my browser that will invoke the sproc with atypical parameters. Lastly, I initiate a website request to a page that invokes the sproc with typical parameters, and observe that the request does not complete because of a SQL timeout on the sproc invocation. To resolve this on SQL Server 2005, I've added OPTIMIZE FOR hints to my SELECT. The sprocs that were vulnerable all have the "all-in-one" pattern described in this article. This pattern is certainly not ideal but was a necessary trade-off given the timeframe for the project.

  Read the article

• Calculating the Angle Between Two vectors Using Dot Product

  - by P. Avery

  I'm trying to calculate the angle between two vectors so that I can rotate a character in the direction of an object in 3D space. I have two vectors( character & object), loc_look, and modelPos respectively. For simplicity's sake I am only trying to rotate along the up axis...yaw. loc_look = D3DXVECTOR3 (0, 0, 1), modelPos = D3DXVECTOR3 (0, 0, 15); I have written this code which seems to be the correct calculations. My problem arises, seemingly, because the rotation I apply to the character's look vector(loc_look) exceeds the value of the object's position (modelPos). Here is my code: BOOL CEntity::TARGET() { if(graphics.m_model->m_enemy) { D3DXVECTOR3 modelPos = graphics.m_model->position; D3DXVec3Normalize(&modelPos, &modelPos); //D3DXVec3Normalize(&loc_look, &loc_look); float dot = D3DXVec3Dot(&loc_look, &modelPos); float yaw = acos(dot); BOOL neg = (loc_look.x > modelPos.x) ? true : false; switch ( neg ) { case false: Yaw(yaw); return true; case true: Yaw(-yaw); return true; } } else return false; } I rotate the character's orientation matrix with the following code: void CEntity::CalculateOrientationMatrix(D3DXMATRIX *orientationMatrix) { D3DXMatrixRotationAxis(&rotY, &loc_up, loc_yaw); D3DXVec3TransformCoord(&loc_look, &loc_look, &rotY); D3DXVec3TransformCoord(&loc_right, &loc_right, &rotY); D3DXMatrixRotationAxis(&rotX, &loc_right, loc_pitch); D3DXVec3TransformCoord(&loc_look, &loc_look, &rotX); D3DXVec3TransformCoord(&loc_up, &loc_up, &rotX); D3DXMatrixRotationAxis(&rotZ, &loc_look, loc_roll); D3DXVec3TransformCoord(&loc_up, &loc_up, &rotZ); D3DXVec3TransformCoord(&loc_right, &loc_right, &rotZ); *orientationMatrix *= rotX * rotY * rotZ; orientationMatrix->_41 = loc_position.x; orientationMatrix->_42 = loc_position.y; orientationMatrix->_43 = loc_position.z; //D3DXVec3Normalize(&loc_look, &loc_look); SetYawPitchRoll(0,0,0); // Reset Yaw, Pitch, & Roll Amounts } Also to note, the modelPos.x increases by 0.1 each iteration so the character will face the object as it moves along the x-axis... Now, when I run program, in the first iteration everything is fine(I haven't rotated the character yet). On the second iteration, the loc_look.x value is greater than the modelPos.x value(I rotated the character too much using the angle specified with the dot product calculations in the TARGET function). Therefore on the second iteration my code will rotate the character left to adjust for the difference in the vectors' x values... How can I tighten up the measurements so that I do not rotate my character's look vector by too great a value?

  Read the article

• Query to look up comment in one table, username in another table

  - by John

  Hello, I am using a MySQL table called "login" with the following structure: loginid, username, password, email, actcode, disabled, activated, created, points I am using another MySQL table called "comment" with the following structure: commentid, loginid, submissionid, comment, datecommented For a given "submisssionid", I would like to print out the following information from the table "comment": -The fields "comment" and "datecommented". At the same time, I would like to print out the following from the table "login": -The "username" that corresponds to the "loginid" for each row being row being selected from the table "comment". How can I do this? I tried the code below but it did not work. Thanks in advance, John $submission = mysql_real_escape_string($_GET['submission']); $submissionid = mysql_real_escape_string($_GET['submissionid']); $sqlStr = "SELECT c.loginid ,c.submissionid ,c.comment ,c.datecommented ,l.username ,COUNT(c.commentid) countComments FROM comment c WHERE c.submissionid = $submissionid INNER JOIN login l ON c.loginid = l.loginid GROUP BY c.submissionid ORDER BY c.datecommented DESC LIMIT 100"; $result = mysql_query($sqlStr); $arr = array(); echo "<table class=\"samplesrec\">"; while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename1">'.$row["comment"].'</td>'; echo '</tr>'; echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename2"><a href="http://www...com/sandbox/members/index.php?profile='.$row["username"].'">'.$row["username"].'</a>'.$row["datecommented"].'</td>'; echo '</tr>'; } echo "</table>";

  Read the article

• What category of combinatorial problems appear on the logic games section of the LSAT?

  - by Merjit

  There's a category of logic problem on the LSAT that goes like this: Seven consecutive time slots for a broadcast, numbered in chronological order I through 7, will be filled by six song tapes-G, H, L, O, P, S-and exactly one news tape. Each tape is to be assigned to a different time slot, and no tape is longer than any other tape. The broadcast is subject to the following restrictions: L must be played immediately before O. The news tape must be played at some time after L. There must be exactly two time slots between G and P, regardless of whether G comes before P or whether G comes after P. I'm interested in generating a list of permutations that satisfy the conditions as a way of studying for the test and as a programming challenge. However, I'm not sure what class of permutation problem this is. I've generalized the type problem as follows: Given an n-length array A: How many ways can a set of n unique items be arranged within A? Eg. How many ways are there to rearrange ABCDEFG? If the length of the set of unique items is less than the length of A, how many ways can the set be arranged within A if items in the set may occur more than once? Eg. ABCDEF = AABCDEF; ABBCDEF, etc. How many ways can a set of unique items be arranged within A if the items of the set are subject to "blocking conditions"? My thought is to encode the restrictions and then use something like Python's itertools to generate the permutations. Thoughts and suggestions are welcome.

  Read the article

• Dependent Dropdowns with single class element

  - by AJ

  I am trying to create multiple dependent dropdowns (selects) with a unique way. I want to restrict the use of selectors and want to achieve this by using a single class selectors on all SELECTs; by figuring out the SELECT that was changed by its index. Hence, the SELECT[i] that changed will change the SELECT[i+1] only (and not the previous ones like SELECT[i-1]). For html like this: <select class="someclass"> <option value="volvo">Volvo</option> <option value="saab">Saab</option> <option value="mercedes">Mercedes</option> <option value="audi">Audi</option> </select> <select class="someclass"> </select> <select class="someclass"> </select> where the SELECTs other than the first one will get something via AJAX. I see that the following Javascript gives me correct value of the correct SELECT and the value of i also corresponds to the correct SELECT. $(function() { $(".someclass").each(function(i) { $(this).change(function(x) { alert($(this).val() + i); }); }); }); Please note that I really want the minimum selector approach. I just cannot wrap my head around on how to approach this. Should I use Arrays? Like store all the SELECTS in an Array first and then select those? I believe that since the above code already passes the index i, there should be a way without Arrays also. Thanks a bunch. AJ

  Read the article

• Basic FreeMat/MATLAB syntax - dimension error

  - by 0x90

  I am using FreeMat, and I have an RGB picture which is a 3D matrix contains the columns and rows of the pictures and the RGB values for each pixel. Since there is not an intrinsic function to convert RGB picture to YIQ, I have implement one. I came up with this code: Assume I have a 3D array, image_rgb: matrix = [0.299 0.587 0.114; 0.596 -0.274 -0.322; 0.211 -0.523 0.312]; row = 1:length(image_rgb(:,1,1)); col = 1:length(image_rgb(1,:,1)); p = image_rgb(row,col,:); %Here I have the problem mage_yiq(row,col,:) = matrix*image_rgb(row,col,:); max_y = max (max(image_yiq(:,:,1))); max_i = max (max(image_yiq(:,:,2))); max_q = max (max(image_yiq(:,:,3))); %Renormalize the image again after the multipication % to [0,1]. image_yiq(:,:,1) = image_yiq(:,:,1)/max_y; image_yiq(:,:,2) = image_yiq(:,:,2)/max_i; image_yiq(:,:,3) = image_yiq(:,:,3)/max_q; I can't understand why the matrix multiplication fails. I want the code to be nice and not just to, multiply the matrix by hand...

  Read the article

• Why is my Scala function returning type Unit and not whatever is the last line?

  - by Andy

  I am trying to figure out the issue, and tried different styles that I have read on Scala, but none of them work. My code is: .... val str = "(and x y)"; def stringParse ( exp: String, pos: Int, expreshHolder: ArrayBuffer[String], follow: Int ) var b = pos; //position of where in the expression String I am currently in val temp = expreshHolder; //holder of expressions without parens var arrayCounter = follow; //just counts to make sure an empty spot in the array is there to put in the strings if(exp(b) == '(') { b = b + 1; while(exp(b) == ' '){b = b + 1} //point of this is to just skip any spaces between paren and start of expression type if(exp(b) == 'a') { temp(arrayCounter) = exp(b).toString; b = b+1; temp(arrayCounter)+exp(b).toString; b = b+1; temp(arrayCounter) + exp(b).toString; arrayCounter+=1} temp; } } val hold: ArrayBuffer[String] = stringParse(str, 0, new ArrayBuffer[String], 0); for(test <- hold) println(test); My error is: Driver.scala:35: error: type mismatch; found : Unit required: scala.collection.mutable.ArrayBuffer[String] ho = stringParse(str, 0, ho, 0); ^one error found When I add an equals sign after the arguments in the method declaration, like so: def stringParse ( exp: String, pos: Int, expreshHolder: ArrayBuffer[String], follow: Int ) ={....} It changes it to "Any". I am confused on how this works. Any ideas? Much appreciated.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 831 832 833 834 835 836 837 838 839 840 841 842  | Next Page >